Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography,C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. The unit of currency in France that was discontinued in 1794 was the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Dollar 
(b) Livre 
(c) Ruble 
(d) Franc

Q2. The patriotic song 'Marseillaise' was sung for the first time by volunteers from which city as they marched into Paris? (1 Mark) 
(a) Paris 
(b) Nantes 
(c) Bordeaux 
(d) Marseilles

Q3. During the 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative Parliament known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Estates General 
(b) Soviet 
(c) Duma 
(d) Reichstag

Q4. By the 1870s, socialists formed an international body to coordinate their efforts and fight for better conditions, 
known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) The Labour Party 
(b) The Third Estate 
(c) The Second International 
(d) The Social Democratic Party (SPD)

Q5. (i) What was the Estates General under the Old Regime in France? (2 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Who comprised the 'middle class' that emerged in 18th-century France?

Q6. (i) Highlight the ideology of Liberals regarding political rights and government structure. (3 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Highlight the ideology of Conservatives concerning societal change.

​Q7. (i) What measures did the Jacobin government take to establish the French Republic and remove symbols of aristocracy? (5 Marks)
OR
(ii) How did the ideas of philosophers like Locke, Rousseau, and Montesquieu contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution?

Q8. Read the text regarding the Constitution of 1791 and answer the questions: (4 Marks)
The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected. Not all citizens, however, had the right to vote. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer's wage were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.
i. Who was vested with the power to make laws under the Constitution of 1791? 
ii. What criteria determined who was an 'active citizen'?  
iii. Which groups were classed as passive citizens? 
iv. Why might the poor be dissatisfied with this system? 

Q9. (MAP SKILLS - 2 marks) 
Two historical locations related to the French Revolution: 
A. The fortress-prison stormed by an agitated crowd on 14 July 1789. 
B. The city from where the patriotic song 'Marseillaise' originated.

Section B Geography

Q10. Which island group has Kavaratti as its administrative headquarters? (1 Mark) 
(a) Andaman Islands 
(b) Nicobar Islands 
(c) Lakshadweep Islands 
(d) Daman and Diu

Q11. India's total area accounts for approximately what percentage of the total geographical area of the world? (1 Mark)
(a) 3.28 per cent 
(b) 2.4 per cent 
(c) 15.2 per cent
(d) 7.5 per cent

Q12. The triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada is known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Central Highlands 
(b) Malwa Plateau 
(c) Deccan Plateau 
(d) Bundelkhand

Q13. The western coastal strip, south of Goa, is referred to as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Coromandel Coast 
(b) Konkan 
(c) Kannad Plain 
(d) Malabar Coast

Q14. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with which neighbouring country? (1 Mark) 
(a) China 
(b) Bhutan 
(c) Nepal 
(d) Myanmar

Q15. Which parallel range of the Himalaya is the most continuous and consists of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres? (1 Mark) 
(a) Shiwaliks 
(b) Himachal (Lesser Himalaya)
(c) Himadri (Great or Inner Himalayas) 
(d) Purvachal

​Q16. Name the group of islands lying close to the Malabar coast of Kerala, and state its origin. (2 marks)

Q17.  Give an account of the Northern Plains of India, detailing their formation and main divisions based on relief features. (5 marks)

Q18. Read the text regarding India's location and connectivity. (4 marks) 
Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere, the main land of India extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The trans Indian Ocean routes provide a strategic central location to India, connecting countries of Europe in the West and East Asia. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western coast. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India's distance from Europe has been reduced by 7,000 km.
i. How did the opening of the Suez Canal affect India's connectivity with Europe? (1) 
ii. How do India's land routes compare historically to its maritime contacts? (1) 
iii. State any two reasons why the central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered significant. (2)

​Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 Marks)
I. A continuous mountain range lying parallel to the Western Coast.
II. The triangular landmass lying south of the Narmada River.
III. The administrative headquarters of the Lakshadweep Islands.

Section C Political Science

Q20. The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in which body? (1 Mark) 
(a) The King 
(b) The Clergy 
(c) The Estates General 
(d) The National Assembly

Q21. The word democracy comes from the Greek word 'Demokratia', where 'demos' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) Rule 
(b) Government 
(c) People 
(d) Authority

Q22. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitution? (1 Mark) 
(a) 36 members 
(b) 299 members 
(c) 545 members 
(d) 750 members

Q23. Assertion (A): True democracy will come to this country only when no one goes hungry to bed. (1 Mark) 
Reason (R): Democracy deals only with decision-making. 
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Q24. Name the two types of states that existed in India before 1947. (2 Marks)

​Q25. What does the fate of a democratic country ultimately depend upon? (2 Marks)

Q26. Why is a constitution needed to generate trust among diverse groups of people living in a country? (3 Marks)

Q27. (i) Explain the importance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. (5 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Why is the Constitution of India considered legitimate and powerful, even decades after it was drafted?

Q28. Read the text about Zimbabwe and answer the following questions. (4 marks)
Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, ruled the country since independence. Elections were held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF.
i. Which political party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence? 
ii. Give one example of how the government increased the powers of the President. 
iii. What basic rule must a government follow, even if it has popular approval, to remain democratic?

Section D Economics

Q29. In the secondary sector, which sub-sector is the most labour-absorbing in India? (1 Mark) 
(a) Mining 
(b) Quarrying 
(c) Small scale manufacturing 
(d) Trade

Q30. Which requirement for production includes the knowledge and enterprise needed to put together. (1 Mark) 
(a) Land 
(b) Labour 
(c) Physical Capital 
(d) Human Capital

Q31. Manufacturing is included in which sector of economic activity? (1 Mark) 
(a) Primary sector 
(b) Secondary sector 
(c) Tertiary sector 
(d) Quaternary sector

Q32. Which regions in India were the first to try out the modern farming methods during the Green Revolution? (1 Mark) 
(a) West Bengal and Bihar 
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh 
(c) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh 
(d) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Q33. What is the standard unit of measuring land? (1 Mark) 
(a) Acre 
(b) Bigha 
(c) Guintha 
(d) Hectare

Q34. The conversion of a primary product into a finished commodity, such as converting sugarcane into jaggery in a factory, belongs to which economic sector? (1 Mark) 
(a) Primary sector 
(b) Secondary sector 
(c) Tertiary sector 
(d) Informal sector

Q35. Read the text on unemployment and answer the questions. (4 marks)
Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages cannot find jobs. Sheela is not interested in working outside her domestic domain. Jeetu and Seetu are too small to be counted in the work force population. Neither Jeetu, Seetu or Sheela can be counted as unemployed. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years.
i. Define unemployment based on the provided text.
ii. Who constitutes the workforce population?
iii. Why is Sakal's mother, Sheela, not counted as unemployed?

Q36. ​Distinguish between Fixed Capital and Working Capital, giving examples from production activities in Palampur. (3 marks)

Q37. ​What is human capital formation and how is investment in it superior to investment in land and physical capital? (3 marks)

Q38. (i) Explain the types of unemployment commonly found in the rural areas of India. (5 marks)
OR 
(ii) What are the four requirements for the organisation of production (factors of production)? Describe physical capital in detail.

​You can access the solutions to this Half Yearly  here