CBSE Class 10  >  Class 10 Notes  >  Olympiad Preparation  >  Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation. 

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If the first and last digits of each of the following numbers are swapped and then the numbers are sorted in ascending order, what will be the unit digit of the smallest number created?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q2: P, Q, R, S, and T are arranged in a row facing North. P is positioned directly next to Q, while R is adjacent to S. S is not next to T, who occupies the leftmost position in the row. R is located in the second spot from the right. P is situated to the right of both Q and T. Who is positioned between Q and R?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Can't say

Q3: Examine the information below carefully and respond to the question that follows: 'A @ B' signifies 'A is the father of B'. 'A + B' indicates 'A is the son of B'. 'A $ B' denotes 'A is the daughter of B'. 'A % B' means 'A is the mother of B'. 'A & B' implies 'A is the husband of B'. Which of the following statements is accurate if the expression 'P + Q % R $ S + T & W' is certainly true?
(a) Q is the only daughter of T.
(b) P is the grandson of S.
(c) R is the granddaughter of W.
(d) T is the father-in-law of P.

Q4: What number will come next in the given series?
102, 99, 93, 84, 72, ?
(a) 55
(b) 56
(c) 57
(d) 58

Q5: How many pairs of letters can be found in the word RESOURCES that have the same number of letters between them as they do in the English alphabet?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 3

Q6: Directions: Find the missing term in the following series.
10, 37, 101, 226, ?
(a) 432
(b) 442
(c) 369
(d) 378

Q7: If SCRIBBLE is coded as 09-11-17-23-06-06-18-24, then how will LIBBERS be coded in that language?
(a) 18-23-06-06-24-17-09
(b) 18-24-06-06-23-17-09
(c) 18-17-06-06-24-23-09
(d) 19-23-06-06-24-17-18

Q8: In a certain code language, EMPTY is coded as FOSXD. How will STRING be coded in that language?
(a) TVUSMS
(b) TUVMSM
(c) TVUMSM
(d) TUVMMS

Q9: Looking at a girl, Meera said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's wife's only child." How is the girl related to Meera?
(a) Niece
(b) Mother
(c) Sister
(d) Cousin

Q10: A person is walking towards west. After walking for 30 m, he turns to his right and walks 20 m more. After that, he turns towards west and walks 40 m. Finally he turns to his left and again walks 20 m. How far is he now from the starting point?
(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 70 m

Science Section

Q11: A body weighs 500 gf in air and 300 gf when fully submerged in water. What are the apparent loss in weight, the upthrust on the body, and the volume of the body, respectively? 
(a) 200 gf, 200 gf, 200 cm³
(b) 200 gf, 200 gf, 100 cm³
(c) 100 gf, 100 gf, 100 cm³
(d) 200 gf, 400 gf, 200 cm³ 

Q12: A conducting wire shown in the figure carries current I. Segments AB and CD are of the same length. The direction of the magnetic field at point P is
Science Section(a) into the plane of the paper
(b) out of the plane of the paper
(c) towards right
(d) towards left

Q13: Consider the following statements and select the option which correctly identifies true (T) and false (F) ones. 
(i) Magnetic field lines do not intersect because they always travel parallel to each other in North to South direction. 
(ii) When a current flows through a straight copper conductor, it gets permanently magnetized. 
(iii) The strength of the magnetic field at the center of a circular coil is inversely proportional to the radius of the coil. 
(a) T T F 
(b) T F T 
(c) F F T 
(d) F T F 

Q14: Which of the following statements about the given reaction is/are not correct?
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq)  FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
I. CuSO4 is getting reduced.
II. CuSO4 is acting as a reducing agent.
III. Fe is acting as a reducing agent.
IV. Fe is getting oxidised.
(a) III only
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I and III

Q15: Safe current of a fuse wire depends upon
(a) its length
(b) its radius
(c) its colour
(d) its position in the circuit

Q16: Which of the following is a monoacidic base and a weak alkali?
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) NaOH
(c) NH4OH
(d) Mg(OH)2

Q17: A wire of the resistance 8Ω is cut in the ratio 3 : 1 and then two wires are connected across the 12 V battery. Then, the power developed across the larger length of the wire is
(a) 72 W
(b) 120 W
(c) 24 W
(d) 288 W

Q18: Which of the following statements regarding metals and non-metals is/are correct?
I. Metals have 1 to 3 electrons in their valence shell and non-metals have 4-8 electrons in their valence shell.
II. Metallic oxides form acids on reaction with water and non-metallic oxides form bases.
III. Among the metals, the less electropositive metals displace the more electropositive metals from their salt solutions.
IV. Non-metals lose electrons from their valence shell to attain a stable configuration and form cations.
V. Metals like Au and Pt also form oxides readily.
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, III and V

Q19: Which of the following molecules has the strongest carbon-to-carbon bond?
(a) C2H4
(b) C2H3
(c) C2H2
(d) C2H6

Q20: Which of the following is a non-commercial conventional source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Firewood
(c) Electricity

Q21: Which of the following is NOT observed when calcium metal is dropped in water at room temperature?
(a) It reacts with water to liberate tiny bubbles of hydrogen gas.
(b) It sinks in water.
(c) It dissolves in water completely and instantaneously on account of the formation of calcium oxide.
(d) Water becomes warm.

Q22: A girl standing in front of a large wall claps at a regular frequency of 12 Hz. She finds that the echoes coincide with her clapping. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
(i) The time taken between successive clappings is 0.2 s. 
(ii) If she hears one more echo after she stops clapping, then the distance between the girl and the wall is 13.75 m. 
(iii) The distance between the girl and the wall, after she stops clapping, if she hears four more echoes, is 55 m.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q23: pH values of several solutions are provided: 
Solution I: 2.2 - 2.4, 
Solution II: 6.8, 
Solution III: 7.4, 
Solution IV: 10.
What could Solutions I, II, III, and IV be respectively?
(a) Vinegar, hydrochloric acid, window cleaner, and milk
(b) Curd, sodium hydroxide, milk of magnesia, and coffee
(c) Lemon juice, milk, human blood, and milk of magnesia
(d) None of these

Q24: Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I - Column II
(i) Components of ink - (P) Separating funnel
(ii) Petrol and water - (Q) Sublimation
(iii) Salt and ammonium chloride - (R) Fractional distillation
(iv) Separation of components of air - (S) Chromatography
(a) (i) - (S), (ii) - (P), (iii) - (Q), (iv) - (R)
(b) (i) - (P), (ii) - (R), (iii) - (S), (iv) - (Q)
(c) (i) - (Q), (ii) - (P), (iii) - (R), (iv) - (S)
(d) (i) - (R), (ii) - (Q), (iii) - (P), (iv) - (S)

Q25: Observe the following reaction carefully. X + H⁺ → Y + H₂O + Sodium salt of acid (From acid) Now, select the correct statement.
(a) X is a mild corrosive acidic salt and can be used to neutralize a base.
(b) On heating X during cooking, H₂ gas is produced.
(c) X is used as an ingredient in antacids and is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
(d) Y is carbon dioxide gas that makes bread and cakes soft and spongy.

Q26: Which of the following chemical equations represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(b) 2KI + PbSO4 → PbI2 + K2SO4
(c) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
(d) None of these

Q27: Which of the following pairs of elements indicates a mole ratio of 1:3?
(a) 12 g of carbon and 11 g of sodium
(b) 18 g of sulfur and 46 g of calcium
(c) 24 g of carbon and 12 g of magnesium
(d) 10 g of calcium and 18 g of magnesium 

Q28: Which of the following is the incorrect IUPAC name for the specified compound?
(a) CH₃CH₂ - CO - CH₃ : Butanone
(b) CH₃CH₂ - CHO : Propanal
(c) CH₃CH₂ - COOCH₃ : Ethanoic acid
(d) CH₃- CH₂ - CH₂ - CH₂ - OH : Butanol

Q29: Select the incorrect matches.
(i) Burning of natural gas - Exothermic reaction
(ii) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost - Endothermic reaction
(iii) Reaction of zinc with copper sulfate - Decomposition reaction
(iv) Reaction of barium chloride with sodium sulfate - Single displacement reaction 
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Q30: An organic compound X has the molecular formula, C₂H₄O₂. X reacts with C₂H₅OH to produce Y. The reaction of X with sodium carbonate results in the formation of its corresponding salt, water, and a gas Z that produces a brisk effervescence. X, Y, and Z are respectively
(a) HCOOCH₃, CH₃COOCH₂CH₃, and H₂
(b) CH₃CH₂COOH, CH₃COOCH₃, and H₂
(c) CH₃COOH, CH₃COOCH₂CH₃, and CO₂
(d) CH₃COOH, CH₃COOCH₃, and O₂

Q31: Which of the following statements are incorrect? 
I. Silver and copper are considered to be two of the best conductors of heat. 
II. Alkali metals like lithium and sodium have high densities and high melting points. 
III. Metals form acidic oxides while non-metals form basic oxides. 
IV. Metals such as aluminum, iron, and zinc react with cold water to produce corresponding metal hydroxide and evolve hydrogen gas.
(a) I, II and III only
(b) II, III, and IV only
(c) I, III, and IV only
(d) II and IV only

Q32: The correct order of atomic radii for the given elements is:
(a) C > N > O
(b) C < N < O
(c) C > O > N
(d) C < O > N

Q33: The ratio of atomic numbers of two elements C and D is 1:2. The number of electrons present in the valence shell (L-shell) of C is four less than the number of valence electrons present in the L-shell of D. Which of the following statements are correct regarding C and D? 
I. The atomic numbers of C and D are 12 and 24 respectively. 
II. The number of valence electrons in C and D are 3 and 7 respectively. 
III. The difference between the number of neutrons of C and D is 3. 
IV. The valency of both C and D is 2. 

(a) I and IV only
(b) III and IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only 

Q34: The electronic configuration of elements P, Q, R, and S are (2, 8, 2), (2, 8, 8, 2), (2, 6), and (2, 8, 6) respectively. Which of them can make an ion with two positive charges?
(a) P and R
(b) Q and S
(c) P and Q
(d) Q and R

Q35: The energy absorbed by chlorophyll is responsible for carrying out which of the following functions?
(a) Formation of ATP
(b) Synthesis of NADPH
(c) Photolysis of water
(d) All of these 

Q36: A tall pea plant with green seeds (TTyy) is crossed with a dwarf pea plant with yellow seeds (ttYY). All the progenies produced in the first generation will be
(a) Tall and yellow seeded
(b) Dwarf and yellow seeded
(c) Tall and green seeded
(d) Dwarf and green seeded

Q37: Which of these options represents denatured spirit?
(a) Pure ethanol
(b) Ethanol and methanol (5%)
(c) Ethanol and methanol (50%)
(d) Pure methanol

Q38: Freshly whitewashed walls develop a bright sheen on drying, which is due to the deposition of a substance that is similar in composition to
(a) austic potash
(b) limestone
(c) washing soda
(d) soap

Q39: The following figure represents a chemical reaction, which can be categorised as a:
a. Decomposition reaction
b. Combination reaction
c. Displacement reaction
d. Oxidation reaction
(a) Only a
(b) Both b and c
(c) Both b and d
(d) Only d

Q40: Which of the following is an organic acid?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Suphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Lactic acid

Q41: Read the following statement and choose the option that accurately completes the blanks. The development of cartilage is 
____(i)___ and it can be found in __(ii)__.
(a) Unidirectional, Middle part of the long bone
(b) Bidirectional, Blood vessels
(c) Unidirectional, Pinna of ears
(d) Bidirectional, Endoskeleton of vertebrates

Q42: The primary aim of water harvesting is not just to retain rainwater on the earth's surface but also to allow rainwater to seep underground to replenish groundwater. Which of the following statements are accurate regarding water stored underground? 
(i) It helps recharge wells. 
(ii) It does not encourage mosquito breeding. 
(iii) It is used for the advantage of the local community.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii) only

Q43: Select the incorrect pairing.
(a) Rhizobium - Converts atmospheric nitrogen gas into utilizable nitrogen compounds
(b) Azotobacter - Converts ammonia into nitrites
(c) Nitrobacter - Converts nitrites into nitrates
(d) Putrefying bacteria - Convert nitrogen-containing proteins of dead plants and animals into ammonia

Q44: Given below is a list of a few diseases. 
(i) Typhoid 
(ii) Dysentery 
(iii) Cholera 
(iv) Tuberculosis Which of these are transmitted by houseflies?
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q45: What is the chemical name for Vitamin C?
(a) Folic Acid
(b) Biotin
(c) Ascorbic Acid
(d) Tocopherols

Achievers Section

Q46: What are the end products formed when sulphuric acid reacts with sodium carbonate?
(a) Carbon dioxide gas, Water, Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Carbon dioxide, Sodium sulphate
(c) Sodium sulphate, Water
(d) Sodium sulphate, Carbon dioxide gas, Water

Q47: Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fills the blanks. 
(i) ___ stimulates the transformation of the primary follicle of the ovary into the Graafian follicle. 
(ii) Luteinizing hormone stimulates corpus luteum to secrete ___ hormone. 
(iii) Ovulation is controlled by the increased level of ___ in blood.
(a) Follicle-stimulating, Progesterone, Luteinizing hormone
(b) Luteinizing, Progesterone, Estrogen
(c) Follicle-stimulating, Estrogen, Progesterone
(d) Luteinizing, Estrogen, Follicle-stimulating hormone

Q48: Which of the following is not a limitation of Mendeleev's periodic table?
(a) Position of the noble gases
(b) Position of isotopes
(c) Position of hydrogen
(d) Anomalous pairs

Q49: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of the periodic table?
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.

Q50: Read the given passage carefully and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. In the electrolytic refining process, the impure metal is made the (i)_____ and a thin strip of pure metal is made the (ii)_____. A solution of metal salt is used as an electrolyte. On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the (iii)_____ dissolves into the electrolyte. An equivalent amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the (iv)_____. The insoluble impurities that settle down at the bottom of the anode are known as (v)_____. 
(a) Anode, Cathode, Anode, Cathode, Anode mud
(b) Cathode, Anode, Cathode, Anode, Cathode mud
(c) Anode, Cathode, Cathode, Anode, Gangue particles
(d) Cathode, Anode, Anode, Cathode, Anode mud 

The document Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 is a part of the Class 10 Course Olympiad Preparation for Class 10.
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FAQs on Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1

1. What topics are covered in the Class 10 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1?
Ans.The Class 10 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 typically covers a range of topics aligned with the Class 10 science curriculum, including but not limited to physics, chemistry, biology, environmental science, and scientific reasoning. Specific chapters may include topics on human physiology, chemical reactions, light and optics, and more.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad exam?
Ans.Effective preparation for the Science Olympiad exam involves a combination of understanding the syllabus, practicing previous years' question papers, and taking mock tests. It is also beneficial to read NCERT textbooks thoroughly, revise key concepts regularly, and engage in group study sessions for better comprehension.
3. What is the format of the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper?
Ans.The format of the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper generally includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs), fill-in-the-blanks, and short answer questions. The questions are designed to test students' understanding of concepts, application of knowledge, and analytical skills.
4. How important is the Logical Reasoning Section in the Science Olympiad?
Ans.The Logical Reasoning Section in the Science Olympiad is quite important as it assesses students' critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. This section often includes puzzles, pattern recognition, and analytical reasoning questions, which are essential for developing a scientific mindset.
5. Where can I find additional resources for Science Olympiad preparation?
Ans.Additional resources for Science Olympiad preparation can be found online through educational websites, YouTube channels dedicated to science education, and various study apps. Additionally, students can refer to guidebooks specifically designed for Olympiad preparation and participate in online forums for peer support.
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