Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10 PDF Download
Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Logical Reasoning Section
Q1: If a mirror is placed on line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
View AnswerAns: (c)
The mirror image is always laterally inverted means the left side of the object, when seen in the mirror, is on the right side and vice versa.
is the correct mirror image of question figure.
Q2: Find the mirror of figure (X) letter, if the mirror is placed along dotted line MN.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
View AnswerAns: (b)
is the correct mirror image of the figure (X).
Q3: Study the provided information carefully and answer the following question.
‘A + B’ indicates ‘A is the father of B’.
‘A × B’ signifies ‘A is the sister of B’.
‘A – B’ denotes ‘A is the mother of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
Which of the following represents H as the sister-in-law of K?
(a) K + M × L ÷ H
(b) K – M + L × H
(c) K × M + L ÷ H
(d) K × M – L + H
View AnswerAns: (c)
- To determine how H is the sister-in-law of K, we need to analyze the relationships represented by the symbols.
- In option (c), K × M means K is the brother of M, and L ÷ H means L is the father of H, making H the sister-in-law of K.
- This is because K is a brother to M, and if M is married to L, then H becomes K's sister-in-law.
- Thus, option (c) correctly establishes the relationship needed to show H as K's sister-in-law.
Q4: Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four options:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
View AnswerAns: (b) 
Q5: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
View AnswerAns: (d)
Only in fig. (4), the black triangle and the black circle lie at the two ends of the same diameter.
Q6: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 1
View AnswerAns: (c)
Only in fig. (3), the marked angles are unequal.
Q7: Select the one that does not belong with the others.
(a) ROML
(b) KHFE
(c) MJHG
(d) WSQP
View AnswerAns: (d)
- The question asks to identify the odd one out among the given options.
- Each of the first three options (a, b, c) follows a pattern where the letters are in reverse alphabetical order.
- However, option (d) does not follow this pattern, making it the odd one out.
- Thus, the correct answer is (d) WSQP.
Q8: In a word and number arrangement machine, when provided with a line of words and numbers, it rearranges them according to specific rules in each step. The following is an example of the input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input: 42 wind 38 mist 21 fire 81 water 26 sun
Step I: 21 fire 42 wind 38 mist 81 water 26 sun
Step II: 21 fire 26 mist 42 wind 38 81 water sun
Step III: 21 fire 26 mist 38 sun 42 wind 81 water
Step IV: 21 fire 26 mist 38 sun 42 water wind 81
Step V: 21 fire 26 mist 38 sun 42 water 81 wind.
Step V is the final step of the input.
Based on the rules applied in the previous steps, determine the input if Step III is provided.
Step III: 16 dragon 34 good 52 hide 81 64 seek rain
(a) 34 good 52 dragon 16 hide 81 rain 64 seek
(b) 34 good 52 rain 16 seek 81 dragon 64 hide
(c) 34 good 81 rain 64 seek 16 hide 52 dragon
(d) Can’t be determined
View AnswerAns: (d)
- The arrangement of words and numbers follows a specific rule that is not fully disclosed in the question.
- Given Step III, we cannot definitively trace back to the original input without additional information about the rules used in the rearrangement.
- Since the input cannot be determined from the provided Step III, the correct answer is (d) Can’t be determined.
- This indicates that the information given is insufficient to reconstruct the original input line.
Q9: Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
View AnswerAns: (b)
In each column, the second figure (middle figure) is obtained by removing the upper part of the first figure (uppermost figure) and the third figure (lowermost figure) is obtained by vertically inverting the upper part of the first figure.
Q10: Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
View AnswerAns: (a)
The third figure in each row comprises of the parts common to the first two figures.
Science Section
Q11: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Increasing order of metallic character is: Mg < Be < Si < P < Na
Statement 2: Metallic character decreases along a period and increases down a group.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
View AnswerAns: (b)
Metallic character increases down a group and decreases along a period as we move from left to right. Hence, the order of increasing metallic character is P < Si < Be < Mg < Na.
Q12: Elements W, X, Y and Z have the following electronic configuration:
W: 2, 8, 6
X: 2, 5
Y: 2, 8, 7
Z: 2, 8, 8
Which of them is most reactive?
(a) W
(b) X
(c)Y
(d) Z
View AnswerAns: (c)
Y is the most reactive element as it is the most electronegative.
Q13: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: The elements of the same group have different chemical properties.
Statement 2: The elements of the same group have the same number of valence electrons.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
View AnswerAns: (b)
The elements of the same group have similar chemical properties as they have same number of valence electrons.
Q14: The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two valence electrons, are in the periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table:
I. Which one of them has the largest atomic radius?
II. Which one of them has the highest ionisation energy?
(a) I – Ca, II – Be
(b) I – Be, II – Ca
(c) I – Ca, II – Ca
(d) I – Be, II – Be
View AnswerAns: (a)
Atomic size increases down the group. Ionisation energy decreases down the group
Q15: Which among the following are examples of macronutrients?
I. Carbohydrate
II. Fat
III. Vitamins
IV. Protein
V. Minerals
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II, III and V
(c) IV, V and II
(d) I, II and V
View AnswerAns: (a)
All living animals require fat, carbohydrates and protein in large quantities to ensure proper growth, survival and reproduction.
Q16: Which among the following follows parasitic nutrition?
I. Humans
II. Tick
III. Tiger
IV. Cuscuta
V. Algae
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) III and V
(d) I and V
View AnswerAns: (b)
Tick and Cuscuta are two organisms that feed on other animals for their nutrient requirements.
Q17: There are four scenarios described below:
I. A rectangular loop with current.
II. A finite-length solenoid with current.
III. An infinitely long wire with current.
IV. A circular loop with current.
In which of these scenarios does the magnetic field resemble that of a bar magnet?
(a) I and II only
(b) III and IV only
(c) II only
(d) III only
View AnswerAns: (c)
- The magnetic field produced by a finite-length solenoid (II) is similar to that of a bar magnet. This is because it has a distinct north and south pole, just like a bar magnet.
- In contrast, the rectangular loop (I) and the circular loop (IV) create magnetic fields that do not have the same characteristics as a bar magnet.
- The infinitely long wire (III) produces a magnetic field that is circular around the wire and does not resemble a bar magnet.
- Thus, the only situation that matches the bar magnet's magnetic field is the finite-length solenoid (II).
Q18: Junction between two neurons is called
(a) cell junction
(b) neuro muscular junction
(c) neural joint
(d) synapse
View AnswerAns: (d)
Synapse is the junction between two neurons. In the nervous system, a synapse is a structure that permits a neuron (or nerve cell) to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron.
Q19: The three pairs of salivary glands that secrete into the oral cavity are
(a) alpha, beta, and gamma
(b) parotid, submandibular, and sublingual
(c) palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal
(d) serous, mucous, and mixed
View AnswerAns: (b)
The salivary glands in mammals are exocrine glands, glands with ducts, that produce saliva. The 3 types of salivary glands are parotid, submandibular and sublingual glands.
Q20: Which among the following processes is being defined in this statement?
"The mother cell divides into two daughter cells; and each daughter cell begins its life like a new individual."
(a) Binary fission
(b) Budding
(c) Multiple fission
(d) Fragmentation
View AnswerAns: (a)
In this process, an organism divides into two equal parts, which on separation live independently. During this process, the nucleus of the parent cell divides mitotically into two equal parts; which is followed by the division of the cytoplasm resulting in the formation of the two identical cells referred to as daughter cells.
Q21: Which among these reproduces by the method of fragmentation?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Planaria
(c) Amoeba
(d) Penicillium
View AnswerAns: (a)
Reproduction by fragmentation is seen in filamentous algae, e.g. spirogyra. The filament of spirogyra divides into many pieces and each piece develops into a new individual.
Q22: Male hormone testosterone is produced by
(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) epididymis
(c) Leydig cells
(d) vas deferens
View AnswerAns: (c)
Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells of Leydig, are found adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicle. They produce testosterone in the presence of luteinizing hormone (LH).
Q23: Identify the correct order in which the food travels through the human alimentary canal.
I. Mouth
II. Rectum
III. Stomach
IV. Large intestine
V. Small intestine
(a) I, II, III, IV and V
(b) I, III, V, IV and II
(c) II, III, IV, V and I
(d) II, IV, V, III and I
View AnswerAns: (b)
The alimentary canal starts with the mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and ends with the anus.
Q24: Identify the artery that transport deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the alveoli of the lungs.
(a) Pulmonary vein
(b) Pulmonary artery
(c)Aorta
(d) Vena cava
View AnswerAns: (b)
The pulmonary artery is the only artery that transports deoxygenated blood. It transports blood from the heart to the lungs.
Q25: Identify the conducting elements of the xylem.
I. Xylem vessels
II. Xylem parenchyma
III. Xylem tracheids
IV. Xylem fibres
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
View AnswerAns: (c)
Of the 4 components of the xylem, xylem tracheids and vessels are the only conducting elements. They form a long, thin tube that extends from root to leaves.
Q26: Consider three elements X, Y, and Z with atomic numbers 13, 17, and 20 respectively. Select the correct statement among the following.
(a) X can be obtained by electrolytic reduction of its oxide and Z can be obtained by reduction of its oxide with carbon.
(b) Number of electrons present in the L shell of Y is 8 and the valency of Z is 3.
(c) Z does not react either with cold or hot water but X reacts violently with cold water and starts floating.
(d) X forms amphoteric oxide whereas Z forms basic oxide.
View AnswerAns: (d)
- The correct statement is that X forms amphoteric oxide while Z forms basic oxide. This means that X can react with both acids and bases, showing versatility in its chemical behavior.
- Z, with atomic number 20, is a metal that typically forms basic oxides, which react with acids.
- X, with atomic number 13, is also a metal but has the ability to react with both acids and bases, hence it forms an amphoteric oxide.
- This distinction is important in understanding the chemical properties of these elements and their oxides.
Q27: Humans are characterised by the presence of a four-chambered heart. Apart from humans and the rest of the mammals, which among the following have four-chambered hearts?
(a) Birds
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d) Fish
View AnswerAns: (a)
Apart from mammals, birds are the only group of animals that has four-chambered hearts. The only exception is crocodiles as they also have four-chambered hearts.
Q28: Pick the pair that is correctly matched:
(a) Kidney – nutrition
(b) Lungs – exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
(c) Brain – circulation
(d) Heart – excretion
View AnswerAns: (b)
Lungs assists with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Q29: Rohit has planted a new herb in his garden. He wants to propagate the plant on a large scale. Though the plant roots easily, the propagation process can often be hastened by treating cuttings with commercially available rooting hormones. Which of the following hormones will Rohit buy from the market for this purpose?
(a) Cytokinin
(b) 2,4-D
(c) NAA
(d) Gibberellins
View AnswerAns: (c)
Naphthaleneacetic acid (NAA) is a synthetic plant hormone in the auxin family and is an ingredient in many commercial plant rooting horticultural products. It is a rooting agent.
Q30: Longitudinal binary fission takes place in:
(a) Amoeba
(b) Leishmania
(c) Yeast
(d) Planaria
View AnswerAns: (b)
Binary fission of Leishmania happens in a longitudinal plane due to the presence of flagella at one end of the cell.
Q31: Select the accurate statements.
I. In the electrolytic refining method, the impure metal serves as the anode while a thin strip of pure metal acts as the cathode.
II. Copper, which occurs as Cu₂S in nature, can be extracted from its ore through electrolysis.
III. Highly reactive metal oxides can be converted to metals solely by the application of heat.
IV. Carbonate ores are broken down to produce metal oxides by heating without air.
(a) I and IV only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, III, and IV only
(d) I, II, III, and IV
View AnswerAns: (a)
- Statement I is correct because in electrolytic refining, the impure metal is indeed the anode and pure metal is the cathode.
- Statement II is also true; copper can be extracted from Cu₂S through electrolysis.
- Statement III is incorrect; highly reactive metals typically require more than just heat for reduction.
- Statement IV is correct as carbonate ores do decompose into metal oxides when heated without air.
- Thus, the correct statements are I and IV, making option (a) the right choice.
Q32: Pollination by bats is known as:
(a) Chiropterophily
(b) Hydrophily
(c) Ornithophily
(d) Entomophily
View AnswerAns: (a)
Chiropterophily is pollination of plants by bats. Bat pollination is most common in tropical and desert areas that have many night-blooming plants.
Q33: A metal forms a chloride of the type MCl2 with a formula unit mass of 111 u. What are the number of atoms in one molecule of its phosphate salt and the formula unit mass of its anhydrous sulfate salt respectively? (Given: Atomic mass of S = 32 u, O = 16 u)
(a) 13, 136
(b) 11, 136
(c) 13, 172
(d) 11, 172
View AnswerAns: (a)
- The metal M in MCl2 has a formula unit mass of 111 u. This means the molar mass of M is calculated as follows: M + 2(Cl) = 111 u. The atomic mass of Cl is approximately 35.5 u, so 2(35.5) = 71 u. Thus, M = 111 - 71 = 40 u.
- The phosphate salt of the metal will have the formula M3(PO4)2. In one molecule, there are 3 M atoms, 2 P atoms, and 8 O atoms, totaling 13 atoms.
- The anhydrous sulfate salt will have the formula MSO4. The formula unit mass is calculated as M + S + 4(O) = 40 + 32 + 64 = 136 u.
- Thus, the answers are 13 atoms in the phosphate salt and a formula unit mass of 136 u for the sulfate salt.
Q34: Which of the following reactions could be categorised as a neutralisation reaction?
(a) Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(b) Fe(s) + CI2(g) → FeCI2(s)
(c) Ca(OH)2(I) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(I)
(d) Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
View AnswerAns:
Ca(OH)2(I) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(I)
Oxides of non metals are acidic; hence this is a neutralisation reaction between a base and an acidic oxide to give salt and water.
Q35: Find the odd one out.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Leishmania
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Euglena
View AnswerAns: (c)
Amoeba, Leishmania and Euglena all reproduce asexually by binary fission while plasmodium reproduces asexually by multiple fission.
Q36: Choose the correct statement.
Statement I: Monoecious flowers undergo self and cross-pollination.
Statement II: Dioecious flowers undergo cross-pollination.
(a) Only statement I is correct.
(b) Statement I and II are correct.
(c) Statement I is false ad II is correct.
(d) Statement I is correct and II is false.
View AnswerAns: (b)
Monecious flowers have both stamens and carpel; hence they can undergo self-pollination and cross-pollination. The only exception is when the plant introduces certain barriers to prevent self-pollination.
Q37: Prostate glands and seminal vesicles are part of the male reproductive system and they assist in ____.
(a) lubrication and locomotion
(b) locomotion only
(c) locomotion, lubrication and nourishment of sperms
(d) none of the above
View AnswerAns: (c)
The secretions of the seminal vesicle and prostate glands help in the locomotion and nourishment of the sperms.
Q38: Select the statement that is incorrect.
(a) Relaxin hormone is released from the ovary. It plays an important role during childbirth.
(b) Luteinizing hormone causes the release of ovum from the ovary during the 14th day of the menstrual cycle.
(c) Zygote undergoes repeated mitotic divisions to form blastocyst.
(d) In a normal human female, implantation of the blastocyst to the uterine wall occurs after 17 days of fertilization.
View AnswerAns: (d)
- The incorrect statement is about the timing of implantation. In a typical human female, the blastocyst usually implants into the uterine wall around 6 to 10 days after fertilization, not 17 days.
- Relaxin is indeed released from the ovary and is crucial during childbirth.
- Luteinizing hormone is responsible for the release of the ovum on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle.
- The zygote does undergo mitotic divisions to develop into a blastocyst.
Q39: Identify the correct statement regarding the use of nectary in a flower.
(a) Nectar supplies sugar for the growth of pollen tubes.
(b) Nectar is essential for the growth of the ovary and embryo sac.
(c) Nectar is used to attract insects and animals.
(d) Nectar gives out a pleasant smell.
View AnswerAns: (c)
Flowers produce nectars to attract bees and other insects. As the insect’s land on the flower to drink the honey, the pollen grains are either dusted onto the insect or to the stigma. This helps in cross-pollination. Such pollination is called anemophilous.
Q40: In which of the following organisms does sex determination take place due to environmental influences?
(a) Chrysemys picta
(b) Ailuropoda
(c) Drosophila melanogaster
(d) Pavo cristatus
View AnswerAns: (a)
- Chrysemys picta, commonly known as the painted turtle, exhibits sex determination influenced by temperature, a key environmental factor.
- In contrast, species like Ailuropoda (giant panda) and Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) have genetic mechanisms for sex determination.
- Similarly, Pavo cristatus (peacock) also relies on genetic factors rather than environmental conditions.
- Thus, the correct answer is (a) Chrysemys picta, as it uniquely demonstrates environmental influence on sex determination.
Q41: A simple unicellular eukaryote having 2 flagella living in freshwater usually reproduce by the asexual process of __________.
(a) binary fission
(b) spore formation
(c) budding
(d) fragmentation
View AnswerAns: (a)
Unicellular eukaryotes belong to the Kingdom Protista and many organisms in Kingdom Protista reproduce asexually by binary fission, budding, fragmentation etc. The organism in question is Euglena that has two flagella and survives in freshwater. They reproduce by binary fission.
Q42: When a pure breeding tall pea plant with purple flowers is mated with a dwarf pea plant that has white flowers, all the offspring in the F1 generation were tall and had purple flowers. Upon self-pollination of the F1 plants, new combinations appeared in the F2 generation in a 3:3 ratio. This happened because of
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of independent assortment
(c) Back cross
(d) Reciprocal cross
View AnswerAns: (b)
- Law of independent assortment explains how different traits are passed independently from one generation to the next.
- In this case, the traits for height (tall vs. dwarf) and flower color (purple vs. white) segregate independently during the formation of gametes.
- This results in new combinations of traits in the F₂ generation, leading to the observed 3:3 ratio.
- The other options do not accurately describe the genetic principles at play in this scenario.
Q43: Which of the following is not classified as a complex fertilizer?
(a) Urea ammonium phosphate
(b) Ammonium phosphate
(c) Nitrophosphate
(d) Calcium nitrate
View AnswerAns: (d)
- Complex fertilizers are those that contain two or more nutrients. In this case, options (a), (b), and (c) are all complex fertilizers as they provide multiple nutrients.
- Calcium nitrate (option d) is primarily a source of calcium and nitrogen, but it does not fit the definition of a complex fertilizer since it does not contain multiple nutrients in a single compound.
- Thus, the correct answer is (d) Calcium nitrate, as it is not a complex fertilizer.
Q44: The following image shows the human male reproductive organs. Identify the functions of X and Z. 
(a) X helps to transport sperms to the urethra, Z makes sperms
(b) X nourished sperms, Z makes sperm
(c) X makes the sperm; Z stores the sperm produced by X
(d) None of the above
View AnswerAns: (a)
X is the vas deferens and it transports sperm from the testis to the urethra. W is the testis that produces and stores sperm.
Q45: A mother has blood type A and the child has blood type O. If the blood type of the mother is not homozygous, what would be the possible genotypes of the father’s blood group?
I. AA
II. BB
III. BO
IV. AO
V. OO
VI. AB
(a) III, IV, V
(b) I, II, VI
(c) I, III, IV
(d) III, V, VI
View AnswerAns: (a)
Since the blood group of the mother is A and heterozygous, its genotype is AO. The blood group of the child is O and its genotype is OO. The possible genotypes of the father should have at least one O allele. Hence, the possibilities include BO, AO, OO
Achiever’s Section
Directions (Q. No. 46 and 47): Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.
An organic compound (W) reacts with sodium leading to the evolution of hydrogen. Heating (W) at 443 K with excess conc. H2SO4 On treating with sodium hydroxide, (Z) gives (W) and sodium salt of (Y).
Q46: The compound (X)
(a) Has molecular formula C2H4 and it is a saturated hydrocarbon
(b) Produces carbon dioxide and water on burning in air
(c) Has two C=C double bonds and four C–H single bonds
(d) Belongs to alkene homologous series
View AnswerAns: (b)
- Compound (W) reacts with sodium, releasing hydrogen gas, indicating it is likely an alcohol or similar compound.
- When heated with concentrated sulfuric acid, it forms compound (X), which is likely to be a product that can combust.
- Since (X) produces carbon dioxide and water when burned, it suggests it is a hydrocarbon.
- Thus, the correct answer is that (X) produces carbon dioxide and water on burning in air.
Q47: Identify the incorrect statement(s) among the following.
I. The IUPAC name of (Y) is ethanoic acid.
II. The next higher member of the homologous series of (W) is propanal.
III. The reaction of (Z) with sodium hydroxide is known as esterification reaction.
IV. (Y) is a weaker acid than sulfuric acid.
(a) IV only
(b) I and IV only
(c) II, III, and IV only
(d) II and III only
View AnswerAns: (d)
- The statement I is correct as ethanoic acid is indeed the IUPAC name for (Y).
- Statement II is also correct; propanal is the next member in the series after (W).
- Statement III is incorrect because the reaction of (Z) with sodium hydroxide is not esterification; it is a different type of reaction.
- Statement IV is correct; (Y) is indeed a weaker acid compared to sulfuric acid.
Q48: Which of the following is the chromosomal attachment of the spindle microtube?
(a) Telomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Centrosome
(d) Liposome
View AnswerAns: (b)
Centromere is the region of a chromosome to which the microtubules of the spindle attach, via the kinetochore, during cell division. During prophase, the spindle also begins to form as the two pairs of centrioles move to opposite poles and microtubules begin to polymerise from the duplicated centrosome.
Q49: Which among the following is described in the given statement ?
"The process of utilisation of digested food for energy, growth and repair"
(a) Assimilation
(b) Absorption
(c) Egestion
(d) Ingestion
View AnswerAns: (a)
The process in which the absorbed food is taken in by the body cells and used for energy, growth and repair is called assimilation.
Q50: What is the respiratory organ of mosquito?
(a) Tracheoles
(b) Gills
(c) Skin
(d) Lungs
View AnswerAns: (a)
Tracheoles are the thin tubes attached to the trachea within the body of an insect and permit gaseous exchange.
|
13 videos|44 docs|187 tests
|
FAQs on Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 - Olympiad Preparation for Class 10
| 1. What topics are covered in the Class 10 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2? |  |
| 2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad? | |
| 3. What is the marking scheme for the Science Olympiad exam? | |
| 4. Are there any recommended books for Science Olympiad preparation? | |
| 5. How can I score high marks in the Logical Reasoning section of the Olympiad? | |
|
Nov 24, 2024 Last updated |
|
Explore Courses for Class 10 exam
|
|
Previous Year Questions with Solutions
,MCQs
,past year papers
,Important questions
,Objective type Questions
,Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10
,video lectures
,Extra Questions
,mock tests for examination
,ppt
,shortcuts and tricks
,Free
,Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10
,Viva Questions
,practice quizzes
,Exam
,study material
,Summary
,Sample Paper
,Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10
,Semester Notes
;
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 Free PDF Download
Importance of Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 Notes
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 Class 10 Questions
Study Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 on the App
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
Follow Us
|
