CBSE Class 8  >  Class 8 Notes  >  Science Olympiad   >  Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If Sumer is standing 123rd from left and 45th from right in a row, then how many persons are standing in that row?
(a) 168
(b) 167
(c) 159
(d) 140

Q2: In a certain language, KEYBOARD is coded as MGADRCTF. What would be the code for YACHT in the same language?
(a) ACEKV
(b) ACEJV
(c) BCENJ
(d) CFRON

Q3: How many pairs of letters can be found in the word "TWINKLING" that have the same number of letters between them as they do in the English alphabet?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) More than five 

Q4: Which of the following two operators need to be swapped to correct the equation? 
15 + 9 ÷ 3 - 6 × 2 = 39
(a) ÷ and ×
(b) × and +
(c) + and ÷
(d) ÷ and -

Q5: Jacky ranks 18th from the top. If the total pupils in the list is 50, then what is his rank from the bottom?
(a) 16th
(b) 33rd
(c) 32nd
(d) 5th

Q6: Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Key 

2. Door 
3. Lock 
4. Room 
5. Switch on
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Q7: Complete the series.
34, 67, 133, 265, ____
(a) 456
(b) 529
(c) 649
(d) 745

Q8: In a specific coding system, 'TEACHER' is represented as 'SFIDBFU'. How is 'STUDENT' represented in this coding system?
(a) TUVEFDU
(b) UOFEVUT
(c) TUVDDMS
(d) TNEDUTS

Q9: Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
(a) food
(b) spoon
(c) dish
(d) soup

Q10: Pointing to a girl, Reema said, "She is the only sister of the only son-in-law of my mother's husband." How is that girl related to Reema, if Reema has no sister?
(a) Sister
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Mother
(d) Niece

Science Section

Q11: Which of the following season in which the Cassiopeia constellation can be seen? 
(a) Summer, early part of night. 
(b) Winter, late evening 
(c) Spring, equinox 
(d) Winter, early part of night

Q12: Read the given statements and select the correct option: 
Statement I - Liquid conducts current due to the presence of ions. 
Statement II - Direction of current is the same as the direction of movement of negative ions in the liquid. 

(a) Only Statement I is correct 
(b) Only Statement II is correct 
(c) Both Statements I and II are correct 
(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect 

Q13: The surface area of the base of a brick X is 100 cm². The surface area of the base of a brick Y is 250 cm². Each brick weighs 100 N. Which of the following is correct, if P₁ and P₂ are the pressures exerted by bricks X and Y respectively?
(a) P₁ = P₂
(b) P₁ > P₂
(c) P₁ < P₂
(d) P₁ = P₂ = 0
Ans: (b)

  • To find the pressure exerted by each brick, we use the formula: Pressure = Force / Area.
  • For brick X: P₁ = 100 N / 100 cm² = 1 N/cm².
  • For brick Y: P₂ = 100 N / 250 cm² = 0.4 N/cm².
  • Since 1 N/cm² (P₁) is greater than 0.4 N/cm² (P₂), we conclude that P₁ > P₂.

Q14: Niara operates her toy car on various surfaces including dry marble floor, wet marble floor, newspaper, and a towel laid on the floor. The order of frictional force acting on the car from highest to lowest across these surfaces will be:
(a) Wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper, towel
(b) Newspaper, towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor
(c) Towel, newspaper, dry marble floor, wet marble floor
(d) Towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper

Q15: 1 light year is equal to: 
(a) 9.46 × 1012 km 
(b) 9.46 × 1015 km 
(c) 9.2 × 105 km 
(d) 9.46 × 108 km

Q16: A parallel beam of light strikes a converging lens aligned with its principal axis. If the light source is moved further away from the lens along this axis, how does the intensity of light change?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Continuously increases
(c) Continuously decreases
(d) First increases then decreases

Q17: Choose the correct statement about Gibbous moon. 
(a) It is referred to as solar eclipse. 
(b) It is more than half lighted moon seen but less than full. 
(c) It is no moon seen in the sky. 
(d) It is full moon seen in the sky.

Q18: Which of the following statements regarding Venus is/are accurate? 
I. It is known as the morning star and evening star. 
II. On this planet, the Sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 
III. It is referred to as Earth's twin. 
IV. It is the third closest planet to the Sun and the second closest to Earth. 
V. It is the hottest planet in the solar system. 
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, III and V only
(d) I, II, III and IV only 

Q19: Photosynthesis helps to maintain the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by: 
(a) Giving off carbon dioxide and absorbing oxygen. 
(b) Giving off oxygen and absorbing carbon dioxide. 
(c) Releasing oxygen and carbon dioxide. 
(d) Absorbing oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Q20: When we remove polyester or woolen clothes in dark, we can see a spark and hear a crackling sound. It is because of: 
(a) Static electricity 
(b) Current electricity 
(c) Positive charge 
(d) Negative charge

Q21: Global warming leads to a rise in the sea level causing floods in the coastal areas. Which of these is one of the main reasons of global warming? 
(a) Combustion of fuels releases sulphur dioxide which increases the temperature. 
(b) Combustion of fuels releases carbon monoxide which decreases the temperature. 
(c) Combustion of fuels releases unburnt carbon particles which causes decrease in temperature. 
(d) Combustion of fuels releases carbon dioxide which causes increase in temperature.

Q22: Croton plants: 
(a) Do not contain chlorophyll. 
(b) Are dark red in colour. Hence, they depend on other plants for food. 
(c) Have chlorophyll but it is hidden by dark red colour pigments. 
(d) Are parasites.

Q23: If a body covers a total distance of 15 km in the first hour, 30 km in the second hour, and 45 km by the end of the third hour, the body
(a) Is in uniform motion
(b) Is in non-uniform motion
(c) May be in uniform or non-uniform motion
(d) Is moving with zero acceleration

Q24: Which of the following statements about radiation is/are accurate? I. Radiation is the sole method of heat transfer that can happen without any medium. II. Radiation is unable to penetrate solids. III. Thermal energy can be conveyed through infra-red radiation. 
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I and III only

Q25: Which of the following statements are false? 
I. Wind currents are caused by the uneven heating of the Earth by the Sun. 
II. It is safe to lie on the ground during a thunderstorm. 
III. Higher wind speed leads to lower air pressure. 
IV. The high pressure found at the center of a cyclone is known as the eye.
(a) I and III only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) II, III and IV only

Q26: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Coal tar is a black, thick liquid obtained as a by-product during the processing of coal
(c) Lubricating oil, a petroleum product, is used for lubrication
(d) Gasoline is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum

Q27: A few substances are listed below: "Graphite, lamp black, coke, coal, fullerene, sugar charcoal, gas carbon, wood charcoal, diamond." How many amorphous forms of carbon are present in the substances mentioned?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1

Q28: Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Multicellular organisms.

Q29: What is the primary constituent in the mixture of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Butane
(d) Magnesium

Q30: What are the advantages of using CNG and LPG as fuels?
(a) They are more efficient.
(b) They are less polluting than other fossil fuels.
(c) They can be easily transported; either in cylinders or through pipelines.
(d) All of the above

Q31: Which of the following is responsible for Malaria disease?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Ascaris
(d) Enterobius vermicularis

Q32: Which of the following processes (i-vi) are considered chemical and irreversible changes? 
(i) Setting of cement 
(ii) Breaking of a flower vase 
(iii) Drying of a wet floor 
(iv) Respiration 
(v) Filling of a container with milk
(vi) Baking of a cake 
(a) (ii), (iv) and (vi) only
(b) (i), (iv) and (vi) only
(c) (i), (v) and (vi) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only 

Q33: Which of the following is not correct about synthetic fibres?
(a) Easy to maintain.
(b) Catches fire easily.
(c) Obtained from plants and animals.
(d) Polyester is an example of synthetic fibre.

Q34: Which of the following is a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen?
(a) Biomass
(b) Biogas
(c) Biofuel
(d) Biodiesel

Q35: Viruses that target bacteria are known as _________.
(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Phycophages
(c) Cyanophages
(d) Mycophages

Q36: Manu was heating oil to fry potato chips. All of a sudden the cooking oil caught fire. What should Manu do in such a situation?
(a) Pour water to extinguish fire.
(b) Switch off the flame of the burner.
(c) Put a lid on the frying pan to cut off contact between fuel and oxygen.
(d) Pour cold oil in the frying pan.

(a) Only a and b
(b) Only b and c
(c) Only c and d
(d) Only a and d

Q37: Select the false statement:
(a) Anthrax is a bacterial disease that affects humans and cattle
(b) Clostridium botulinum is a bacteria that causes food poisoning
(c) Citrus canker is a viral disease that affects citrus fruits
(d) Bhendi yellow vein mosaic disease is a viral disease that affects okra

Q38: Choose the option by matching the following plastic materials with its application -
Science Section(a) 2, 4, 2, 1 
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2 
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Q39: In an activity, Priyal took pre-weighed pieces of cloth of nylon, cotton, silk and wool of equal measurements and soaked them in a beaker filled with water. After a few minutes, the cloth pieces were taken out of the beaker and weighed again. Which of the following options places them in the correct order of their final weights?
(a) Wool > Silk > Nylon > Cotton 
(b) Cotton > Silk > Nylon > Wool 
(c) Silk > Wool > Cotton > Nylon 
(d) Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon

Q40: _______ is referred to as the actual stomach of ruminants.
(a) Omasum
(b) Abomasum
(c) Rumen
(d) Reticulum

Q41: X and Y are two animals that both experience internal fertilization. Animal X lays eggs, while animal Y gives birth to live young. Which of the following statements is correct regarding animals X and Y?
(a) The process of parturition occurs in animal X, while brooding happens in animal Y
(b) The young of both X and Y appear completely different from the adults
(c) The young of both X and Y go through metamorphosis to become adults
(d) Animal X could be a crocodile, while animal Y could be a dog

Q42: Which of the following does not represent the adaptive characteristics of a penguin?
(i) Camouflage 
(ii) Subcutaneous fat 
(iii) Prehensile tail 
(iv) Sticky pads 
(v) Large ears 
(vi) Streamlined body 

(a) (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (vi) only
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (iii), (iv) and (v) only 

Q43: Priyal performed an activity in which she dug two pits, named X and Y in her garden.
In pit X - She put a polythene bag packed with some vegetable wastes. In pit Y- She dumped the same kind of waste but without packing it in polythene bag. She then covered both the pits with soil.  What will she observe after a month? 
(a) Waste in pit X degraded faster than that in pit Y. 
(b) Waste in pit Y degraded faster than that in pit X. 
(c) Waste in both pits degraded almost equally. 
(d) Waste in both pits did not degrade at all.

Q44: Identify the bacteria X present in the rood nodules of Y type of plants, which fix gas Z from the atmosphere.
(a) X- Streptococcus, Y- Shrubs, Z- Oxygen 
(b) X- R hizobium, Y- Leguminous, Z- nitrogen 
(c) X- Lichen, Y- Grass, Z- Carbon dioxide 
(d) X- Streptococcus, Y- Leguminous, Z- Oxygen

Q45: Study the given correlation and identify X.
Heating milk : Pasteurisation :: Vaccination: _____X_______
(a) Sterlisation 
(b) Immunisation 
(c) Fertilisation 
(d) Preservation

Achievers Section

Q46: The diagram shows the reactions of these metals with dilute hydrochloric acid. What is metals P, Q, R?
Achievers Section(a) Copper, Magnesium, Zinc 
(b) Copper, Zinc, Magnesium 
(c) Magnesium, Zinc, Copper 
(d) Zinc, Magnesium, Copper

Q47: The following image shows the sources of acids. Identify the acids -
Achievers Section(a) Malic acid, Formic acid, Oxalic acid 
(b) Oxalic acid, Formic acid, Malic acid 
(c) Formic acid, Malic acid, Oxalic acid 
(d) Malic acid, Oxalic acid, Formic acid

Q48: Match the following items in column 1 with their meanings in column 2.
Achievers Section

(a) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - b
(b) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - b, 4 - c
(c) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
(d) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c

Q49: Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct statement regarding them: 
Species is a group or class of organisms having different characteristics that clearly distinguish it from other groups and can interbreed. A species that is confined to a particular geographical area is called an exotic species whereas the species introduced into a new geographical area from some other area is called an endemic species. Species of animals that travel long distances to escape unfavourable conditions are called migratory species. 
(a) Different should be replaced with common
(b) Exotic and endemic should be interchanged
(c) Migratory should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned
(d) All of these 

Q50: Which of the following statements are true?
1. The sulphurous acid turns blue litmus paper red.
2. In general, metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
3. Phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

The document Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 is a part of the Class 8 Course Science Olympiad Class 8.
All you need of Class 8 at this link: Class 8

FAQs on Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3

1. What topics are covered in the Class 8 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans.The Class 8 Science Olympiad exam typically covers a wide range of topics including physics, chemistry, biology, environmental science, and scientific reasoning. It emphasizes understanding concepts rather than rote memorization, so students should focus on areas like forces, energy, matter, ecosystems, and the scientific method.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans.To prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad, students should review their class notes, textbooks, and any supplementary study materials. Practicing previous years' question papers, engaging in group studies, and using online resources like quizzes and interactive simulations can also enhance understanding and retention.
3. Are there any specific books recommended for Class 8 Science Olympiad preparation?
Ans.Yes, some recommended books for Class 8 Science Olympiad preparation include "Science Olympiad Foundation's Science Olympiad Workbook," "NCERT Science Textbooks," and various Olympiad-specific guidebooks that provide practice questions and explanations. It's also beneficial to refer to reference books that cover the syllabus comprehensively.
4. What is the exam pattern for the Class 8 Science Olympiad?
Ans.The exam pattern for the Class 8 Science Olympiad usually consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess various scientific concepts and applications. The total number of questions, duration of the exam, and marking scheme can vary, so it is advisable to check the official guidelines for the specific year.
5. How is the result of the Science Olympiad evaluated and communicated?
Ans.The results of the Science Olympiad are typically evaluated based on the total marks scored in the exam, with correct answers earning points and incorrect ones possibly deducting points. Results are usually communicated through the official website of the organizing body, and students may receive certificates or awards based on their performance.
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