CBSE Class 9  >  Class 9 Notes  >  Social Studies (SST)   >  Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 1 (Solutions)

Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 1 (Solutions)

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

  • There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography, C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
  • Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
  • Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  • Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  • Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  • There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
  • The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
  • There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. The unit of currency in France that was discontinued in 1794 was the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Dollar 
(b) Livre 
(c) Ruble 
(d) Franc
Ans: (b)
 Sol: The Livre was the unit of currency in France during the Old Regime, but it was discontinued in 1794.
Q2. The patriotic song 'Marseillaise' was sung for the first time by volunteers from which city as they marched into Paris? (1 Mark) 
(a) Paris 
(b) Nantes 
(c) Bordeaux 
(d) Marseilles
Ans: (d) 
Sol: The patriotic song, the Marseillaise, was sung for the first time by volunteers from Marseilles as they marched into Paris and so got its name.
Q3. During the 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative Parliament known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Estates General 
(b) Soviet 
(c) Duma 
(d) Reichstag
Ans: (c) 
Sol: During the 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative Parliament or Duma.
Q4. By the 1870s, socialists formed an international body to coordinate their efforts and fight for better conditions, known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) The Labour Party 
(b) The Third Estate 
(c) The Second International 
(d) The Social Democratic Party (SPD)
Ans: (c)
Sol: To coordinate their efforts, socialists formed an international body, namely the Second International.
Q5. (i) What was the Estates General under the Old Regime in France? (2 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Who comprised the 'middle class' that emerged in 18th-century France?
Ans:
(i) (Estates General): 
A. The Estates General was a political body to which the three estates sent their representatives. 
B. In France of the Old Regime, the monarch alone decided when to call a meeting of this body to pass proposals for new taxes.
OR 
(ii) (Middle Class): 
 A. The middle class comprised social groups who earned their wealth through an expanding overseas trade and the manufacture of goods such as woollen and silk textiles. 
B. In addition to merchants and manufacturers, the third estate included professions such as lawyers or administrative officials.
Q6. (i) Highlight the ideology of Liberals regarding political rights and government structure. (3 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Highlight the ideology of Conservatives concerning societal change.
Ans:  
(i) Liberals
1. Liberals wanted a nation that tolerated all religions and opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. 
2. They argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by an independent judiciary. 
3. They did not believe in universal adult franchise, feeling that primarily men of property should have the vote, and did not want the vote for women.
OR 
(ii) Conservatives:
 
Conservatives were generally opposed to radicals and liberals. Earlier in the eighteenth century, conservatives were opposed to change, but by the nineteenth century, they accepted that some change was inevitable. However, they strongly believed that the past had to be respected, and any change had to be brought about only through a slow process.
Q7. (i) What measures did the Jacobin government take to establish the French Republic and remove symbols of aristocracy? (5 Marks)
OR
(ii) How did the ideas of philosophers like Locke, Rousseau, and Montesquieu contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution?
Ans: 
(i) (Jacobin Measures)
Following an insurrection in August 1792, elections were held, and henceforth all men of 21 years and above, regardless of wealth, got the right to vote. The newly elected assembly, called the Convention, abolished the monarchy and declared France a Republic on September 21, 1792. Louis XVI was subsequently sentenced to death on the charge of treason and executed publicly on January 21, 1793. To remove symbols of aristocracy, the Jacobins wore long striped trousers (sans-culottes), proclaiming the end of power wielded by wearers of knee breeches. They also wore the red cap that symbolized liberty. Furthermore, traditional aristocratic titles like Monsieur and Madame were replaced, and all French men and women were henceforth addressed as Citoyen and Citoyenne (Citizen). Churches were also shut down and converted into barracks or offices.
OR 
(ii) (Philosophers' Contribution):
 
Philosophical ideas intensively discussed in the eighteenth century contributed significantly to the revolutionJohn Locke, in his Two Treatises of Government, sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the monarchJean Jacques Rousseau proposed a form of government based on a social contract between people and their representativesMontesquieu, in The Spirit of the Laws, proposed a crucial division of power within the government among the legislative, the executive, and the judiciary. These ideas, which envisioned a society based on freedom and equal laws, were discussed intensively in salons and coffee-houses and spread widely through books and newspapers. Finally, the news that Louis XVI planned to impose further taxes generated anger and protest against the system of privileges, prompting revolutionary action.
Q8. Read the text regarding the Constitution of 1791 and answer the questions: (4 Marks)
The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected. Not all citizens, however, had the right to vote. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer's wage were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.
i. Who was vested with the power to make laws under the Constitution of 1791? 
ii. What criteria determined who was an 'active citizen'?  
iii. Which groups were classed as passive citizens? 
iv. Why might the poor be dissatisfied with this system? 

Ans: 
i. The power to make laws was vested in the National Assembly. 
ii. Active citizens were men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer's wage.
iii. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens
iv. The poor might be dissatisfied because the journalist Marat noted that the task of representing the people had been given to the rich, suggesting that wealth influences the law
.
Q9. (MAP SKILLS - 2 marks) 
Two historical locations related to the French Revolution: 
A. The fortress-prison stormed by an agitated crowd on 14 July 1789. 
B. The city from where the patriotic song 'Marseillaise' originated.
Ans: 
A. Bastille 
B. Marseilles

Section B Geography

Q10. Which island group has Kavaratti as its administrative headquarters? (1 Mark) 
(a) Andaman Islands 
(b) Nicobar Islands 
(c) Lakshadweep Islands 
(d) Daman and Diu
Ans: (c)
Sol: Kavaratti island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
Q11. India's total area accounts for approximately what percentage of the total geographical area of the world? (1 Mark)
(a) 3.28 per cent 
(b) 2.4 per cent 
(c) 15.2 per cent
(d) 7.5 per cent
Ans: (b)
Sol: India's total area accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world.
Q12. The triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada is known as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Central Highlands 
(b) Malwa Plateau 
(c) Deccan Plateau 
(d) Bundelkhand
Ans: (c)
Sol: The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
Q13. The western coastal strip, south of Goa, is referred to as the: (1 Mark) 
(a) Coromandel Coast 
(b) Konkan 
(c) Kannad Plain 
(d) Malabar Coast
Ans: (d)
Sol: The southern stretch of the western coast is referred to as the Malabar Coast.
Q14. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with which neighbouring country? (1 Mark) 
(a) China 
(b) Bhutan 
(c) Nepal 
(d) Myanmar
Ans: (c)
Sol: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with Nepal.
Q15. Which parallel range of the Himalaya is the most continuous and consists of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres? (1 Mark) 
(a) Shiwaliks 
(b) Himachal (Lesser Himalaya)
(c) Himadri (Great or Inner Himalayas) 
(d) Purvachal
Ans: (c)
Sol: The northern-most range, known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri, is the most continuous and consists of the loftiest peaks.
Q16. Name the group of islands lying close to the Malabar coast of Kerala, and state its origin. (2 marks) 
Ans: The group of islands lying close to the Malabar coast of Kerala is the Lakshadweep Islands. These islands are uniquely composed of small coral islands. Earlier names for this group included Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindive. Kavaratti island serves as the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep, and this group covers a small area of 32 sq km.
Q17.  Give an account of the Northern Plains of India, detailing their formation and main divisions based on relief features. (5 marks)
Ans: The Northern Plain was formed by the interplay of the three major river systems-the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra. It is constituted of alluvial soil deposited over millions of years at the foothills of the Himalaya. It is approximately 2,400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, covering an area of 7 lakh sq. km. The plain is agriculturally highly productive due to its rich soil cover, adequate water supply, and favorable climate.
Based on relief, the Northern Plain is divided into four regions:
1. Bhabar: A narrow, 8 to 16 km wide belt parallel to the Shiwaliks where rivers deposit pebbles, causing all streams to disappear.
2. Terai: Located south of the Bhabar belt, streams re-emerge here, creating a wet, swampy, and marshy region.
3. Bhangar: Formed of older alluvium, lying above the floodplains with a terrace-like feature, and containing calcareous deposits locally called kankar.
4. Khadar: The newer, younger deposits of the floodplains that are renewed almost every year, making them highly fertile and ideal for intensive agriculture.
Q18. Read the text regarding India's location and connectivity. (4 marks) 
Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere, the main land of India extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The trans Indian Ocean routes provide a strategic central location to India, connecting countries of Europe in the West and East Asia. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western coast. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India's distance from Europe has been reduced by 7,000 km.
i. How did the opening of the Suez Canal affect India's connectivity with Europe?
ii. How do India's land routes compare historically to its maritime contacts?
iii. State any two reasons why the central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered significant.
Ans: 
i. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India's distance from Europe has been reduced by 7,000 km. 
ii. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. 
iii. India's location is significant because: 
a. The trans Indian Ocean routes provide a strategic central location, connecting countries of Europe in the West and East Asia. 
b. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, helping India establish close contact with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western coast. 
c. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has, which justifies the naming of the Ocean after it. (Any two acceptable)
Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 Marks)
I. A continuous mountain range lying parallel to the Western Coast.
II. The triangular landmass lying south of the Narmada River.
III. The administrative headquarters of the Lakshadweep Islands.
Ans: 
I. Western Ghats 
II. Deccan Plateau 
III. Kavaratti

Section C Political Science

Q20. The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in which body? (1 Mark) 
(a) The King 
(b) The Clergy 
(c) The Estates General 
(d) The National Assembly
Ans: (d) 
Sol: The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected.
Q21. The word democracy comes from the Greek word 'Demokratia', where 'demos' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) Rule 
(b) Government 
(c) People 
(d) Authority
Ans: (c)
Sol: The Greek word 'Demokratia' is composed of 'demos' meaning people and 'kratia' meaning rule.
Q22. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitution? (1 Mark) 
(a) 36 members 
(b) 299 members 
(c) 545 members 
(d) 750 members
Ans: (b)
Sol: The Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members.
Q23. Assertion (A): True democracy will come to this country only when no one goes hungry to bed. (1 Mark) 
Reason (R): Democracy deals only with decision-making. 
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Sol: Assertion A reflects the ideal standard of democracy. Reason R is false, as democracy is also a principle that can be applied to any sphere of life and is limited by constitutional law and rights, not only decision-making.
Q24. Name the two types of states that existed in India before 1947. (2 Marks)
Ans: Before 1947, there were two types of states in India:
1. The provinces, which were ruled directly by British officials.
2. The Princely states, which were ruled by local, hereditary rulers.
Q25. What does the fate of a democratic country ultimately depend upon? (2 Marks)
Ans: The fate of the country ultimately depends not just on what the rulers do, but mainly on what we, as citizens, do. Democracy requires and depends on the active political participation by all the citizens. Therefore, citizens must continuously strive to save and strengthen democratic forms of decision-making, as this effort makes a difference in making the country more or less democratic.
Q26. Why is a constitution needed to generate trust among diverse groups of people living in a country? (3 Marks)
Ans: 
A. Every country has diverse groups of people with differences of opinion and interests. 
B. The constitution writes down some rules of the game that everyone agrees to abide by. 
C. These rules generate a degree of trust and coordination necessary for different kinds of people to live together. 
D. These rules determine what the elected governments are empowered to do and what they cannot do, ensuring the winner cannot easily change the rules
Q27. (i) Explain the importance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. (5 Marks)
OR 
(ii) Why is the Constitution of India considered legitimate and powerful, even decades after it was drafted?
Ans: Importance of the Preamble: 
The Preamble is a short statement containing the Constitution's basic values and the entire philosophy upon which the Constitution has been built. It defines the nature of the Indian state, declaring it to be Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. It declares India's aspirations for Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity for all citizens. The Preamble provides a crucial standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of the government. It is referred to as the soul of the Indian Constitution. Crucially, it emphasizes that the Constitution was enacted by "We, the People of India" through their representatives, establishing that the power is derived from the people.
OR 
Legitimacy of the Constitution:

The legitimacy of the Indian Constitution stems from several factors:
1. Broad Consensus: The Constitution reflects a broad consensus of the time it was made, and no large social group or political party has questioned its legitimacy since.
2. Representative Assembly: The Constituent Assembly, though not directly elected by universal franchise, ensured a fair geographical share of members from all regions and represented diverse social groups, castes, classes, and religions.
3. Systematic and Open Work: The Assembly worked in a systematic, open, and consensual manner, discussing the draft constitution clause by clause. Over two thousand amendments were considered during deliberations that lasted 114 days spread over three years.
4. Flexibility (Amendment Provision): The makers included provisions for constitutional amendments so that the document can be updated in accordance with the changing aspirations of the people and changes in society, preventing it from becoming a static law.
Q28. Read the text about Zimbabwe and answer the following questions. (4 marks)
​Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, ruled the country since independence. Elections were held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF.
i. Which political party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence?
ii. Give one example of how the government increased the powers of the President. 
iii. What basic rule must a government follow, even if it has popular approval, to remain democratic?
Ans: 
i. The country has been ruled by ZANU-PF. 
ii. The government changed the constitution several times to increase the powers of the President and make him less accountable. (Also acceptable: Public protests were declared illegal, or there was a law limiting the right to criticise the President). 
iii. A democratic government must rule within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights. It must respect some basic rights of the citizen, such as the freedom to think, form associations, and protest.

Section D Economics

Q29. In the secondary sector, which sub-sector is the most labour-absorbing in India? (1 Mark) 
(a) Mining 
(b) Quarrying 
(c) Small scale manufacturing 
(d) Trade

Ans: (c) 
Sol: In the secondary sector, small scale manufacturing is the most labour-absorbing.

Q30. Which requirement for production includes the knowledge and enterprise needed to put together. (1 Mark) 
(a) Land 
(b) Labour 
(c) Physical Capital 
(d) Human Capital

Ans: (d)
Sol: The fourth requirement for production, which includes the knowledge and enterprise to put together land, labour and physical capital, is called human capital.

Q31. Manufacturing is included in which sector of economic activity? (1 Mark) 
(a) Primary sector 
(b) Secondary sector 
(c) Tertiary sector 
(d) Quaternary sector

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector.

Q32. Which regions in India were the first to try out the modern farming methods during the Green Revolution? (1 Mark) 
(a) West Bengal and Bihar 
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh 
(c) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh 
(d) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modern farming methods in India.
Q33. What is the standard unit of measuring land? (1 Mark) 
(a) Acre 
(b) Bigha 
(c) Guintha 
(d) Hectare
Ans: (d) 
​Sol: The standard unit of measuring land is hectare.
Q34. The conversion of a primary product into a finished commodity, such as converting sugarcane into jaggery in a factory, belongs to which economic sector? (1 Mark) 
(a) Primary sector 
(b) Secondary sector 
(c) Tertiary sector 
(d) Informal sector
Ans: (b) 
​Sol: The process of manufacturing and production of goods in a factory belongs to the secondary sector.
Q35. Read the text on unemployment and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages cannot find jobs. Sheela is not interested in working outside her domestic domain. Jeetu and Seetu are too small to be counted in the work force population. Neither Jeetu, Seetu or Sheela can be counted as unemployed. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years.
i. Define unemployment based on the provided text. 
ii. Who constitutes the workforce population?
iii. Why is Sakal's mother, Sheela, not counted as unemployed?
Ans: 
i. Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages cannot find jobs. 
ii. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years. 
iii. Sheela cannot be called unemployed because she works for the family (domestic chores) and is not willing to work outside her domestic domain for payment.
Q36. Distinguish between Fixed Capital and Working Capital, giving examples from production activities in Palampur. (3 marks)
Ans: 
A. Fixed Capital refers to the inputs that can be used in production over many years. Examples include tools, machines (like generators, sophisticated machines), and buildings. 
B. Working Capital refers to the inputs that are used up in production. Examples include raw materials (like yarn or clay) and money in hand used to make payments.
Q37. What is human capital formation and how is investment in it superior to investment in land and physical capital? (3 marks)
Ans: 
A. Human capital formation occurs when the existing human resource is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy. 
B. It is achieved through investment in human capital in the form of education, training, and medical care. 
C. Human capital is superior because human resource can make use of land and capital, whereas land and capital cannot become useful on their own.
Q38. (i) Explain the types of unemployment commonly found in the rural areas of India. (5 marks)
OR 
(ii) What are the four requirements for the organization of production (factors of production)? Describe physical capital in detail.
Ans: (i) Types of Rural Unemployment: 
In rural areas of India, the nature of unemployment commonly includes seasonal and disguised unemployment.
1. Seasonal Unemployment: This type of unemployment occurs when people, particularly those dependent on agriculture, are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. This happens during months when labor-intensive agricultural activities, such as sowing, harvesting, weeding, and threshing, are not being conducted.
2. Disguised Unemployment: This phenomenon occurs when people appear to be employed in a farm plot, but the work actually requires the service of fewer people than are currently engaged. For instance, if a work requires five people but engages eight, the three extra people are considered disguised unemployed. The contribution made by these extra people does not add to the productivity of the field, meaning if they are removed, the production will not decline. While the sharing of work in the primary sector reduces the hardship of unemployment for the family, it does not reduce the family's poverty.
OR (ii) Factors of Production and Physical Capital: 
The four requirements (factors of production) needed for the organization of production are:
1. Land: Includes the physical area and other natural resources (like water, forests, and minerals).
2. Labour: Refers to the people who will do the work, ranging from highly educated workers to those performing manual tasks.
3. Physical Capital: The variety of inputs required at every stage during production.
4. Human Capital: The knowledge and enterprise needed to put together the other three factors (land, labor, and physical capital) to produce an output.
Physical Capital Detail: Physical capital is comprised of two components:
• Fixed Capital: Inputs that can be used in production over many years. Examples include tools (like a farmer's plough)machines (such as generators or computers), and buildings.
• Working Capital: Inputs that are used up in production. Examples include raw materials (like yarn or clay) and the money in hand needed to make payments.
The document Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 1 (Solutions) is a part of the Class 9 Course Social Studies (SST) Class 9.
All you need of Class 9 at this link: Class 9

FAQs on Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 1 (Solutions)

1. What topics are covered in the Class 9 Half-Yearly Social Studies (SST) exam?
Ans. The Class 9 Half-Yearly Social Studies exam typically covers a variety of topics including history, geography, political science, and economics. Specific chapters may focus on the French Revolution, the Indian independence movement, the weather and climate, and democratic political processes.
2. How can I effectively prepare for the SST Half-Yearly exam?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the SST Half-Yearly exam, students should create a study schedule, review class notes regularly, focus on understanding key concepts rather than rote memorization, practice previous years' question papers, and engage in group study sessions for better retention of information.
3. What is the marking scheme for the Class 9 SST exam?
Ans. The marking scheme for the Class 9 SST exam usually consists of theoretical questions, map-based questions, and project work. Each section may have different weightage, generally totaling around 100 marks, with a division between formative and summative assessments.
4. Are there any important tips for answering SST exam questions?
Ans. Yes, when answering SST exam questions, it's important to read all questions carefully, manage your time effectively, start with questions you are most confident about, use bullet points for clarity, and provide examples where relevant to support your answers.
5. How can I improve my writing skills for the SST exam?
Ans. To improve writing skills for the SST exam, students should practice writing essays and summaries regularly, focus on organizing their thoughts clearly, utilize proper grammar and vocabulary, and seek feedback from teachers or peers to enhance their writing style and coherence.
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