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English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Word and Structure Knowledge

Choose the Correct Option to Fill in the Blank. (Question 1 to 24)

Q1: He exited the room quickly with a _______ .
(a) locomotive
(b) resolve
(c) fragmentation
(d) decline

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is resolve, which means a firm determination to do something.
  • In this context, it suggests that he left the room with a strong sense of purpose or decision.
  • The other options do not fit well with the idea of leaving with determination.
  • Locomotive refers to a train engine, fragmentation means breaking into pieces, and decline suggests a decrease, none of which relate to determination.

Q2: The ________ of ancient times never remained in a single location and constantly moved from one area to another.
(a) hunters
(b) managers
(c) writers
(d) recruiters

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Ans: (a)

  • The term hunters refers to people who relied on hunting for their food.
  • In ancient times, these hunters had to follow animal migrations and seasonal changes.
  • Unlike other groups, they did not settle in one place, which is why they are described as migratory.
  • Other options like managers, writers, and recruiters do not fit this description as they are not associated with a nomadic lifestyle.

Q3: The rainbow _______ long before his friends reached the terrace.
(a) vanishes
(b) will vanish
(c) had vanished
(d) had been vanished

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is had vanished because it indicates that the rainbow disappeared before the friends arrived.
  • This use of the past perfect tense shows that one action (the rainbow vanishing) occurred before another action (friends reaching the terrace).
  • Options like "vanishes" and "will vanish" do not fit the timeline of events described.
  • Thus, "had vanished" is the most appropriate choice to convey the sequence of events clearly.

Q4: She needed to pause _______ the next store to purchase some books and stationery.
(a) aside
(b) buy
(c) inside
(d) by

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is by because it indicates the action of stopping at a location.
  • In this context, "stop by" means to visit a place briefly.
  • Options like "aside," "buy," and "inside" do not fit the sentence correctly.
  • Thus, "by" is the most appropriate choice for the sentence structure.

Q5: Because he was injured, he had to limp ________ his one foot on his way back.
(a) off
(b) on
(c) in
(d) aside

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is "on." This indicates that he was using one foot to help him walk.
  • "Limp on" suggests that he was continuing to move forward despite his injury.
  • Other options like "off," "in," and "aside" do not fit the context of walking with a limp.
  • Thus, the sentence makes sense as he limped on his injured foot while returning.

Q6: He was so perplexed that he couldn’t make a decision about it _______ away.
(a) any
(b) right
(c) left
(d) so

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Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "couldn’t decide about it right away" means he was unable to make a decision immediately.
  • The word "right" indicates the immediacy of the decision-making process.
  • Other options like "any," "left," and "so" do not fit the context of making a quick decision.
  • Thus, "right" is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Q7: She was unable to see properly due to the persistent _______ on the window screen.
(a) water
(b) blur
(c) glare
(d) fog

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is glare, which refers to a strong, harsh light that can make it difficult to see clearly.
  • In this context, the constant glare on the window screen is causing visibility issues.
  • Other options like water and fog do not fit as well as glare does in this situation.
  • Thus, glare is the most appropriate choice for describing the problem with visibility.

Q8: They managed to create some _________ for her due to her exceptional situation.
(a) allowing
(b) allocations
(c) admissions
(d) allowances

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Ans: (d)

  • In this context, the word allowances refers to special provisions or adjustments made for someone in a unique situation.
  • The term extraordinary circumstances indicates that the situation is unusual and requires special consideration.
  • Allowances are typically granted to help someone cope with their specific needs or challenges.
  • Other options like allocations or admissions do not fit the context of making provisions for someone.

Q9: ________ florist had a rich variety of flowers for sale in his nursery.
(a) A
(b) An
(c) The
(d) No article

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is "The" because it specifies a particular florist known for having a rich variety of flowers.
  • Using "The" indicates that we are talking about a specific florist, making it clear to the reader.
  • Options "A" and "An" are indefinite articles and do not specify which florist is being referred to.
  • "No article" would imply that we are not talking about any florist in particular, which does not fit the context.

Q10: The birds were _______ so early because of the incessant rainfall throughout the night.
(a) woke
(b) up
(c) down
(d) rise

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is up. This phrase "woke up" indicates that the birds became active or alert.
  • The context of the sentence suggests that the incessant rainfall caused the birds to be awake early.
  • Using "woke" would be incorrect as it does not fit grammatically in this context.
  • Thus, the phrase "the birds were up" makes the most sense in this situation.

Q11: The players were so involved in the game ________ they lost track of time.
(a) while
(b) after
(c) during
(d) that 

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is that because it connects the two parts of the sentence, indicating the reason for losing track of time.
  • Using that shows a cause-and-effect relationship, meaning their involvement in the game caused them to lose track of time.
  • Other options like while, after, and during do not fit the context as they do not convey the same meaning of consequence.
  • Thus, that is the best choice to complete the sentence logically.

Q12: The way she behaved was so unreasonable that there could be no _______ explanation for it.
(a) challenging
(b) reward
(c) justifiable
(d) justice

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Ans: (c)

  • The behavior described was unreasonable, indicating that it cannot be easily defended or explained.
  • The correct answer is justifiable, meaning that there is no valid reason to justify her actions.
  • Options like challenging and reward do not fit the context of needing an explanation.
  • Thus, the only suitable word that fits the blank is justifiable.

Q13: The ________ gesture of the organisation helped many people get their lives on track.
(a) magnanimous
(b) politeness
(c) magnanimity
(d) termination

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Ans: (a)

  • The word magnanimous means generous or forgiving, especially towards a rival or someone less powerful. In this context, it describes the organization's kind action.
  • Politeness refers to being courteous, which does not fit the context of a significant gesture.
  • Magnanimity is related but is a noun, while the sentence requires an adjective.
  • Termination implies ending something, which is opposite to helping people get their lives on track.

Q14: The fish that lived in deep seas were ________ than the rest of the fishes.
(a) poison
(b) most poisonous
(c) more poisonous
(d) poisoned

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Ans: (c)

  • The fish found in deep seas have adapted to their environment, often developing toxins for protection.
  • Among the options, "more poisonous" accurately describes these fish compared to others.
  • While "most poisonous" suggests they are the most toxic of all, "more poisonous" simply indicates a higher level of toxicity relative to other fish.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) more poisonous.

Q15: He was advised to put his shoulders to the ________ to excel in the sport.
(a) toes
(b) knuckles
(c) elbows
(d) wheel

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Ans: (d)

  • In this context, the phrase "put his shoulders to the wheel" means to work hard and put in effort.
  • Choosing option (d) "wheel" is correct because it signifies dedication and commitment to achieving excellence in the sport.
  • Options (a), (b), and (c) do not convey the same meaning of hard work and effort.
  • Thus, "wheel" is the appropriate term to indicate striving for success.

Q16: Since the temperature dropped down, the plants ________ dry and pale.
(a) has turned
(b) turn
(c) have turned
(d) will turn

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is have turned because it indicates a change that has occurred due to the temperature drop.
  • "Have turned" is the present perfect tense, which is used to show that something started in the past and is relevant now.
  • Options "has turned" and "will turn" are incorrect because they do not fit the context of the sentence.
  • "Turn" is also incorrect as it does not indicate the completed action of the plants becoming dry and pale.

Q17: The blind horse ran ________ the wall and broke its legs.
(a) upon
(b) into
(c) beside
(d) up

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is into. This means the horse collided with the wall.
  • When we say the horse ran into the wall, it indicates a direct impact, which explains why it broke its legs.
  • Using upon or beside would not convey the same meaning of collision.
  • Thus, into is the most appropriate choice for this context.

Q18: The elders observed that their childhoods ________ with fun and folly.
(a) fills
(b) filled
(c) was full
(d) were filled 

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is were filled because it indicates that the childhoods of the elders were full of fun and folly in the past.
  • The use of were is appropriate here as it refers to multiple childhoods, making it plural.
  • Filled suggests that their experiences were rich and enjoyable during that time.
  • Options like fills and was full do not fit the context as they do not correctly convey the past tense or plural form needed.

Q19: She felt a greater sense of pride in herself than ________ had ever experienced.
(a) fewer
(b) none
(c) anyone
(d) some

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is anyone because it indicates that her pride surpasses that of all other people.
  • Using fewer or none does not fit the context of comparing her pride to others.
  • Some is also incorrect as it does not convey the same level of comparison as anyone does.
  • Thus, anyone is the best choice to express that she is prouder than all others.

Q20: _________ second thoughts, she wasn’t really sure if that essay would win the medal.
(a) Until
(b) On
(c) Because
(d) Under

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Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "On second thoughts" means reconsidering or having doubts about something.
  • In this context, it indicates that she is reflecting on her initial belief regarding the essay.
  • Using "On" correctly fits the expression, while the other options do not convey the same meaning.
  • Thus, "On" is the appropriate choice to express her uncertainty.

Q21: After the pronouncement of the judgement, the lawyers ________.
(a) tensed
(b) will be tensing
(c) were tensed
(d) was tense

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is were tensed because it indicates a past state of the lawyers after the judgement was announced.
  • Using were shows that this situation happened in the past, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • Options like tensed and was tense do not correctly match the grammatical structure needed here.
  • Thus, were tensed is the only option that accurately reflects the past condition of the lawyers.

Q22: She was extremely happy when she heard the good news.
(a) sky
(b) mood
(c) moon
(d) sand

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "over the moon" means to be very happy or delighted.
  • In this context, the correct answer is "moon," indicating her high level of happiness.
  • Options like "sky," "mood," and "sand" do not convey the same meaning of extreme joy.
  • Thus, "moon" is the only option that fits perfectly with the expression used.

Q23: It was raining ________, therefore, the programme was cancelled.
(a) and
(b) but
(c) therefore
(d) besides

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is therefore, which indicates a cause-and-effect relationship.
  • In this context, the rain is the reason for the cancellation of the programme.
  • Using "and" or "but" would not convey the same meaning, as they do not imply a conclusion based on the previous statement.
  • "Besides" does not fit here as it suggests adding information rather than explaining a consequence.

Q24: They waited ________ noon for the party to arrive.
(a) yet
(b) till
(c) and
(d) therefore

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is till, which means 'up to' or 'until'.
  • Using till indicates that they were waiting up to the time of noon.
  • Other options like yet, and, and therefore do not fit the context of waiting for a specific time.
  • Thus, the sentence correctly conveys that they were waiting until noon for the party to arrive.

Q25: Choose the Correct Synonym of the given Word. 
Dexterity
(a) Clumsiness
(b) Skill
(c) Lack
(d) Inability

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Ans: (b)

  • The term dexterity refers to skill and grace in physical movement, especially in using the hands.
  • In this context, the correct answer is Skill, which is the opposite of clumsiness.
  • Clumsiness indicates a lack of coordination or skill, making it the opposite of dexterity.
  • Thus, the answer is (b) Skill, as it represents the ability to perform tasks with precision and ease.

Q26: Choose the Correct Synonym of the given Word. 
Syncopate
(a) Unwrinkle
(b) Amplify
(c) Disperse
(d) Abridge 

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Ans: (d)

  • Syncopate refers to the act of shortening or abridging something, often in music where a rhythm is altered.
  • It involves taking away parts of a word or a musical note, making it more concise.
  • In contrast, options like "unwrinkle," "amplify," and "disperse" do not relate to the concept of shortening.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (d) Abridge, as it aligns with the meaning of syncopate.

Q27: Choose the Correct Antonym of the given Word.
Fortitude
(a) Diffidence
(b) Promising
(c) Challenging
(d) Innovative

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Ans: (a)

  • The term fortitude refers to having courage and strength in facing difficulties.
  • The opposite of this quality is diffidence, which means a lack of confidence or self-assurance.
  • While promising and challenging do not relate to confidence, they do not represent the opposite of fortitude.
  • Thus, the correct answer is diffidence, as it signifies a timid or hesitant nature.

Q28: Choose the Correct Antonym of the given Word. 
Reticent
(a) Shy
(b) Hesitant
(c) Confident
(d) Uptight

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Ans: (c)

  • Reticent refers to someone who is reserved or not inclined to speak much.
  • In this context, the correct answer is "Confident," as it contrasts with being shy or hesitant.
  • While "shy" and "hesitant" imply a lack of confidence, "confident" suggests a strong self-assurance.
  • Thus, the term "reticent" can be understood as someone who may appear confident but chooses to remain quiet.

Choose the Option With the Correct Spelling. (Question 29 to 30)

Q29: How is the word that signifies 'calamity' spelled?
(a) Addverssity
(b) Advercity
(c) Adwercity
(d) Adversity 

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct spelling of the word meaning 'calamity' is Adversity.
  • This term refers to difficult or unfavorable conditions that one may face.
  • It is important to recognize the correct spelling to convey the intended meaning accurately.
  • Other options are incorrect spellings and do not represent the word 'calamity'.

Q30: How do you write the word that signifies 'prudent'?
(a) Viglant
(b) Vigilant
(c) Vigilent
(d) Vigeilunt

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct spelling of the word that means 'prudent' is vigilant.
  • Vigilant refers to being watchful and alert, which aligns with the idea of being careful or prudent.
  • The other options are incorrect spellings and do not represent the intended meaning.
  • It's important to remember the correct spelling to convey the right message in writing.

Reading

Read the Passage and Answer the Questions That Follow. (Question 31 to 35)
The Manatee Energy Storage Center -the world’s largest solar-powered battery storage facility - is now 75% finished with 100 of 132 total containers already installed, reveals a press release from Florida Power and Light Company (FPL). The battery is housed in Manatee County as the name indicates and is expected to be fully operational by the end of the year. When completed, the system will have a 409-MW capacity with the ability to deliver 900 MWh of energy. This is enough electricity to power 329,000 homes for more than two hours.
“With one milestone after another, FPL is following through on its steadfast commitment to make Florida a leader in sustainability and resiliency as we consistently deliver America’s best energy value - electricity that’s not just clean and reliable, but also affordable,” said FPL President and CEO Eric Silagy.
The battery will store energy in order to bring electricity to homes even when the sun’s not shining (at night and on cloudy days) meaning other more polluting power sources will not be required. Although customers are bound to see some financial benefits the main gains will be environmental.
According to FPL, each battery module is capable of storing an amount of solar energy equivalent to roughly 2,000 iPhone batteries. The complete battery system will be equivalent to 100 million iPhone batteries and the energy storage containers will be organized across a 40-acre plot of land (the equivalent of 30 football fields). The battery will have a lifespan of 40 years.
“With more than 12 million solar panels installed and more than 40 solar energy centers in operation, FPL is building on its rapid solar expansion with the world’s largest solar-powered battery,” said FPL Vice President, Matt Valle.
“But that’s just the tip of the iceberg. FPL is implementing innovative battery storage projects across the state, transforming Florida’s transportation landscape with more than 1,000 EV chargers and partnering with universities and municipalities on battery systems that leverage cutting-edge microgrid technology.”

Q31: Eric Silagy is the ________ of FPL.
(a) Vice President
(b) CEO
(c) CEO and President
(d) Member

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Ans: (c)

  • Eric Silagy holds the position of CEO and President of FPL, which means he is the top executive responsible for the overall operations and strategy of the company.
  • The title CEO stands for Chief Executive Officer, indicating his leadership role.
  • Being both CEO and President signifies that he has a significant influence on the company's direction and decision-making.
  • Other options like Vice President and Member do not accurately reflect his role in the organization.

Q32: According to FPL, each battery module is capable of storing an amount of solar energy equivalent to roughly ________ iPhone batteries.
(a) 100 million
(b) 500
(c) 2000
(d) 12 million

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Ans: (c)

  • The FPL (Florida Power & Light) states that each battery module can store energy equivalent to about 2000 iPhone batteries.
  • This means that the energy capacity of one module is quite significant, allowing for a large amount of solar energy storage.
  • Understanding this capacity helps in realizing how renewable energy can be effectively stored and used.
  • Thus, the correct answer is 2000, as it reflects the storage capability accurately.

Q33: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Electricity
(b) Manatee Energy Storage Center
(c) Florida Power and Light Company
(d) World’s Largest Solar-Powered Battery 

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Ans: (d)

  • The passage discusses a significant development in energy storage, specifically focusing on a large-scale solar-powered battery.
  • Option (d), World’s Largest Solar-Powered Battery, accurately reflects the main subject of the text.
  • Other options, while related to energy, do not capture the specific focus on solar energy storage.
  • Thus, option (d) is the best choice as it highlights the key feature of the passage.

Q34: What is the meaning of the phrase 'tip of the iceberg'?
(a) A suspension of particles in air
(b) A small part of something that is seen/known but is much larger
(c) Arctic poles
(d) The bottom section of a tip

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Ans: (b)

  • The phrase tip of the iceberg refers to a small visible part of a much larger issue or situation.
  • It suggests that what we see or know is just a fraction of the whole, indicating that there is much more beneath the surface.
  • This expression is often used to highlight that there are hidden complexities or problems that are not immediately apparent.
  • In summary, it emphasizes the idea that the full extent of something is often much greater than what is initially visible.

Q35: Choose the appropriate synonym for the word provided. Word: Resiliency
(a) Constraint
(b) Repression
(c) Pressure
(d) Flexibility

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Ans: (d)

  • The word resiliency refers to the ability to recover quickly from difficulties or adapt to change.
  • Among the options, flexibility best captures this meaning, as it implies the capacity to bend or adjust without breaking.
  • In contrast, constraint, repression, and pressure suggest limitations or restrictions, which are opposite to the idea of resilience.
  • Thus, the correct synonym for resiliency is flexibility.

Read the Passage and Answer the Questions That Follow. (Question 36 to 40)
Ayurveda is one of the most renowned traditional systems of medicine that has survived and flourished from ages till date. With the enormous knowledge of nature based medicine, the relationship of human body constitution and function to nature and the elements of the universe that act in coordination and affect the living beings, this system will continue to flourish in ages still to come.
The origins of Ayurveda have been traced to around 6,000 BCE when they originated as an oral tradition. Some of the concepts of Ayurveda have existed since the times of Indus Valley Civilization. The first recorded forms of Ayurveda as medical texts evolved from the Vedas. Ayurveda is a discipline of the upaveda or “auxiliary knowledge” in Vedic tradition. The origins of Ayurveda are also found in Atharvaveda, which contains 114 hymns and incantations described as magical cures for disease. There are various legendary accounts of the origin of Ayurveda, e.g. that it was received by Dhanvantari (or Divodasa) from Brahma. Tradition also holds that the writings of Ayurveda were influenced by a lost text by the sage Agnivesa.
Ayurveda is open to the criticism that its conceptual basis is obsolete and that its contemporary practitioners have not taken account of the developments of modern medicine. Responses to this situation led to an impassioned debate in India during the early decades of the twentieth century, between proponents of unchanging tradition (suddha “pure” ayurveda) and those who thought ayurveda should modernise and syncretize (asuddha “impure, tainted” ayurveda). There are many avenues still to be explored by the researchers, practitioners and experts in the field who carry the responsibility of keeping the traditional systems of medicine (TSMs) alive and contributing to their growth in the future.
However, due to many barriers such as lack of literature sources in different languages and insufficiency of awareness about the basic principles and histories of the systems from different ethnic origins, there is a lacuna of exchange of information from systems around the globe. Knowledge of systems from different ethnic origins would bring about interchange of knowledge and increase the understanding of different systems, and this can ultimately contribute to integration and advancement of herbal drug research when accompanied by collaborative work of researchers from different countries.
These futuristic goals can be accomplished when one gains insights about the systems, the principles and histories and works upon the strengthening aspects common between the various TSMs.

Q36: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Traditional Systems of Medicine
(b) Herbal Drugs
(c) Ayurveda
(d) Conflicting Theories

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Ans: (c)

  • The passage primarily discusses Ayurveda, which is a traditional system of medicine originating from India.
  • While other options like Traditional Systems of Medicine and Herbal Drugs are related, they do not specifically capture the essence of the passage as well as Ayurveda does.
  • Contradictory Theories does not align with the main focus of the text, making it an unsuitable choice.
  • Thus, the best title that reflects the content is Ayurveda.

Q37: Choose the correct synonym of the given word. 
Lacuna
(a) Gap
(b) Larva
(c) Lagoon
(d) Lampoon

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Ans: (a)

  • The word lacuna refers to a gap or missing part in something.
  • Among the options, gap is the only word that accurately represents this meaning.
  • Larva, lagoon, and lampoon do not relate to the concept of a gap.
  • Thus, the correct synonym for lacuna is gap.

Q38: Which historical scripture includes hymns and spells aimed at the magical healing of ailments?
(a) Rig Veda
(b) Yajur Veda
(c) Soma Veda
(d) Atharva Veda 

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Ans: (d)

  • The Atharva Veda is known for its focus on magical practices and healing rituals.
  • It contains hymns and incantations specifically designed for the curing of diseases.
  • In contrast, the Rig Veda, Yajur Veda, and Soma Veda primarily focus on rituals and philosophy rather than magical healing.
  • Thus, the correct answer is the Atharva Veda, which uniquely addresses these themes.

Q39: The origins of Ayurveda have been traced to around ________ .
(a) 300 BCE
(b) 100 BCE
(c) 6,000 BCE
(d) 8,000 BCE 

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Ans: (c)

  • Ayurveda is an ancient system of medicine that originated in India.
  • Its roots can be traced back to around 6,000 BCE, making it one of the oldest healing practices.
  • This traditional practice emphasizes the balance of body, mind, and spirit.
  • Understanding its origins helps appreciate its significance in holistic health.

Q40: What is the name of the sage believed to have authored a text that might have impacted Ayurveda?
(a) Chandra
(b) Dharma
(c) Dasa
(d) Agnivesa 

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Ans: (d)

  • Agnivesa is recognized as a significant figure in the history of Ayurveda.
  • He is thought to have composed a foundational text that contributed to the development of Ayurvedic medicine.
  • This text is believed to have had a lasting influence on the principles and practices of Ayurveda.
  • Understanding the contributions of sages like Agnivesa helps us appreciate the roots of traditional healing systems.

Spoken and Written Expression

Choose the Correct Option to Complete the Conversation. (Question 41 to 45)

Q41: Joe: When will you be leaving for the shop? 
Veronica: I will go _______ 4 'o clock.
(a) in
(b) at
(c) below
(d) on

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is at because we use "at" to specify a precise time.
  • In this context, Veronica is indicating the exact time she plans to leave, which is 4 o'clock.
  • Using "in" would imply a duration, while "below" and "on" do not fit the context of telling time.
  • Thus, "at" is the most appropriate choice for indicating a specific time.

Q42: Rajesh: Did you travel by car or train? 
Samuel: I ________ by car.
(a) travels
(b) travelled
(c) travelling
(d) will be travel

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is travelled because it indicates that the action of traveling has already happened in the past.
  • Option (a) travels is incorrect as it suggests a present action.
  • Option (c) travelling is not a complete verb form for this context.
  • Option (d) will be travel is incorrect because it implies a future action, not past.

Q43: Sameer: Which section is yours, Sir? 
Rahul: I haven’t yet _______ . They said they would allot my section today.
(a) alloting
(b) will allot
(c) been allotted
(d) allott

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The correct phrase is "haven’t yet been allotted," which indicates that the section has not been assigned to Rahul yet.
  • Option (a) "alloting" is incorrect because it does not fit the tense needed in the sentence.
  • Option (b) "will allot" is also incorrect as it suggests a future action rather than a completed one.
  • Option (d) "allott" is a misspelling and does not make sense in this context.

Q44: Aunt Margie: How have you been? 
Maggie: Hello, auntie. It’s been raining _______ here all day. I’m afraid the roof will leak.
(a) cats and caterpillars
(b) goats and sheep
(c) rats and cats
(d) cats and dogs

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The phrase "raining cats and dogs" is a common idiom that means it is raining heavily.
  • In this context, Maggie is expressing concern about the intensity of the rain and the potential for the roof to leak.
  • The other options do not represent a known idiom or convey the same meaning of heavy rain.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (d) "cats and dogs," which accurately describes the situation.

Q45: Karen: Don’t worry. Pull ________ . We will visit the doctor.
(a) yourself up
(b) yourself
(c) yourself together
(d) together you

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "pull yourself together" means to regain control of your emotions or composure.
  • In this context, Karen is reassuring someone to calm down before they go to the doctor.
  • Options (a) and (b) do not convey the same meaning as (c).
  • Option (d) is grammatically incorrect and does not fit the context.

Achievers Section

Choose the Correct Option to Fill in the Blank. (Question 46 to 47)

Q46: He had an ________ relationship with his grandfather.
(a) assembled
(b) aggregate
(c) acrimonious
(d) assimilation

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The word acrimonious means bitter or hostile, which fits the context of a strained relationship.
  • In contrast, assembled refers to putting things together, aggregate means a collection, and assimilation relates to absorbing information or culture.
  • Thus, the correct choice indicates a negative or difficult relationship with his grandfather.

Q47: Everyone has to respect the _______ of their soul.
(a) sanctity
(b) scant
(c) transient
(d) illumination

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is sanctity, which refers to the importance and holiness of something.
  • In this context, it emphasizes that we should honor the sacred nature of our soul.
  • The other options do not convey the same meaning; for example, scant means limited, which does not fit here.
  • Understanding the sanctity of our soul encourages us to treat it with care and respect.

Q48: Choose the correct Synonym of the word
Fortitude
(a) Unconcern
(b) Apathy
(c) Endurance
(d) Indifference

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Fortitude means having strength and courage in facing difficulties.
  • The correct synonym is Endurance, which refers to the ability to withstand hardship or adversity.
  • Options like Unconcern, Apathy, and Indifference imply a lack of interest or concern, which is opposite to the meaning of fortitude.
  • Thus, Endurance is the best choice as it captures the essence of strength in tough situations.

Q49: Choose the correct Antonym of the word.
Ephemeral
(a) Allergic
(b) Flash
(c) Deciduous
(d) Permanent

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The word ephemeral means something that lasts for a very short time.
  • The correct antonym is permanent, which means lasting for a long time or forever.
  • Options like allergic, flash, and deciduous do not convey the opposite meaning of ephemeral.
  • Thus, permanent is the best choice as it directly contrasts with the idea of something being temporary.

Q50: Choose the Correct Option to Complete the Conversation.
John: I have a vacation planned this summer. I have been planning about it for a while now. Anyway, ________ we’re going to Switzerland.
(a) drop one a line
(b) long story short
(c) on the spot
(d) short and long story

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The phrase long story short is used to summarize or shorten a lengthy explanation.
  • In this context, John is indicating that he has a lot to say about his vacation plans but wants to keep it brief.
  • The other options do not fit well in the conversation, as they do not convey the idea of summarizing.
  • Thus, the correct choice is (b) long story short, as it effectively leads into the statement about going to Switzerland.
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FAQs on English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 - English Olympiad for Class 9

1. What are the main topics covered in the Class 9 English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3?
Ans. The main topics covered in the Class 9 English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 include Word and Structure Knowledge, Reading Comprehension, and Spoken and Written Expression. Each section assesses different language skills essential for effective communication and comprehension.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the English Olympiad?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the English Olympiad, students should practice regularly with model test papers, read extensively to improve comprehension skills, and focus on vocabulary building. Additionally, engaging in spoken and written exercises will enhance their expression skills, and reviewing grammar rules will help in the Word and Structure Knowledge section.
3. What is the importance of the Spoken and Written Expression section in the Olympiad?
Ans. The Spoken and Written Expression section is crucial as it evaluates a student's ability to communicate effectively in both spoken and written forms. This section helps in developing clarity of thought, articulation of ideas, and overall language proficiency, which are essential skills for academic success and everyday communication.
4. Are there any recommended resources for practicing the English Olympiad questions?
Ans. Yes, recommended resources for practicing English Olympiad questions include previous years' question papers, various Olympiad preparation books, online platforms offering mock tests, and educational websites that provide exercises targeting specific areas such as vocabulary, comprehension, and grammar.
5. How is the scoring system structured for the English Olympiad?
Ans. The scoring system for the English Olympiad typically involves awarding marks for correct answers, while there may be no negative marking for incorrect answers. Each section may have a specific weightage, and students are encouraged to attempt all questions to maximize their score, as partial credit may also be given for certain responses.
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