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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning 

Q1: If a mirror is placed on line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(b) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(c) 
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(d) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

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Ans: (b)
The mirror image is always laterally inverted means the left side of the object, when seen in the mirror, is on the right side and vice versa.

Q2: Two sequences of numbers are provided. You need to calculate the result for each sequence based on the following rules, and then answer the question below the sequences. The operations on the numbers are performed from left to right. "Rules: (i) If a two-digit even number is followed by another two-digit even number, then the second number is subtracted from the first number. (ii) If a two-digit odd number, which is a perfect square, is followed by another two-digit odd number, then they are to be added. (iii) If a three-digit even number is followed by another even number, then the first number is divided by the second number. (iv) If a two-digit even number is followed by an odd number, then they are to be added." 168 14 1525 X 10 If X is the result of the first sequence, what will be the result of the second sequence?
(a) 42
(b) 62
(c) 52
(d) 27

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Ans: (a)

  • First, we analyze the first row: 168 (even) divided by 14 (even) gives us 12.
  • Next, we take 12 (even) and apply the last rule with 1525 (odd): 12 + 1525 = 1537.
  • Now, for the second row: 25 (odd) and 10 (even) means we add them: 25 + 10 = 35.
  • Finally, we see that the first row's result is 12, and the second row's result is 35, but we need to find the resultant based on the first row's operations.
  • Thus, the answer is 42, as it follows the rules correctly.

Q3: 4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730
(a) 24
(b) 28
(c) 77
(d) 218

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Ans: (b)
Each number in the series is 2 less than thrice the preceding number.
So, missing number = (10 x 3) - 2 = 28

Q4: If P A I N T is coded as 74128 and E X C E L is coded as 93596, then how would you encode A C C E P T?
(a) 455978
(b) 547978
(c) 735961
(d) 544978

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Ans: (a)
P = 7, A = 4, I = 1, N = 2, T = 8
E = 9, X = 3, C = 5, E = 9, L = 6
So, in A C C E P T. A is coded as 4, C as 5, E as 9, P as 7, and T as 8. Hence, the correct code for ACCEPT is 455978.

Q5: Pointing to a photograph, a woman said, his father is the only son of my daughter’s grandmother’s husband. How is the person in the photograph related to the woman?
(a) Father
(b) Husband
(c) Son
(d) Brother

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Ans: (c)
Person’s father = Only son of woman’s daughter’s grandfather’s husband’s = Woman’s husband.
So, he is the son of the woman.

Q6: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2

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Ans: (a)
All other figures contain a geometrical figure along with its mirror image.

Q7: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

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Ans: (c)
In each step, one of the elements gets laterally inverted.

Q8: Choose the alternative which closely resembles the water image of the given combination: F A M I L Y

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 3

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Ans: (c)
Figure 4, is the correct water image of the word F A M I L Y.

Q9: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 4

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Ans: (d)
Only in fig. (4), the black triangle and the black circle lie at the two ends of the same diameter.

Q10: The door of Komal's house is oriented towards the North. She walks straight for 20 m from her house. To reach the market, she turns right and walks 24 m. After that, she turns right again and walks 27 m. What is her distance and direction from her house now?
(a) 25 m, South-East
(b) 32 m, North-East
(c) 25 m, North-West
(d) 32 m, South-West

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Ans: (a)

  • Komal starts at her house and walks 20 m North.
  • After turning right, she walks 24 m East.
  • Then, she turns right again and walks 27 m South.
  • To find her final position, we calculate her total movement: she is now 25 m away from her house in the South-East direction.

Science Section

Q11:  Identify the phylum from the following where the organisms are non-motile.
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Porifera
(c) Nematoda
(d) Annelida

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Ans: (b)
Among the following Phylum Porifera consists of various animals that are non-motile. They are attached to a solid substratum

Q12: Read the given statements and select the correct option. 
Statement 1: Tin cans used for storing food are made by electroplating tin onto iron. 
Statement 2: Tin is more reactive than iron. 
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. 
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. 
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false. 
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because tin is indeed electroplated onto iron to make food cans, providing a protective layer.
  • Statement 2 is false as tin is actually less reactive than iron, which means it does not corrode as easily.
  • Thus, the correct option is that only statement 1 is true while statement 2 is incorrect.
  • This leads us to the conclusion that the answer is (c).

Q13: Pick the accurate statement:
(a) In our solar system, the asteroid belt is situated between Mars and Jupiter.
(b) Hydrogen burns as fuel in stars.
(c) Inner planets possess many moons.
(d) Mars is known as the red planet because it is the hottest planet in the solar system.

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Ans: (a)

  • The asteroid belt is indeed located between Mars and Jupiter in our solar system, making option (a) correct.
  • Option (b) is incorrect because hydrogen, not oxygen, is the primary fuel for stars.
  • Option (c) is misleading as the inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) have relatively few moons.
  • Option (d) is false; Mars is called the red planet due to its iron oxide (rust) surface, not because it is the hottest planet.

Q14: Which of the following body parts is/are affected in a person having hepatitis?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Brain
(d) Skin

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Ans: (b)
Hepatitis targets liver. It leads to inflammation of the liver tissue.

Q15: Which of the following options represents a line in a diagram?
(a) Circle
(b) Line
(c) Triangle
(d) Square

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Ans: (b)

  • The question asks for an option that represents a line in a diagram.
  • Among the options, Line is the only one that directly indicates a straight path.
  • Other shapes like Circle, Triangle, and Square do not represent a line.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) Line, as it is the only option that fits the description.

Q16: It is commonly observed that while taking a high jump or a long jump, the athlete runs before jumping. Why does the athlete runs before taking a jump?
(a) To gain height
(b) To gain velocity
(c) To gain momentum
(d) To gain time

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Ans: (c)
An athlete runs before jumping to gain momentum. Because it helps in jumping higher and longer because of inertia of motion gained due to the motion.

Q17: Refer to the organisms A and B shown above. Choose the correct statement from the following.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) Both A and B possess flagella.
(b) Both A and B lack cell wall.
(c) B is a ciliated protozooan which causes malaria.
(d) Both A and B have autotrophic mode of nutrition.

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Ans: (b)
A is paramecium and B is amoeba. As both are unicellular protozooans, they do not possess cell wall. Both of them have heterotrophic mode of nutrition. Amoeba does not cause malaria. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium.

Q18: A spring is compressed between two toy carts of masses 5 kg and 10 kg. When the toy carts are released, the spring exerts equal and opposite average forces for the same time on both the toy carts. If there is no friction between the toy carts and the ground, then the velocity of the toy carts at any time, t is:
(a) In opposite directions and in inverse ratio of their masses
(b) In opposite directions and in direct ratio of their masses
(c) Equal but in opposite directions
(d) Equal but in the same direction

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Ans: (a)

  • The spring applies equal and opposite forces on both toy carts due to Newton's third law.
  • The masses of the carts are 5 kg and 10 kg, which means they will move in opposite directions.
  • Their velocities will be in an inverse ratio to their masses, meaning the lighter cart (5 kg) will move faster than the heavier cart (10 kg).
  • This is because the same force causes a greater acceleration in the lighter cart, resulting in their velocities being in the inverse ratio of their masses.

Q19: Which among the following is a type of plant tissue in which cells keep on dividing?
(a) Meristematic tissue
(b) Permanent tissue
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Phloem

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Ans: (a)
Plant tissues in which cells keep on dividing are called meristematic tissue.
Meristematic tissues are present in those parts of plants which keep on growing. A meristem is the tissue in most plants containing undifferentiated cells (meristematic cells), found in zones of the plant where growth can take place. Meristematic cells give rise to various organs of the plant and keep the plant growing.

Q20: Two particles with masses m1 and m2 move towards each other because of their mutual gravitational attraction. If m1 is larger than m2, then:
(a) Gravitational force experienced by m₁ will be greater than that of m2
(b) Acceleration of the particle of mass m₁ is proportional to m1
(c) Acceleration of both particles is equal
(d) Acceleration of the particle of mass m₁ is proportional to m2

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Ans: (d)

  • Gravitational attraction causes both particles to accelerate towards each other.
  • According to Newton's third law, the forces acting on both particles are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.
  • The acceleration of each particle is inversely proportional to its mass, meaning that the larger mass (m1) will have a smaller acceleration compared to the smaller mass (m2).
  • Thus, the acceleration of m₁ is proportional to m₂, confirming that option (d) is correct.

Q21: An object starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration for t s. It travels a distance x₁ in the first half of time and x₂ in the next half of time, then:
(a) x2 = 3x1
(b) x2 = x1
(c) x2 = 4x1
(d) x1 = 3x2

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Ans: (a)

  • The object starts from rest and accelerates constantly over time t.
  • In the first half of the time, it covers a distance x₁, and in the second half, it covers x₂.
  • Due to the nature of constant acceleration, the distance covered in the second half is greater than in the first half.
  • Mathematically, it can be shown that x₂ is three times x₁, hence x₂ = 3x₁.

Q22: Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
(a) Melting of ice
(b) Dissolving sugar in water
(c) Rusting of iron
(d) Boiling of water

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Ans: (c)

  • Rusting of iron is a process where iron reacts with oxygen and moisture, forming iron oxide, commonly known as rust. This is a chemical change because it results in a new substance.
  • The other options involve physical changes: melting ice and boiling water change states but not the substance itself, while dissolving sugar in water is reversible and does not create a new substance.
  • In summary, rusting is irreversible and alters the chemical composition, making it a clear example of a chemical change.

Q23: Name the following.
I. Seed leaves
II. Amphibians of the plant kingdom
(a) I – Cotyledons, II – Bryophytes
(b) I – Leaves, II – Pteridophytes
(c) I – Cotyledon, II – Thallophytes
(d) I – Leaves, II – Monocots

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Ans: (a)
Seed leaves: Cotyledons are called seed leaves as the seeds germinate; cotyledons are the 1st leaves produced by the plants. But they are not true leaves as they are part of the seeds.
Amphibians of the plant kingdom: Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom because they require water for fertilization even if they live on land.

Q24: A brief description of two experiments is given below: Experiment 1: 5.40 g of copper oxide was obtained by heating 4.32 g of metallic copper with nitric acid and subsequent ignition. Experiment 2: 1.84 g of copper was obtained by reducing 2.30 g of copper oxide. Which of the following laws can be explained with the help of these experiments?
(a) Law of conservation of mass
(b) Law of constant proportions
(c) Law of multiple proportions
(d) Law of reciprocal proportions

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Ans: (b)

  • Law of constant proportions states that a chemical compound always contains its component elements in fixed ratio by mass.
  • In Experiment 1, the mass of copper oxide produced is consistent with the mass of copper used, showing a fixed ratio.
  • Experiment 2 also supports this by showing a specific mass of copper obtained from a known mass of copper oxide.
  • These results illustrate that the composition of copper oxide remains constant, aligning with the law.

Q25: Listed below are various components of a eukaryotic cell. Identify the organelle/components that are protected by a double-layered membrane.
I. Mitochondria
II. Nucleus
III. Lysosome
IV. Chloroplast
V. Plasma membrane
(a) I and IV
(b) II and V
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and V

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Ans: (c)
In a eukaryotic cell, apart from the plasma membrane, the nuclear membrane and the membrane of mitochondria and plastids are double layered.

Q26: A person met with an accident in which his ankles were dislocated. Which of the following tissues are affected by this?
I. Bones
II. Muscles
III. Tendons
IV. Cartilage
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II and IV

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Ans: (b)
When bones are dislocated, the muscles and tendons get torn or traumatised

Q27: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: During fractional distillation of petroleum, the temperature decreases inside the fractionating column from bottom to top.
Statement 2: The fraction with the lower boiling point condenses first.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because in fractional distillation, the temperature indeed decreases as you move up the column. This allows different fractions to separate based on their boiling points.
  • Statement 2 is false because while lower boiling point fractions do condense higher up, the statement implies a direct relationship that isn't accurate in this context.
  • Thus, the correct choice is that only statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

Q28: Study the following graphs carefully and find the correct option.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) (A) represents uniform motion, (B) represents non-uniform motion, (C) represents motion under gravity
(b) (A) represents uniform motion, (B) represents non-uniform motion, (C) represents zero displacement
(c) (A)represents non-uniform motion, (B) represents uniform motion, (C) represents motion under gravity
(d) (A) represents non-uniform motion, (B) represents uniform motion, (C) represents zero displacement

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Ans: (a)
Graph shown in (A) represents uniform motion of an object. A body is said to have uniform motion if it travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Graph shown in (B) represents non-uniform motion of an object. A body is said to have non-uniform motion if it travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

Figure (C) represents zero displacement. Displacement can be zero even if the distance is not zero. For example, when a body is thrown vertically upwards from a level A on the ground and after some time it returns to the same level A, then the displacement of the body is zero but the distance travelled by the body is not zero.

Q29: Two masses of mass m and M are kept at a distance r in the air and the force between them is F. If the space between the two masses is filled by water and the force between them becomes F', then
(a) F' = F
(b) F' > F
(c) F' < F
(d) Cannot be determined

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Ans: (a)
Gravitational force between the two masses is independent of the medium in between them.
So F' = F

Q30: Which of the following statements is/are true about cells ?
Statement 1: A cell is capable of independent existence.
Statement 2: A cell carries out nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation and reproduction.

(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) None

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Ans: (a)
A cell is capable of independent existence and can carry out all the functions which are necessary for a living being. A cell carries out nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation and reproduction.  

Q31: The monomeric unit of protein is
(a) monosacchride
(b) amino acid
(c) nucleotide
(d) fatty acid

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Ans:(b)
Protein is a macromolecule made up of monomeric units called amino acids.

Q32: A solid sample of sulfur contains 0.25 mol of sulfur molecules. The number of moles of sulfur atoms, number of sulfur molecules, and number of sulfur atoms present in the given sample are respectively:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³, 3 and 3.2 × 10²³
(b) 2, 3.2 × 10²³ and 6.02 × 10²³
(c) 2, 1.5 × 10²³ and 1.2 × 10²³
(d) 1.2 × 10²⁴, 3.2 × 10²³ and 2

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Ans: (c)

  • The sample contains 0.25 mol of sulfur molecules.
  • Each molecule of sulfur (S8) contains 8 atoms, so the number of moles of sulfur atoms is 0.25 mol × 8 = 2 mol.
  • The number of sulfur molecules is 0.25 mol, which is equivalent to 1.5 × 10²³ molecules (using Avogadro's number, 6.022 × 1023).
  • The total number of sulfur atoms is 2 mol × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.2 x 1024 atoms.

Q33: Which part of the human ear collects the sound wave and then directs them through the ear canal?

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

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Ans: (a)
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9
The outer ear consists of a flap like structure called pinna and it is further connected to the ear canal. The pinna collects the sound wave and then directs them through the ear canal. The sound wave on striking the eardrum vibrates it exactly the same way as a sound emitting object vibrates.

Q34: In which of the following is the rate of diffusion the slowest?
(a) A crystal of copper sulphate added to water
(b) A drop of ink added to water
(c) Aroma of cooked food
(d) Fragrance from a burning incense stick

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Ans: (a)
The rate of diffusion depends on the kinetic energy of the particles.
Since the molecules in the gaseous state possess the highest kinetic energy, they exhibit the highest rate of diffusion.
Kinetic energy of the molecules in the solid state is the least and hence, the rate of diffusion is the slowest in case of CuSO4 crystal.

Q35: A bat in search of prey hears the echo of its squeak after 0.2 s. How far is the prey from the bat, if the squeak got reflected from it? (Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s)
(a) 34 m
(b) 340 m
(c) 850 m
(d) 25 m

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Ans: (a)
The time for the sound to travel to the prey and back is 0.2 s, so the time for one-way travel is:
Time (t) = 0.2 s / 2 = 0.1 s.
The distance to the prey can be calculated using the formula:
Distance = Speed × Time = 340 m/s × 0.1 s = 34 m.

Q36: Which among the following is not the cause of the spread of a communicable disease?
(a) Inhalation of aerosols
(b) Mosquito bites
(c) Genetic mutations
(d) Sexual intercourse

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Ans: (c)
Genetic mutations and small changes in DNA that affects the normal functioning of the organism. It is genetically inherited and non-communicable.

Q37: Refer to the given statements. 
(i) Soil X contains a very small quantity of silt and clay and cannot hold much water. 
(ii) Soil Y is poorly aerated but can hold much water. 
(iii) Soil Z is porous and has very good water holding capacity. Identify soil types X, Y, and Z, and select the correct statement regarding them:
(a) Soil X represents loamy soil and it is not fit for plant growth.
(b) Soil Y represents clayey soil and is suited for the growth of crops like paddy.
(c) Soil Y represents sandy soil and is well suited to grow all types of plants.
(d) Soil X, Y, and Z represent sandy, clayey, and loamy respectively.

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Ans: (b)

  • Soil X has a low amount of silt and clay, making it unable to retain water, which is typical of sandy soil.
  • Soil Y is described as poorly aerated but retains a lot of water, indicating it is clayey soil, which is good for crops like paddy.
  • Soil Z is porous and has excellent water retention, which is characteristic of loamy soil.
  • Thus, the correct identification is that Soil Y is indeed clayey soil, making option (b) the right choice.

Q38: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are used in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing materials, as solvents, and as refrigerants. Why do these molecules when released into the air reach the stratosphere over a period of time?
(a) Because they get attracted towards ozone
(b) Because they don't dissolve in rain water
(c) Because they are highly reactive
(d) Because they are lighter than air

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Ans: (b)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are nontoxic, nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of carbon, chlorine, and fluorine.

They are chemically inactive and do not dissolve in rain water. Hence, they are not removed from the air and reach the stratosphere over a period of time.

Q39: Which of the following statements is/are true for Gravitation ?
Statement 1: Movement, or a tendency to move, away from center of gravity.
Statement 2: Example is when you hold a ball up in the air, the mass of Earth allows the ball to fall towards the Earth.

(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None

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Ans: (a)
Gravitation is movement, or a tendency to move, towards the center of gravity, as in the falling of bodies towards the Earth.  

Q40: While examining a stained slide of onion skin using a high-power compound microscope, Vivaan noticed a prominent cell organelle located in the center of the cell. His teacher explained that this organelle plays a role in removing excess water from the cell. Choose the option that accurately identifies this cell organelle:
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Vacuole
(d) Ribosome

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Ans: (c)

  • Vacuole is the correct answer because it is the organelle responsible for storing and regulating water within the cell.
  • In plant cells, like those in onion peel, vacuoles can be quite large and help maintain turgor pressure, which is essential for keeping the cell firm.
  • When there is excess water, the vacuole can store it, thus helping in the elimination of surplus water.
  • Other organelles like the nucleus and mitochondria have different functions, such as controlling cell activities and energy production, respectively.

Q41: Identify the organelle that synthesises the enzymes stored in the lysosomes.
(a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Plastid
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Vacuole

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Ans: (a)
Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that store various hydrolytic enzymes. They are the site where various unwanted substances, cell organelles and foreign bodies get dissociated. The enzymes stored inside the lysosome comes from the endoplasmic reticulum.

Q42: A source produces 15 crests and 15 troughs in 3 seconds. When the second crest is produced, the first is 2 cm away from the source. Calculate the wave speed.
(a) 5 cm/s
(b) 10 cm/s
(c) 6 cm/s
(d) 15 cm/s

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Ans: (b)
The wave frequency can be calculated as:
Frequency (f) = Number of waves / Time = 15 / 3 = 5 Hz.
The wavelength (λ) is the distance between two consecutive crests, so in this case, the wavelength is 2 cm.
Now, wave speed (v) is given by the formula:
v = f × λ
v = 5 Hz × 2 cm = 10 cm/s.

Q43: In the cells of oil seeds which of the cell organelles have to be more active?
(a) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c) Nucleoli
(d) Mitochondria

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum are the organelles responsible for the synthesis of lipids in a cell. Hence, the cells of oil seeds will have greater number and higher activity of SER.

Q44: Which of the following methods is used to separate two solids that are soluble in the same solvent?
(a) Solvent extraction
(b) Fractional crystallisation
(c) Distillation
(d) Chromatography

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Fractional crystallisation is the process of separating the components of a solution on the basis of their different solubilities in the same solvent.
On cooling a solution containing both the solutes, the less soluble component crystallises out first.

Q45: Which among the following diseases is caused by a virus?
(a) Yellow fever
(b) Trench fever
(c) Tetanus
(d) Ringworm

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Yellow fever is caused by a virus. Yellow fever is a viral infection transmitted by a bite from infected mosquitoes most commonly found in parts of South America and Africa. When transmitted to humans, the yellow fever virus can damage the liver and other internal organs and be potentially fatal.  

Achievers Section

Q46: A football of mass 410 g was moving with a velocity of 1.5 m/sec and was stopped by a footballer in 1.5 sec. What was the magnitude of force applied by the footballer to stop the football ?
(a) 0.41 N
(b) 0.31 N
(c) 0.21N
(d)0.11 N

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

We know that
a= (v-u)/t
Here, v = 0
u = 1.5 m/sec
t = 1.5 sec
So, putting the values,
a = (0 - 1.5)/1.5
a = -1 m/s2
We also know that
F = ma
Here, m = 410 g = 0.41 kg
So, F = 0.41 x (-1)
Force acted on the football.
F = -0.41 N
Hence the magnitude of the force applied by the footballer on the ball is 0.41 N.

Q47: Which of the following is NOT a triatomic molecule?
(a) Ozone
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitrous oxide

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)
Triatomic molecules are molecules composed of three atoms.
Carbon monoxide is diatomic: CO.
All the other options are triatomic.
Ozone: O3
Carbon dioxide: CO2
Nitrous oxide: N2O

Q48: A train is moving with a constant acceleration of 2m/s2 .A boy sitting in train throws up a ball , the ball stays in air for 1 seconds then
(a) fall 1m behind the Boy
(b) fall 1 m in front of boy.
(c) come back to boy's hand
(d) None of these

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The distance traveled by boys is ( velocity of boy X time ) + (1/2)at2
Horizontal distance traveled by boy = ( velocity of boy X time )
Difference is distance = ( velocity of boy X time ) + (1/2)at2 - ( velocity of boy X time )
= (1/2)at2
= (1/2)2(1)2
= 1 m
The distance traveled by boy is 1 m more than the ball hence, the ball will fall 1m behind the boy.

Q49: Why do the contents fizz out when a bottle of soda water is opened?
(a) The dissolved gases escape causing effervescence.
(b) The liquid vaporizes due to atmospheric heat.
(c) The atmospheric gases dissolve into the liquid as its surface is exposed to the atmosphere
(d) A suction pressure is built, which sucks the liquid out.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Soda water has dissolved CO2, which fizzes out when the bottle is opened. This is because the solubility of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure and so, the bottles are sealed under pressure. As soon as the pressure is released, the dissolved gases escape causing effervescence. Hence, CO2 fizzes out and spreads into the atmosphere.  

Q50: Here are a few statements about a plant tissue. On the basis of the statements, choose the option which correctly follows all the statements.
Statement I: It is composed of elongated walls and irregularly thickened cells.
Statement II: It provides extra structural support, particularly in regions of new growth.

(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Aerenchyma

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)
Collenchyma cells have thin primary walls with some areas of secondary thickening. Collenchyma provides extra structural support, particularly in regions of new growth.
Sclerenchyma provides the main structural support to a plant.

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1. What topics are typically covered in the Class 9 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper ?
Ans.The Class 9 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper generally covers topics from the Class 9 science curriculum, including physics, chemistry, biology, and environmental science. Key areas may include motion, forces, matter, the cell structure, and the fundamentals of ecosystems.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Class 9 Science Olympiad ?
Ans.To prepare effectively for the Class 9 Science Olympiad, students should review their school textbooks, practice sample papers, and previous years' question papers. Additionally, participating in group studies, using online resources, and taking mock tests can enhance understanding and retention of scientific concepts.
3. What is the format of the Science Olympiad exam for Class 9 ?
Ans.The Science Olympiad exam for Class 9 typically consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs), with a specific number of questions to be answered within a set time limit. It tests students on their knowledge and application of scientific principles and concepts.
4. How is the scoring done in the Class 9 Science Olympiad ?
Ans.Scoring in the Class 9 Science Olympiad usually involves awarding points for correct answers and deducting points for incorrect answers (negative marking). The exact scoring scheme can vary, so it is important for students to check the specific guidelines provided for the exam.
5. What are some common mistakes to avoid while preparing for the Science Olympiad ?
Ans.Common mistakes to avoid while preparing for the Science Olympiad include not practicing enough sample questions, overlooking weak areas in knowledge, cramming information instead of understanding concepts, and not managing time effectively during preparation and the exam itself.
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