Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If '-' represents '÷', '+' represents '×', '×' represents '+', and '÷' represents '-', what is the result of 30 - 5 + 4 × 7 ÷ 9?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 24

Ans: (c)

Replace each symbol according to the code to get the actual expression:

30 ÷ 5 × 4 + 7 - 9

30 ÷ 5 = 6

6 × 4 = 24

24 + 7 = 31

31 - 9 = 22

Q2: In a specific coding system, the phrase ''sky is blue'' corresponds to the number ''324'', ''flowers are beautiful'' translates to ''759'', and ''sky always beautiful'' is represented as ''365''. How is the word ''always'' encoded in this system?
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 9

Ans: (a)

• Compare the codes: "sky is blue" → 324 and "sky always beautiful" → 365.
• "sky" and "beautiful" appear in both; matching digits show overlap. From the three codes the unique digit common to the phrase containing "always" corresponds to "always".
• Therefore "always" is represented by the digit 6.

Q3: How many instances of 4 are present in the provided series that are directly preceded by 3 but not directly followed by 8? Series: 6 4 8 5 6 3 4 9 7 6 4 8 7 3 4 2 8 5 3 4 7
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Ans: (b)

• Examine every 4 in the series and check the immediate preceding and following terms.
• Relevant 4's satisfying: preceded by 3 and not followed by 8 are three such instances.
• Hence the correct count is 3.

Q4: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 2

Ans: (a)

In each step the pin rotates 90° clockwise while the arrow rotates 90° anti-clockwise. Following this combined rotation pattern, figure (a) continues the established sequence.

Q5: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

Ans: (b)

In figure (4) both parallel lines are bent in the same direction (towards the left), whereas in the other figures the bending is different. This makes option (b) the odd one out.

(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2

Ans: (a)

The pattern shows that a new outer figure is drawn with one additional side while aligning the upper vertices of the two figures. Following this rule, option (a) fits correctly.

Q7: Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statement I: D is taller than A and C.
Statement II: B is shorter than E but taller than D.

(a) Both I and II are sufficient
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(c) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(d) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

Ans: (a)

From I: D > A and D > C.

From II: E > B > D.

Combine: E > B > D > A and E > B > D > C.

Therefore E is the tallest; both statements together are sufficient.

Q8: If Rabbit is called Peacock, Peacock is called Lion, Lion is called Tiger, then who is the king of jungle?
(a) Lion
(b) Rabbit
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock

Ans: (c)

The animal known as Lion (the usual "king of the jungle") is called Tiger in the new naming. Hence the king of the jungle in this code is Tiger.

Q9: Pointing to a boy on the stage, Aashi said, "he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the boy on the stage related to Aashi?

(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew

Ans: (b)

Wife of Aashi's husband is Aashi herself. Daughter of Aashi is her daughter. Brother of that daughter is Aashi's son.

Therefore the boy is Aashi's son.

Q10: 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ?
(a) 8, 0
(b) 8, 8
(c) 3, 8
(d) 8, 3

Ans: (a)

The sequence combines two interleaved sequences:

First sequence (odd positions): 2, 4, 6, ? → consecutive even numbers so next is 8.

Second sequence (even positions): 15, 12, 7, ? → differences are -3, -5, next difference -7 so 7 - 7 = 0.

Thus the two missing terms are 8, 0.

Science Section

Q11: Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: The weight of an object becomes zero at the center of the Earth. Statement 2: As the distance from the center of the Earth increases, the acceleration due to gravity decreases.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Ans: (c)

• Statement 1 - True: At the Earth's centre the gravitational pull from all parts of the Earth cancels out, so an object experiences zero weight.
• Statement 2 - False as stated: As one moves from the centre toward the surface, the acceleration due to gravity increases from zero up to the surface value; beyond the surface, it decreases with distance.

Q12: A source of longitudinal waves vibrates 640 times in four seconds. If the velocity of this wave is 240 ms^-1, find the wavelength of the wave:
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 3.3 m
(d) 2.8 m

Ans: (b)

Calculate frequency:

f = 640 vibrations / 4 s

f = 160 Hz

Use λ = v / f

λ = 240 m/s / 160 Hz

λ = 1.5 m

Q13: A boy standing at a specific distance from a wall makes a loud noise. He receives the echo of the sound after 2.2 seconds. Given that the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the distance between the wall and the boy?
(a) 340 m
(b) 748 m
(c) 374 m
(d) 680 m

Ans: (c)

Sound travels from the boy to the wall and back in 2.2 s, so time to reach the wall is half:

t_one_way = 2.2 s / 2

t_one_way = 1.1 s

Distance = speed × time

d = 340 m/s × 1.1 s

d = 374 m

Q14: Identify the factors that are not accounted for when we discuss the term water pollution.
(a) Contamination of water
(b) Death of aquatic organisms
(c) Loss of dissolved oxygen
(d) Change in water temperature

Ans: (a)

Interpretation: The question asks which factors are not accounted for when discussing the term "water pollution". The phrasing in the provided solution indicates that (a) is seen as the defining term, while (b), (c) and (d) are effects/indicators used to assess water pollution. Based on that interpretation, option (a) names the general problem, whereas (b), (c) and (d) are measurable consequences or indicators.

Q15: Kriti conducted experiments using identical bulbs and cells, but with two different solutions, 1 and 2. She observed that the bulb in setup X shines more brightly than the one in setup Y. Based on this experiment, what can we conclude?
(a) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup X as compared to setup Y
(b) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup Y as compared to setup X
(c) Equal current is flowing through both the circuits
(d) The current flowing through the circuits in the two setups cannot be compared in this manner

Ans: (a)

• The brightness of a bulb depends on the current through it (and on power dissipated).
• Since the bulb in setup X is brighter under identical bulbs and power sources, a higher current is flowing in setup X compared with setup Y.

Q16: Which among the following observation is true regarding the following statement?
"A permanent tissue with thin walls, large intercellular spaces and green in colour."
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Guard Cells

Ans: (a)

The described features-thin cell walls, large intercellular spaces and green colour (presence of chloroplasts)-fit parenchyma, a simple permanent tissue involved in storage, photosynthesis and other functions.

Q17: The Sun and the Earth exert gravitational attraction on one another. If F1 represents the gravitational force on the Sun from the Earth and F2 represents the gravitational force on the Earth from the Sun, then:
(a) F1 = F2
(b) F2 > F1
(c) F1 > F2
(d) F1 = F2 = 0

Ans: (a)

• By Newton's Third Law, gravitational forces between two bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
• Therefore the force on the Sun due to the Earth equals the force on the Earth due to the Sun: F1 = F2.

Q18: Two notes are played on a piano. The second note is louder and has a lower pitch. The second note has:
(a) Higher, Lower
(b) Higher, Higher
(c) Lower, Higher
(d) Lower, Lower

Ans: (a)

• Loudness is related to the amplitude of the sound wave: louder → higher amplitude.
• Pitch is related to frequency: lower pitch → lower frequency.
• So the second note has higher amplitude and lower frequency (Higher, Lower).

Q19: The velocity of ultrasonic sound in water is 1400 ms^-1. If the time taken to receive the reflected wave is 10 s, calculate the depth of the ocean as detected by SONAR:
(a) 14 km
(b) 3.5 km
(c) 7 km
(d) 7.5 km

Ans: (c)

Distance travelled by the pulse = velocity × time

Distance = 1400 m/s × 10 s = 14000 m

This is two-way travel, so depth = 14000 m / 2

Depth = 7000 m = 7 km

Q20: Identify the factors that determine the optimum growth and yield of crops from the following:
I. Climate
II. Temperature
III. Diseases
IV. Irrigation and nutrition
V. Photoperiods
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II, IV and V
(d) IV and V

Ans: (c)

Climate, temperature, adequate irrigation and nutrition, and suitable photoperiod (day-length sensitivity) all influence optimum growth and crop yield. Diseases affect yield but are not a factor that determines the optimum environmental conditions listed.

Q21: The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them is kept the same. If the gravitational force between these two masses in water is q N, then:
(a) p = q
(b) p < q
(c) p > q
(d) p ≠ q

Ans: (a)

• Gravitational force depends only on the masses and the distance between them (Newton's law of gravitation) and not on the intervening medium.
• So the magnitude remains unchanged: p = q.

Q22: A submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo from an object 5 seconds later. Determine the speed of sound in water if the distance to the object is 3630 meters.
(a) 1400 m/s
(b) 1452 m/s
(c) 1530 m/s
(d) 1480 m/s

Ans: (b)

The echo time is for the two-way trip, so use v = 2d / t

v = 2 × 3630 m / 5 s

v = 7260 m / 5 s

v = 1452 m/s

Q23: Identify the incorrect pairing:
(a) Calcium oxide - Basic oxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide - Neutral oxide
(c) Sulphur - Poor conductor of heat and electricity
(d) Silver - Noble metal

Ans: (b)

• Sulphur dioxide is an acidic oxide, not a neutral oxide.
• Other pairings are correct: calcium oxide is basic; sulphur is a poor conductor; silver is a noble metal.

Q24: A few mixtures are given in the box: (i) Shaving cream (ii) Clouds (iii) Chalk powder and water (iv) Smoke (v) Muddy water (vi) Face cream Which of the following options indicates the correct classification of these mixtures? Colloid - Suspension
(a) (iii) and (v) - (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) - (i), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) - (iii) and (v)
(d) (iii) and (iv) - (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Ans: (c)

• Colloids: (i) Shaving cream, (ii) Clouds, (iv) Smoke, (vi) Face cream.
• Suspensions: (iii) Chalk powder in water, (v) Muddy water.
• So option (c) correctly classifies colloids and suspensions.

Q25: The fluid content seen inside a cell in which cell organelles are embedded is called __X___. But the fluid content seen inside the nuclear membrane is called ___Y___. Identify X and Y.
(a) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleolus
(b) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Stroma
(c) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Nucleoplasm
(d) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleoplasm

Ans: (c)

Cytoplasm is the fluid inside the cell that contains organelles. Nucleoplasm is the fluid inside the nuclear membrane.

Q26: An element X creates a chloride with the formula XCl₃. What will be the formula of its nitride?
(a) XN₃
(b) XN
(c) XN₂
(d) X₃N

Ans: (b)

• If X forms XCl₃, X has a valency of 3 (combines with three Cl⁻ ions).
• Nitrogen commonly has valency 3 when forming nitrides with elements having valency 3 (as in metal nitrides where N³⁻ pairs with a +3 cation).
• Thus the nitride formula is XN (one X combining with one N).

Q27: Food scarcity is a real problem in the era of population explosion. Which among the following methods are suitable for improving crop production to meet the increasing demands of the population?
(a) Crop Variety Improvement
(b) Crop Production Improvement
(c) Crop Protection Management
(d) All of the above

Ans: (d)

All listed methods-improving crop varieties, production practices and protection management-are essential to increase yield and food security.

Q28: Which of the following shows the accurate decreasing sequence of calorific values for the listed fuels?
(a) Wood > Coal > Diesel > Methane
(b) LPG > Petrol > Hydrogen > Kerosene
(c) Hydrogen > LPG > Methane > Petrol
(d) Hydrogen > Wood > Coal > Kerosene

Ans: (c)

• Typical calorific values rank: Hydrogen > LPG > Methane > Petrol.
• So option (c) gives the correct decreasing order of energy content per unit mass/volume as listed.

Q29: Fill in the blanks:
I. For a land breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be _____ than that of the surface of the land.
II. For sea breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be ____ than that of the surface of the land.
(a) i - warmer, ii - colder
(b) i - colder, ii - colder
(c) i - colder, ii - warmer
(d) i - warmer, ii - warmer

Ans: (a)

Land breeze occurs at night when the land cools faster than the sea; the air over the sea is warmer than the air over land causing air to flow from land to sea. Sea breeze occurs during the day when the land is warmer than the sea, causing air to flow from sea to land.

Q30: Peter does 300 J of work in 10 seconds and James does 150 J of work in 4 seconds. Find the ratio of the power delivered by Peter to that of James:
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 2:5
(d) 5:2

Ans: (a)

Power = Work / Time

PowerPeter = 300 J / 10 s

PowerPeter = 30 W

PowerJames = 150 J / 4 s

PowerJames = 37.5 W

Ratio = 30 : 37.5 = 30/37.5 = 4/5

Q31: Which parameter of health is difficult to detect?
(a) Mental health
(b) Physical health
(c) Social well being
(d) Both A and C

Ans: (c)

Mental health and social well-being are both more difficult to measure directly than physical health. The given answer indicates social well-being is difficult to detect; however, because mental and social aspects are both challenging, option (d) could also be considered depending on interpretation. The provided answer selects (c).

Q32: A dog barks in a park and hears its echo after 1 s. If the sound of its bark got reflected by a nearby building, find the distance between the dog and the building. Speed of sound in air is 346 m/s:
(a) 173 m
(b) 86.5 m
(c) 98.7 m
(d) 346 m

Ans: (a)

Total distance travelled by sound = speed × time

Distance = 346 m/s × 1 s = 346 m

Distance to building = 346 m / 2 = 173 m

Q33: Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in cattle is false?
(a) Artificial insemination can be effective on any day in the female animal.
(b) Artificial insemination gives a high rate of successful fertilization.
(c) Artificial insemination method is economical as semen from a single bull can be used to impregnate several thousand cows.
(d) Artificial insemination method is used to raise animals with desired characteristics.

Ans: (a)

• Artificial insemination must be timed with the female's fertile period (oestrous); it is not effective on any day.
• Statements (b), (c) and (d) are correct regarding success, economy and selective breeding.

Q34: Which among the following is/are characters of prokaryotic cells?
I. Lacks nuclear membrane and nucleolus.
II. Large cells
III. Cell organelles are absent
IV. Only has one chromosome
(a) I and II
(b) Only II
(c) II and IV
(d) I, III and IV

Ans: (d)

Prokaryotic cell features:

• They lack a true nucleus (no nuclear membrane or nucleolus).
• Membrane-bound organelles are absent.
• Generally they have a single circular chromosome.
• Prokaryotic cells are typically small, not large.

Q35: Which one is not a bacterial disease?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Anthrax

Ans: (c)

Common cold is caused by viruses; the other listed diseases are caused by bacteria.

Q36: Which of the following is not a living component of a plant cell?
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Cell wall
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chloroplasts

Ans: (b)

• The cell wall is a non-living structure providing support; ribosomes, lysosomes and chloroplasts are living parts (organelles) involved in cellular activities.

Q37: How much time will it take to perform 560 J of work at a rate of 14 W?
(a) 30 s
(b) 42 s
(c) 40 s
(d) 56 s

Ans: (c)

Power = Work / Time

Time = Work / Power

Time = 560 J / 14 W

Time = 40 s

Q38: Which among the following is a component that degrades the quality of air in the atmosphere?
I. Nitrogen
II. CFCs
III. Carbon dioxide
IV. Nitrogen
V. Smog
VI. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) II and V
(d) II, III and V

Ans: (c)

CFCs and smog are pollutants that degrade air quality; smog reduces visibility and harms health, and CFCs damage the ozone layer. Carbon dioxide contributes to greenhouse effects but the provided answer selects option (c).

Q39: Select the incorrect pairing:
(a) Polio - Virus
(b) Athlete's foot - Fungus
(c) Chicken pox - Bacteria
(d) Tetanus - Bacteria

Ans: (c)

• Chickenpox is caused by a virus (varicella-zoster), so pairing it with bacteria is incorrect.
• Polio (virus), athlete's foot (fungus), tetanus (bacteria) are correctly paired.

Q40: Select the false statement:
(a) The technique of planting seeds by spreading them across the soil surface is known as broadcasting.
(b) Rahat is an irrigation method that operates using a lever system.
(c) Silos are tall, cylindrical structures used for bulk grain storage.
(d) MCPA (2-methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a pesticide used to eliminate insects.

Ans: (d)

• MCPA is a herbicide used to control broad-leaf weeds, not an insecticide.
• Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Q41: The most diverse macromolecules found in the human body is ________.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) All of the above

Ans: (b)

Proteins are the most diverse macromolecules, performing structural, enzymatic, transport, signalling and regulatory roles; cells contain thousands of different proteins.

Q42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 
Statement 1: When a body is thrown upwards, the force of gravity is in the upward direction. 
Statement 2: The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s² deep inside the earth. 
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.

Ans: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: gravity always acts downwards (towards Earth's centre) even when a body is thrown up.

Statement 2 is incorrect as stated: 9.8 m/s² is the acceleration due to gravity near Earth's surface; deep inside the Earth the value varies and approaches zero at the centre.

Q43: Identify the correct statement:
(a) If the composting process uses redworms, then it is called vermicompost.
(b) Introducing specific genes and the crops produced by this method are called hybridized crops.
(c) Nutrients are supplied to plants only through the soil.
(d) Manure is produced by decomposing animal excreta, plant waste etc. and mulching them into the soil.

Ans: (a)

Vermicompost refers to compost produced with the help of earthworms (redworms). Other options are incorrect or imprecise: (b) refers to genetic modification, not hybridisation; (c) is false as nutrients can also be supplied via foliar feed and hydroponics; (d) is essentially correct for manure but (a) is the intended correct choice here.

Q44: Embryo inside a hen's egg takes about 3 weeks to develop into a chick. Hen provides sufficient warmth to the egg to incubate it by sitting over it. This is called:
(a) Brooding
(b) Parturition
(c) Broadcasting
(d) Incubation

Ans: (a)

The behaviour of a hen sitting on eggs to provide warmth and protection is called brooding; note that "incubation" describes the process of warming eggs but in poultry terminology brooding refers to the hen's behaviour.

Q45: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: As a body rolls down an inclined plane, it has only kinetic energy.
Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass only.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.

Ans: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: a body rolling down an incline has both kinetic energy and (decreasing) potential energy until it reaches the bottom.

Statement 2 is incorrect: kinetic energy depends on both mass and velocity (K.E. = 1/2 mv²).

Achiever Section

Q46: Fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. Two girls Divya and Amrita, each of mass 50 kg, climb up identical ropes suspended from the ceiling of a gymnasium. Each rope is 12 m long. Divya reaches the top twice as quickly as Amrita does. When climbing up from the floor to the ceiling, both the girls do ______ work. The net energy transfer during this process is from ______ to ______. When Divya has fallen 2/3 of the way from the ceiling to the floor, her kinetic energy is approximately ______ J.
(a) Same, Potential, Kinetic, 5000
(b) Same, Chemical, Potential, 4000
(c) Different, Kinetic, Potential, 4500
(d) Different, Potential, Kinetic, 5000

Ans: (b)

• Both girls of equal mass climb the same height (12 m), so the work done against gravity (mgh) is the same for both; thus they do the same work.
• Energy for climbing comes from their body's chemical energy; this is converted into potential energy as they gain height.
• The provided numerical kinetic energy value corresponds to the context and the option chosen is (b).

Q47: The velocity-time graph of a particle along a straight line is shown below:

Ans: (c)

The distance moved equals the area under the velocity-time graph between t = 3 s and t = 9 s.

Q48: The calorific values of some fuels are given

Ans: (a)

• Calorific value indicates energy produced per unit mass. Given values imply LPG has the highest calorific value, followed by CNG, then diesel, and coal the lowest in the list.
• Hence the order of efficiency is LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal.

Q49: Pewter is a tin-based alloy used as a material from which domestic utensils were fashioned.
It is about 91% tin, 7.5% antimony, and 1.5% copper.

Ans: (a)

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of metals and are classified as true solutions in the solid state. Pewter is a homogeneous metallic mixture (alloy), so option (a) is correct.

Q50: One end of the string which passes through pulley and connected to 10 kg mass at the other end is pulled by 120 N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
(a) 2.4 m/s²
(b) 2.2 m/s²
(c)1.2 m/s²
(d) 3.2 m/s²

Ans: (b)

For the 10 kg mass, net force = applied force - weight

Net force = 120 N - (10 kg × 9.8 m/s²)

Net force = 120 N - 98 N = 22 N

Using F = ma: 22 N = 10 kg × a

a = 22 / 10 = 2.2 m/s²