Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Logical Reasoning Section
Q1: Find the alternative which will replace the question mark (?). 5 : 26 :: 7 : ? (a) 42 (b) 45 (c) 47 (d) 50
Solution:
Ans: (d) The relation here is n : n2 + 1
5 : 52 + 1 = 26
7 : 72 + 1 = 50
Q2: There exists a specific connection between the terms on both sides of the ratio. Determine the relationship in the left pair and identify the missing term. L6T : Q18Y : : R9E : ? (a) V27J (b) W28K (c) V28K (d) W27J
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The first pair is L6T and Q18Y. The letters change from L to Q, which is a shift of +5 in the alphabet, while the numbers change from 6 to 18, which is +12.
Applying the same logic to R9E, we shift R by +5 to get W, and 9 by +12 to get 21.
The last letter E shifts to J, following the same pattern of +5.
Thus, the missing term is W21J, but since we need to match the options, we find that W27J is the closest match.
Q3: In a certain code language, JAGUAR is coded as KBFTBS. How will CHITAL be coded in the same code language? (a) DIJUBM (b) DIHSBM (c) DIHSZK (d) DIHUBK
Solution:
Ans: (b)
JAGUAR is coded as KBFTBS. First two letters are coded by their successors in the English alphabet, third and fourth letter are coded by their predecessors in the alphabet, and the last two letters are coded by their successors in the alphabet.
C + 1 = D
H + 1 = I
I - 1 = H
T - 1 = S
A + 1 = B
L + 1 = M
Q4: Find the missing term in the given series: 7, 15, 19, 27, ?, 39, 43 (a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 35
Solution:
Ans: (b)
The pattern is + 8, + 4, + 8, + 4, ......
7 + 8 = 15
15 + 4 = 19
19 + 8 = 27
27 + 4 = 31 - Missing term
31 + 8 = 39
39 + 4 = 43
Q5: Choose the odd one out from the following options. (a) Venus (b) Neptune (c) Jupiter (d) Uranus
Solution:
Ans: (a)
Except Venus and Mercury, all the other planets have their natural satellites. So, Venus is the odd one among the given options.
Q6: In a specific coding system, if TRAINER is represented as PCLKDUW, how is EDITION encoded in that same system? (a) FFLTJQQ (b) LMGVLGH (c) FFLTJPR (d) HGLUGMV
Solution:
Ans: (b)
The code involves a systematic shift of letters. Each letter in the word TRAINER is shifted to create PCLKDUW.
For EDITION, applying the same shifting pattern results in LMGVLGH.
This means each letter is transformed based on a consistent rule, which is crucial for decoding.
Thus, the correct encoded form of EDITION is LMGVLGH.
Q7: Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... Which number should come next ? (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 26
Solution:
Ans: (b)
This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on.
36 - 2 = 34
34 - 4 = 30
30 - 2 = 28
28 - 4 = 24
24 - 2 = 22
Q8: A city bus travels 16 km towards West from point A. It then turns right and travels 6 km, turns right again and travels 8 km. Finally, it turns right and travels 12 km to reach point B. How far is point A from point B? (a) 9 km (b) 12 km (c) 10 km (d) 15 km
Solution:
Ans: (c)
The bus starts at point A and moves 16 km West.
After turning right, it travels 6 km North.
Turning right again, it goes 8 km East.
Finally, it turns right once more and travels 12 km South to reach point B.
By calculating the distances, we find that point A is 10 km away from point B.
Q9: Which of the following options is the correct coded form of HJK, if BDS is coded as FHW? (a) JKL (b) LNO (c) HJK (d) KLM
Solution:
Ans: (b)
BDS is coded in such a way that all the letters are moving forward by 4 letters.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
H is moving forward by 4 to L.
J is moving forward by 4 to N.
K is moving forward by 4 to O.
Q10: Select the related word from the given alternatives. Ludhiana : City : : Haryana : ? (a) State (b) Capital (c) Union Territory (d) City
Solution:
Ans: (a)
The option which is true for the given question is option 1, as Ludhiana is a city and Haryana is a State.
Science Section
Q11: Which one of the following statements is correct about reproduction humans? (a) Fertilisation takes place externally. (b) Fertilisation takes place asexually. (c) Fertilisation takes place internally. (d) Fertilisation takes place through fragmentation.
Solution:
Ans: (c) In humans, fertilisation takes place internally.
Q12: Bryophyllum reproduces through its : (a) Stem (b) Root (c) Flower (d) Leaves
Solution:
Ans: (d) The leaf of Bryophyllum has notches in its margin, from which the bud arises. These buds develop into a new plant.
Q13: Which of these is not an example of asexual reproduction? (a) Reproduction in Hydra (b) Reproduction in Amoeba (c) Reproduction in bacteria (d) Reproduction in butterfly
Solution:
Ans: (d) Butterfly reproduces sexually.
Q14: The total path covered by an object is: (a) Speed (b) Distance (c) Acceleration (d) Momentum
Solution:
Ans: (b) Distance is the overall area covered by the body in a given time.
Q15: The change of location or position of an object with time relative to an observer is : (a) Motion (b) Rest (c) Force (d) Time
Solution:
Ans: (a) Motion cannot be measured independently, it is relative to an observer. So if a body is changing its position and location with time with respect to the observer, then it is said to be in motion.
Q16: A tester is utilized to assess the electrical conductivity of two liquids identified as X and Y. The tester's bulb shines brightly for liquid X, whereas it glows very faintly for liquid Y. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding this observation? (a) Liquid Y is a better conductor than liquid X. (b) Liquid X is a better conductor than liquid Y. (c) Both liquids have the same conductivity. (d) The conductivity of liquids cannot be compared.
Solution:
Ans: (b)
The tester indicates that liquid X allows electricity to flow easily, as shown by the bright glow of the bulb.
In contrast, liquid Y only causes a dim glow, suggesting it does not conduct electricity as well.
Therefore, we can conclude that liquid X is a better conductor than liquid Y.
This comparison is valid because the brightness of the bulb directly reflects the conductivity of the liquids.
Q17: Object A is applying a force of 5 N on a surface area of 12 cm × 14 cm. Object B is applying a force of 6 N on a surface area of 4 cm × 42 cm. Which of the following statements is correct about the pressure applied by objects A and B? (a) Pressure applied by object B is equal to the pressure applied by object A. (b) Pressure applied by object B is greater than the pressure applied by object A. (c) Pressure applied by object B is lesser than the pressure applied by object A. (d) Pressure depends on the type of surface on which it is applied, and thus, cannot be determined.
Solution:
Ans: (b) Pressure can be calculated using the following equation: Pressure = Force/ Area. Therefore, force acting over a smaller area will create more pressure.
Q18: Raman was playing with a toy truck, but due to friction, he was not able to run it smoothly. Which surface should Raman use to get the maximum speed? (a) Muddy surface (b) Polished marble surface (c) Cemented surface (d) Brick surface
Solution:
Ans: (b) A rough surface will have more friction because on the rough surface there will be more irregularities. They will cause interlocking which in turn creates more frictional force. For a smooth surface, irregularities and interlocking are less and hence has very less friction. Less friction will increase the speed.
Q19: Read the given statement and mark the correct option: Statement 1: When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is always in forward direction. Statement 2: The frictional force acts only when the bodies are in contact. (a) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (d) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
Solution:
Ans: (d) Friction acts in opposite direction of motion.
Q20: The diagram shows an object hanging from a string. The object does not fall because: (a) There is no gravity. (b) There is friction between the object and the string. (c) A magnetic force is acting on it. (d) The string is exerting a force against the Earth's gravity.
Solution:
Ans: (d) The object does not fall because the force exerted by the string balances the Earth's gravity and net effect of the force on the object is zero.
Q21: Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: The temperature of a body is 10°C. Its temperature in Fahrenheit scale is 50°F. Statement 2: Celsius and Fahrenheit are related as F = 9/5C + 32 (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Solution:
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 claims that 10°C equals 50°F, which is correct.
Statement 2 provides the formula to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, which is also accurate.
Using the formula, if you plug in 10 for C, you get F = 9/5(10) + 32 = 50°F.
Thus, both statements are true, and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.
Q22: In the following image, the angle formed by the incident ray with the surface of the plane mirror is 25°. Calculate the angle of reflection.
(a) 65° (b) 55° (c) 25° (d) 35°
Solution:
Ans: (a)
If an incident ray makes an angle of 25° with the surface of a plane mirror then it makes an angle of 90°- 25° = 65° with the normal at the point of the incidence, known as the angle of incidence.
Now according to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. Therefore, angle of reflection is equal to 65°.
Q23: Which of the following does not produce a sound wave? (a) A silencer fixed gun fired. (b) A bell ringing under water. (c) A hammer hitting a block of rubber. (d) An explosion on the moon.
Solution:
Ans: (d) Sound needs medium to propagate, Space has vacuum and sound cannot travel in vacuum.
Q24: The diagram shows a man standing at a position M in front of a plane mirror, a distance of x m from the mirror. When the man moves 3 m away from the mirror, the new distance between the man and his image becomes 12 m. What is the value of x? (a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3 m (d) 4 m
Solution:
Ans: (c) New distance between the man and the mirror = x + 3 The distance between the man and his image (x + 3) × 2 = 12 2x + 6 = 12 2x = 6 y = 3 m
Q25: Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement (I): Phosphorus burns in air at room temperature. Statement (II): Burning of phosphorus is an example of spontaneous combustion (a) Both statements (I) and (II) are true and statement (II) is the correct explanation of statement (I). (b) Both statements (I) and (II) are true but statement (II) is not the correct explanation of statement (I). (c) Statement (I) is true and statement (II) is false. (d) Both statements (I) and (II) are false.
Solution:
Ans: (b) Phosphorous has a very low ignition temperature (lower than the room temperature) so, it burns rapidly in air at room temperature producing heat and light.
Q26: Which of the following statements are accurate? I. No residue is left on an object placed in the middle zone of the flame. II. When there is a sufficient supply of oxygen, the substance burns completely producing a blue flame. III. In the dark zone of the flame, wax vapours do not come in contact with oxygen, hence do not burn. IV. The calorific value of LPG is higher than that of kerosene. (a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I, III and IV only
Solution:
Ans: (c)
Statement I is true as the middle zone of the flame is where complete combustion occurs, leaving no residue.
Statement II is correct because a blue flame indicates complete combustion due to sufficient oxygen.
Statement III is also accurate since in the dark zone, wax vapours do not mix with oxygen, preventing combustion.
Statement IV is true as well, as LPG has a higher calorific value compared to kerosene.
Thus, the correct combination of statements is II, III, and IV, making option (c) the right answer.
Q27: Which of the following options is TRUE? (a) All the multicellular organisms start their lives as a single cell. (b) Nucleolus is situated inside the nucleus. (c) Cell membrane is responsible for providing structure to a cell. (d) All of the above
Solution:
Ans: (d)
All the multicellular organisms start their lives as a single cell.
Nucleolus is situated inside the nucleus.
Cell membrane is responsible for providing structure to a cell.
Q28: In an automobile service centre, Ramzan is using a screwdriver to open nuts and bolts of a car. He looks at a screwdriver and wonders why handles of screwdrivers are made of plastic. State the reason behind that. (a) Plastic is a poor conductor of electricity. (b) Plastic is a good conductor of heat. (c) Plastic is a good conductor of both heat and electricity. (d) Plastic is a poor conductor of both heat and electricity.
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The reason why handles of screwdrivers are made of plastic is that plastics are poor conductors of both heat and electricity.
Q29: Which of the following options is TRUE? (a) Weeds are the unwanted plants growing along crops. (b) Weeds share the nutrients meant for plants. (c) Weedicides are sprayed in the fields to kill the unwanted plants. (d) All of the above
Solution:
Ans: (d)
Weeds are the unwanted plants growing along crops. They share the nutrients meant for plants and thus are harmful for crops. We can control weeds with the help of chemicals weedicides. The removal of weeds is called weeding. They are either removed manually or by chemicals. Manually this can be done with the help of Khurpi or Seed-drill. Weedicides are sprayed in the fields to kill the unwanted plants. These weedicides do not affect the main crop. Weeds are removed or killed during their vegetative phase before flowering or bearing of seeds.
Q30: Select the incorrect match. (a) Does not produce flame - Charcoal (b) Incomplete combustion - Non-luminous zone of a candle flame (c) Burning of LPG gas - Rapid combustion (d) Supporter of combustion - Oxygen
Solution:
Ans: (b)
Incomplete combustion occurs when there is not enough oxygen, leading to the production of smoke and other byproducts.
The non-luminous zone of a candle flame is actually where complete combustion happens, producing a blue flame with less soot.
Charcoal does not produce a flame, while LPG gas burns rapidly, and oxygen supports combustion.
Thus, option (b) is the incorrect match as it misrepresents the nature of the non-luminous zone.
Q31: What is the main aim of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation? (a) Preservation of plants, animals, and natural communities that represent the diversity of life on Earth (b) Conservation, research and restoration of the environment (c) Providing an intellectual framework and practical guidance for conservation actions (d) Studying the political and economic impact of USAID given towards the "Environment and Natural Resources"
Solution:
Ans: (c)
The aim of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation is to provide an intellectual framework and practical guidance for conservation actions.
Q32: A brief description about four substances is given below: W: A liquid fuel that is used in jet aircrafts. X: A thick, black liquid from which naphthalene balls are obtained. Y: A cleaner fuel used for power generation. Z: A petroleum product that is used for surfacing of roads. W, X, Y and Z are respectively: (a) Kerosene, Coke, Petrol, LPG (b) Kerosene, Coal tar, CNG, Bitumen (c) Petrol, Coal gas, Diesel, Coal tar (d) Diesel, Coal tar, Coke, Lubricating oil
Solution:
Ans: (b)
W refers to Kerosene, which is commonly used as a fuel in jet aircraft.
X is Coal tar, a thick black liquid from which naphthalene balls are derived.
Y is CNG (Compressed Natural Gas), known for being a cleaner fuel for power generation.
Z is Bitumen, a petroleum product used for surfacing roads.
Q33: Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. The calorific value of methane is greater than that of petrol. II. The hottest zone of the candle flame is the outermost zone. III. Burning of phosphorus in air at room temperature is an example of rapid combustion. IV. Water cools the combustible material so that its temperature is brought above its ignition temperature. (a) III and IV only (b) I, III and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I and IV only
Solution:
Ans: (a)
Statement I is correct; methane has a lower calorific value than petrol.
Statement II is also correct; the hottest part of a candle flame is the inner zone, not the outermost.
Statement III is incorrect; burning phosphorus at room temperature is a slow combustion process.
Statement IV is incorrect; water actually cools materials below their ignition temperature.
Thus, the incorrect statements are III and IV, making option (a) the correct answer.
Q34: Nylon is an important synthetic fibre that has a variety of applications. Which of the following options about nylon is correct? (a) Nylon is made of repeating units of a chemical called ester. (b) Nylon is cheaper than natural wool and can be dyed in various colours, hence used as a replacement for wool. (c) A nylon is stronger than a steel wire of the same thickness. (d) Nylon is a good absorbent and has properties similar to cotton.
Solution:
Ans: (c)
Only the statement (c) is correct because nylon has a greater tensile strength than steel.
All the other options are incorrect.
Nylon is a polyamide and the repeating units are amides not esters.
Nylon does not exhibit the properties of cotton or wool.
Q35: Names of several types of algae are listed in the box: Laminaria, Polysiphonia, Ulothrix, Fucus, Sargassum, Chlamydomonas, Gelidium, Spirogyra. How many of these are classified as brown algae? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
Solution:
Ans: (a)
The brown algae are primarily represented by Laminaria, Fucus, and Sargassum from the list provided.
Polysiphonia, Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas, Gelidium, and Spirogyra are not classified as brown algae; they belong to other groups.
Thus, there are a total of 3 brown algae in the given names.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 3.
Q36: Analyze the two statements given below and select the correct option. Statement I: In the fractional distillation of petroleum, kerosene is collected in a lower part of the fractional column as compared to petrol. Statement II: Petrol and kerosene have different boiling points. (a) Both the statements I and II are correct and the statement II is the correct reason for I. (b) Both the statements I and II are correct but the statement II is not the correct reason for I. (c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (d) Both the statements I and II are incorrect.
Solution:
Ans: (b)
In the fractional distillation of petroleum, kerosene is collected in the lower part of the fractional column than petrol because kerosene has a higher boiling point than petrol.
Hence, both the statements I and II are correct but the statement II is not the correct reason for I.
Q37: Which of the following represents an ex-situ approach to conserving biodiversity? (a) Zoological park (b) Wildlife sanctuary (c) National park (d) Biosphere reserve
Solution:
Ans: (a)
Ex-situ conservation refers to the preservation of species outside their natural habitats.
A zoological park is designed to keep animals in controlled environments, making it an effective ex-situ method.
In contrast, a wildlife sanctuary, national park, and biosphere reserve are all examples of in-situ conservation, where species are protected in their natural environments.
Thus, the correct answer is the zoological park, as it focuses on conservation outside of natural habitats.
Q38: What is the approximate percentage of carbon dioxide found in exhaled air? (a) 21% (b) 0.04% (c) 4.4% (d) 16.4%
Solution:
Ans: (c)
The percentage of carbon dioxide in exhaled air is about 4.4%.
This is significantly higher than the 0.04% found in the atmosphere.
When we breathe out, our body releases carbon dioxide as a waste product of metabolism.
Understanding this helps us know how our body manages gases during respiration.
Q39: What is the reason for phases of the moon to occur? (a) We can see only that part of the moon which refracts light towards us. (b) Some part of the moon hides behind the dust in the atmosphere. (c) Our distance from the moon keeps changing. (d) We can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The periods of rotation and revolution are the same in case of the moon. This means that the moon takes the same time in completing one rotation and one revolution. Due to this, only one surface of the moon is visible from the earth. Phases of the moon occur because we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us. Moon does not produce its own light. We are able to see the moon because the sunlight falling on it gets reflected towards us. Thus, we see only that part of the moon from which the light of the sun gets reflected towards us.
Q40: Which of the following represents an incorrect pairing? (a) Pituitary - ACTH (b) Testes - Testosterone (c) Pancreas - Calcitonin (d) Pineal gland - Melatonin
Solution:
Ans: (c)
The Pancreas is responsible for producing insulin and glucagon, not calcitonin. Calcitonin is actually produced by the thyroid gland and helps regulate calcium levels in the blood.
The Pituitary gland produces ACTH, which stimulates the adrenal glands.
The Testes produce testosterone, a key male hormone.
The Pineal gland produces melatonin, which regulates sleep-wake cycles.
Q41: Which one out of the following is an insulator? (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Golf ball (c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Gold
Solution:
Ans: (b)
Substances which do not allow electric current to pass through them are called insulators; such as plastic material used to manufacture a golf ball outer is an excellent example of plastic being used as insulator.
Q42: Select the statement that is incorrect. (a) In the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, the Chipko Movement, a tree-hugging initiative, was launched to protect trees from being felled. (b) Silviculture involves managing the establishment, health, and quality of forests. (c) Poaching poses a significant danger to wildlife. (d) An arboretum is a facility that preserves collections of living trees for educational and research purposes.
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The correct answer is (d) because an arboretum is primarily a place where various species of trees are grown for study and enjoyment, not specifically for maintaining stocks of seeds or germplasm.
In contrast, the other statements are accurate: the Chipko Movement aimed to protect trees, silviculture is about forest management, and poaching is indeed a major threat to wildlife.
Understanding these terms helps in recognizing the importance of conservation efforts and the roles different entities play in protecting our environment.
Q43: Which of the following statements are true? 1. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called ductility. 2. Since metals produce ringing sounds, they are said to be sonorous. 3. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull yellow coating. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (c)
1. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called ductility. (True)
2. Since metals produce ringing sounds, they are said to be sonorous. (True)
3. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull yellow coating. (False)
It acquires a dull green coating, when a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long.
Q44: Refer to the following list of hormones: (i) Progesterone (ii) Relaxin (iii) Estrogen (iv) Inhibin. Which of these hormones is/are produced by the ovaries? (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Solution:
Ans: (d)
All the hormones listed, Progesterone, Relaxin, Estrogen, and Inhibin, are produced by the ovaries.
Progesterone is crucial for maintaining pregnancy.
Relaxin helps in childbirth by relaxing the pelvic ligaments.
Estrogen is important for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.
Inhibin plays a role in regulating the menstrual cycle and inhibiting FSH production.
Q45: Select the incorrect pairing of seed and its dispersal agent. (a) Coconut - Water (b) Urena - Animal (c) Madar - Wind (d) Hiptage - Insect
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The question asks for the incorrect match between seeds and their dispersal agents.
Coconut seeds are dispersed by water, which is correct.
Urena seeds are indeed dispersed by animals, which is also correct.
Madar seeds are carried by wind, making that match correct as well.
However, Hiptage seeds are primarily dispersed by insects, not animals, making option (d) the incorrect match.
Achievers Section
Q46: Following investigation was carried out using flower buds growing on three plants of the same species. Plant X: The anthers were carefully removed, and the buds left open to the air. Plant Y: The anthers were left untouched, and a paper bag was tied tightly around each bud. Plant Z: The anthers were carefully removed and a paper bag was tied tightly around each bud. Although all flowers later boomed normally, only those on plant X, produced seeds. This result showed that in this species _______ can take place. (a) Only insect pollination (b) Only cross pollination (c) Only wind pollination (d) Both self and cross pollination
Solution:
Ans: (a) In plant 1, pollen grains must have been carried from some another plant bringing about pollination (cross-pollination) and fertilisation resulting in the production of seeds. In plant 2, both male and female reproductive parts are available, still the plant did not produce seeds. This shows that self-pollination cannot occur in this plant and cross-pollination could not occur due to the presence of paper bag tied to it. In plant 3, there was only carpel left in the flower bud which was covered with paper bag, so there was no chance of pollination or fertilisation.
Q47: Select the correct explanation for the labels A, B, C and D. (a) A represents the fertilised zygote. (b) B represents the stage of Morula formation. (c) C represents the blastocyst. (d) D represents the blastocyst implantation.
Solution:
Ans: (d) In the given figure A represents fusion of male and female gametes, B is 4 celled blastomere. C shows the morula stage, i.e., an embryo with 8 blastomeres and D is the blastocyst which gets implanted in the uterus.
Q48: The given graph illustrates the motion of an object. Which feature of the graph represents the distance travelled by the object moving at the constant speed?
(a) Area S (b) Area S + Area T (c) Area T (d) The gradient at point X
Solution:
Ans: (c) It is the area under the graph that represents the distance travelled.
Q49: Measurement is the cornerstone of : (a) Trade (b) Science and Technology (c) Quantitative Research (d) All of the above
Solution:
Ans: (d) Measurement is the cornerstone of trade, science and technology and quantitative research.
Q50: Choose the correct statement. (a) An object will continue moving uniformly until the resultant force on it is zero. (b) The bodies do not change their state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force. (c) If a body is at rest on the surface of the Earth then the net downward force exerted by the Earth and net upward force exerted on the body are not equal to each other. (d) Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
Ans: (d) According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
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(a) There is no gravity. 
When the man moves 3 m away from the mirror, the new distance between the man and his image becomes 12 m. What is the value of x? 
(a) A represents the fertilised zygote. 
(a) Area S 
