Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Ans: (b)
Total number of persons standing = total persons on left + total persons on right - Sumer's position = 123 + 45 - 1 = 167
Q2: In a certain language, KEYBOARD is coded as MGADRCTF. What would be the code for YACHT in the same language?
(a) ACEKV
(b) ACEJV
(c) BCENJ
(d) CFRON
Ans: (b)
If we look at the code for KEYBOARD, every letter is incremented by 2 letters, so K + 2 → M,
E + 2 → G and so on.
Coding YACHT in the same way, we get (ACEJV).
Y + 2 → A
A + 2 → C
C + 2 → E
H + 2 → J
T + 2 → V
Q3: How many pairs of letters can be found in the word "TWINKLING" that have the same number of letters between them as they do in the English alphabet?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) More than five
Ans: (d)
Q4: Which of the following two operators need to be swapped to correct the equation?
15 + 9 ÷ 3 – 6 × 2 = 39
(a) ÷ and ×
(b) × and +
(c) + and ÷
(d) ÷ and –
Ans: (a)
Q5: Jacky ranks 18th from the top. If the total pupils in the list is 50, then what is his rank from the bottom?
(a) 16th
(b) 33rd
(c) 32nd
(d) 5th
Ans: (b)
18th from top which means 17 people above him.
Let P number of people be after him.
Then Jacky's position from bottom (p + 1)th.
50 - (17 + 1) = p
p = 32
His position from the bottom (p + 1) = 33rd.
Q6: Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Key
2. Door
3. Lock
4. Room
5. Switch on
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
Ans: (c)
The correct order is 1, 3, 2, 4, 5.
Key Lock Door Room Switch on
1 3 2 4 5
Q7: Complete the series.
34, 67, 133, 265, ____
(a) 456
(b) 529
(c) 649
(d) 745
Ans: (b)
The pattern is
34 x 2 = 68 – 1 = 67
67 x 2 = 134 – 1 = 133
133 x 2 = 266 – 1 = 265
265 x 2 = 530 – 1 = 529
Q8: In a specific coding system, 'TEACHER' is represented as 'SFIDBFU'. How is 'STUDENT' represented in this coding system?
(a) TUVEFDU
(b) UOFEVUT
(c) TUVDDMS
(d) TNEDUTS
Ans: (b)
Q9: Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
(a) food
(b) spoon
(c) dish
(d) soup
Ans: (d)
We drink coffee in a cup and have soup in a bowl. Choices 2 and 3 are incorrect because they are other utensils.
Q10: Pointing to a girl, Reema said, "She is the only sister of the only son-in-law of my mother's husband." How is that girl related to Reema, if Reema has no sister?
(a) Sister
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Mother
(d) Niece
Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)
Cassiopeia is visible in the northern sky during winter somewhere around (November) season early in the night.
Q12: Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement I - Liquid conducts current due to the presence of ions.
Statement II - Direction of current is the same as the direction of movement of negative ions in the liquid.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statements I and II are correct
(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Ans: (a)
Q13: The surface area of the base of a brick X is 100 cm². The surface area of the base of a brick Y is 250 cm². Each brick weighs 100 N. Which of the following is correct, if P₁ and P₂ are the pressures exerted by bricks X and Y respectively?
(a) P₁ = P₂
(b) P₁ > P₂
(c) P₁ < P₂
(d) P₁ = P₂ = 0
Ans: (b)
Q14: Niara operates her toy car on various surfaces including dry marble floor, wet marble floor, newspaper, and a towel laid on the floor. The order of frictional force acting on the car from highest to lowest across these surfaces will be:
(a) Wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper, towel
(b) Newspaper, towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor
(c) Towel, newspaper, dry marble floor, wet marble floor
(d) Towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper
Ans: (c)
Q15: 1 light year is equal to:
(a) 9.46 × 1012 km
(b) 9.46 × 1015 km
(c) 9.2 × 105 km
(d) 9.46 × 108 km
Ans: (a)
The light-year is a unit of length used to express astronomical distances and is equivalent to about 9.46 trillion kilometres or 9.46 × 1012 km.
Q16: A parallel beam of light strikes a converging lens aligned with its principal axis. If the light source is moved further away from the lens along this axis, how does the intensity of light change?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Continuously increases
(c) Continuously decreases
(d) First increases then decreases
Ans: (a)
Q17: Choose the correct statement about Gibbous moon.
(a) It is referred to as solar eclipse.
(b) It is more than half lighted moon seen but less than full.
(c) It is no moon seen in the sky.
(d) It is full moon seen in the sky.
Ans: (b)
Gibbous moon refers to the condition of more than half-lighted moon but less than full moon.
Q18: Which of the following statements regarding Venus is/are accurate?
I. It is known as the morning star and evening star.
II. On this planet, the Sun rises in the East and sets in the West.
III. It is referred to as Earth's twin.
IV. It is the third closest planet to the Sun and the second closest to Earth.
V. It is the hottest planet in the solar system.
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, III and V only
(d) I, II, III and IV only
Ans: (c)
Thus, the correct answer is (c) I, III and V only.
Q19: Photosynthesis helps to maintain the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by:
(a) Giving off carbon dioxide and absorbing oxygen.
(b) Giving off oxygen and absorbing carbon dioxide.
(c) Releasing oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(d) Absorbing oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Ans: (b)
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is used to prepare sugars and oxygen is released into the atmosphere. This helps to maintain the percentage of oxygen at around 21% and that of carbon dioxide at around 0.03% in the atmosphere.
Q20: When we remove polyester or woolen clothes in dark, we can see a spark and hear a crackling sound. It is because of:
(a) Static electricity
(b) Current electricity
(c) Positive charge
(d) Negative charge
Ans: (a)
The discharge of static electricity produces a spark.
Q21: Global warming leads to a rise in the sea level causing floods in the coastal areas. Which of these is one of the main reasons of global warming?
(a) Combustion of fuels releases sulphur dioxide which increases the temperature.
(b) Combustion of fuels releases carbon monoxide which decreases the temperature.
(c) Combustion of fuels releases unburnt carbon particles which causes decrease in temperature.
(d) Combustion of fuels releases carbon dioxide which causes increase in temperature.
Ans: (d)
Global warming is the increase of earth’s average temperature due to significant increase in the level of CO2, from combustion of fuels.
Q22: Croton plants:
(a) Do not contain chlorophyll.
(b) Are dark red in colour. Hence, they depend on other plants for food.
(c) Have chlorophyll but it is hidden by dark red colour pigments.
(d) Are parasites.
Ans: (c)
Croton plants have chlorophyll but it is hidden by dark red colour pigments.
Q23: If a body covers a total distance of 15 km in the first hour, 30 km in the second hour, and 45 km by the end of the third hour, the body
(a) Is in uniform motion
(b) Is in non-uniform motion
(c) May be in uniform or non-uniform motion
(d) Is moving with zero acceleration
Ans: (a)
Q24: Which of the following statements about radiation is/are accurate? I. Radiation is the sole method of heat transfer that can happen without any medium. II. Radiation is unable to penetrate solids. III. Thermal energy can be conveyed through infra-red radiation.
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I and III only
Ans: (d)
Q25: Which of the following statements are false?
I. Wind currents are caused by the uneven heating of the Earth by the Sun.
II. It is safe to lie on the ground during a thunderstorm.
III. Higher wind speed leads to lower air pressure.
IV. The high pressure found at the center of a cyclone is known as the eye.
(a) I and III only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) II, III and IV only
Ans: (b)
Q26: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Coal tar is a black, thick liquid obtained as a by-product during the processing of coal
(c) Lubricating oil, a petroleum product, is used for lubrication
(d) Gasoline is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum
Ans: (a)
Q27: A few substances are listed below: "Graphite, lamp black, coke, coal, fullerene, sugar charcoal, gas carbon, wood charcoal, diamond." How many amorphous forms of carbon are present in the substances mentioned?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1
Ans: (a)
Q28: Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Multicellular organisms.
Ans: (b)
Blue green algae is a type of bacteria which is used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil.
Q29: What is the primary constituent in the mixture of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Butane
(d) Magnesium
Ans: (a)
Methane is a chemical compound with the chemical formula CH4 (one atom of carbon and four atoms of hydrogen). It is a Group 14 hydride and the simplest alkane, and is the main constituent of natural gas. The relative abundance of methane on Earth makes it an attractive fuel, though capturing and storing it poses challenges due to its gaseous state under normal conditions of temperature and pressure.
Q30: What are the advantages of using CNG and LPG as fuels?
(a) They are more efficient.
(b) They are less polluting than other fossil fuels.
(c) They can be easily transported; either in cylinders or through pipelines.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Following are the advantages of using CNG and LPG as fuels:
(a) They are more efficient.
(b) They can be easily transported; either in cylinders or through pipelines.
(c) They are less polluting than other fossil fuels.
Q31: Which of the following is responsible for Malaria disease?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Ascaris
(d) Enterobius vermicularis
Ans: (b)
Q32: Which of the following processes (i-vi) are considered chemical and irreversible changes?
(i) Setting of cement
(ii) Breaking of a flower vase
(iii) Drying of a wet floor
(iv) Respiration
(v) Filling of a container with milk
(vi) Baking of a cake
(a) (ii), (iv) and (vi) only
(b) (i), (iv) and (vi) only
(c) (i), (v) and (vi) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
Ans: (b)
Q33: Which of the following is not correct about synthetic fibres?
(a) Easy to maintain.
(b) Catches fire easily.
(c) Obtained from plants and animals.
(d) Polyester is an example of synthetic fibre.
Ans: (c)
Natural fibres such as wool and cotton are obtained from plants and animals are not synthetic fibres. Synthetic fibres are small units of chemicals joined together in the form of chain. The chain so formed is called a polymer. Polymer is a Greek work in which 'poly' means many and 'mer' means units. Thus, polymer means 'made of many units joined together'.
Q34: Which of the following is a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen?
(a) Biomass
(b) Biogas
(c) Biofuel
(d) Biodiesel
Ans: (b)
Biogas typically refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. Biogas can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste or food waste.
Q35: Viruses that target bacteria are known as _________.
(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Phycophages
(c) Cyanophages
(d) Mycophages
Ans: (a)
Q36: Manu was heating oil to fry potato chips. All of a sudden the cooking oil caught fire. What should Manu do in such a situation?
(a) Pour water to extinguish fire.
(b) Switch off the flame of the burner.
(c) Put a lid on the frying pan to cut off contact between fuel and oxygen.
(d) Pour cold oil in the frying pan.
(a) Only a and b
(b) Only b and c
(c) Only c and d
(d) Only a and d
Ans: (b)
Switch off the flame of the burner. Put a lid on the frying pan to cut off contact between fuel and oxygen and the flame will go off.
Q37: Select the false statement:
(a) Anthrax is a bacterial disease that affects humans and cattle
(b) Clostridium botulinum is a bacteria that causes food poisoning
(c) Citrus canker is a viral disease that affects citrus fruits
(d) Bhendi yellow vein mosaic disease is a viral disease that affects okra
Ans: (c)
Q38: Choose the option by matching the following plastic materials with its application –
(a) 2, 4, 2, 1
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans: (b)
(i) Melamine – (3) Floor tiles
(ii) PVC – (1) Toys and containers
(iii) Teflon – (4) Non-stick coating
(iv) Bakelite – (2) Electrical switches
Q39: In an activity, Priyal took pre-weighed pieces of cloth of nylon, cotton, silk and wool of equal measurements and soaked them in a beaker filled with water. After a few minutes, the cloth pieces were taken out of the beaker and weighed again. Which of the following options places them in the correct order of their final weights?
(a) Wool > Silk > Nylon > Cotton
(b) Cotton > Silk > Nylon > Wool
(c) Silk > Wool > Cotton > Nylon
(d) Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon
Ans: (d)
Higher the water absorption capacity, more will be the final weight. Thus, the correct order of their final weights will be :
Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon.
Q40: _______ is referred to as the actual stomach of ruminants.
(a) Omasum
(b) Abomasum
(c) Rumen
(d) Reticulum
Ans: (b)
Q41: X and Y are two animals that both experience internal fertilization. Animal X lays eggs, while animal Y gives birth to live young. Which of the following statements is correct regarding animals X and Y?
(a) The process of parturition occurs in animal X, while brooding happens in animal Y
(b) The young of both X and Y appear completely different from the adults
(c) The young of both X and Y go through metamorphosis to become adults
(d) Animal X could be a crocodile, while animal Y could be a dog
Ans: (d)
Q42: Which of the following does not represent the adaptive characteristics of a penguin?
(i) Camouflage
(ii) Subcutaneous fat
(iii) Prehensile tail
(iv) Sticky pads
(v) Large ears
(vi) Streamlined body
(a) (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (vi) only
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Ans: (d)
Q43: Priyal performed an activity in which she dug two pits, named X and Y in her garden.
In pit X - She put a polythene bag packed with some vegetable wastes. In pit Y- She dumped the same kind of waste but without packing it in polythene bag. She then covered both the pits with soil. What will she observe after a month?
(a) Waste in pit X degraded faster than that in pit Y.
(b) Waste in pit Y degraded faster than that in pit X.
(c) Waste in both pits degraded almost equally.
(d) Waste in both pits did not degrade at all.
Ans: (b)
Waste in pit Y degraded faster than that in pit X as it was without a polythene bag. Micro-organisms are not able to decompose polythene bags, plastic bottles, toys, etc.
Q44: Identify the bacteria X present in the rood nodules of Y type of plants, which fix gas Z from the atmosphere.
(a) X- Streptococcus, Y- Shrubs, Z- Oxygen
(b) X- R hizobium, Y- Leguminous, Z- nitrogen
(c) X- Lichen, Y- Grass, Z- Carbon dioxide
(d) X- Streptococcus, Y- Leguminous, Z- Oxygen
Ans: (b)
X i s Rhizobium, a bacterium present in the root nodules of leguminous plants (Y). It has the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (Z).
Q45: Study the given correlation and identify X.
Heating milk : Pasteurisation :: Vaccination: _____X_______
(a) Sterlisation
(b) Immunisation
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Preservation
Ans: (b)
Pasteurisation is the process of sterilisation of milk in which the milk is heated at high temperature, around 70°C for 15 to 30 seconds and then it is suddenly chilled at 5°C and stored. Vaccination is done for immunisation. Immunisation is a process by which a person becomes protected against a disease through vaccination.
Ans: (a)
Copper does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid as copper is less reactive than hydrogen and cannot displace it from the acidic solution. Zinc and magnesium metal, on the other hand, react with hydrochloric acid to make chloride salts of the respective metals, and hydrogen gas.
Q47: The following image shows the sources of acids. Identify the acids –
(a) Malic acid, Formic acid, Oxalic acid
(b) Oxalic acid, Formic acid, Malic acid
(c) Formic acid, Malic acid, Oxalic acid
(d) Malic acid, Oxalic acid, Formic acid
Ans: (a)
Apple contains malic acids, Ant possesses formic acid and oxalic acid is present in tomatoes.
Q48: Match the following items in column 1 with their meanings in column 2.
(a) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - b
(b) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - b, 4 - c
(c) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
(d) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c
Ans: (a)
Q49: Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct statement regarding them:
Species is a group or class of organisms having different characteristics that clearly distinguish it from other groups and can interbreed. A species that is confined to a particular geographical area is called an exotic species whereas the species introduced into a new geographical area from some other area is called an endemic species. Species of animals that travel long distances to escape unfavourable conditions are called migratory species.
(a) Different should be replaced with common
(b) Exotic and endemic should be interchanged
(c) Migratory should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)
Q50: Which of the following statements are true?
1. The sulphurous acid turns blue litmus paper red.
2. In general, metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
3. Phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
1. The sulphurous acid turns blue litmus paper red. This statement is true.
2. In general, metallic oxides are acidic in nature. This statement is false as they are basic in nature.
3. Generally, non-metals do not react with water, although they may be very reactive in air. Such non-metals are stored in water. For example, phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal. It catches fire if exposed to air. To prevent the contact of phosphorus with atmospheric oxygen, it is stored in water.
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