Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. Which philosopher proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive, and the judiciary in his work The Spirit of the Laws? (1 mark)
(a) Jean-Jacques Rousseau 
(b) John Locke 
(c) Montesquieu 
(d) Karl Marx

Q2. Napoleon Bonaparte was finally defeated at which location in 1815? (1 mark)
(a) Paris 
(b) Versailles 
(c) Waterloo 
(d) Brest Litovsk

Q3. Which group comprised the First Estate in 18th-century French society?  (1 mark)
(a) Nobles 
(b) Peasants and Artisans 
(c) Clergy 
(d) Big businessmen and Merchants

Q4. In what year did Lenin dismiss the Constituent Assembly in Russia after it rejected Bolshevik measures? (1 mark) 
(a) November 1917 
(b) December 1922 
(c) January 1918 
(d) March 1918

Q5. Define the following terms as used in the context of the French Revolution. (2 marks)
i. Treason 
ii. Tithe

Q6. Contrast the views of Liberals and Radicals concerning the concentration of wealth and political power in 19th-century Europe. 
(3 marks) 

Q7. Describe the major changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution of 1917. (5 marks) 

Q8. Read the details regarding political symbols and answer the questions: (4 marks) 
​The majority of men and women in the eighteenth century could not read or write. So, images and symbols were frequently used instead of printed words to communicate important ideas. For example, the Snake biting its tail to form a ring symbolized Eternity, as a ring has neither beginning nor end. The Sceptre was the symbol of royal power. The Broken chain stood for the act of becoming free, as chains were used to fetter slaves. Finally, the Bundle of rods or fasces symbolized Strength in Unity.
i. What does the 'Sceptre' symbolize in political imagery?
ii. What does the symbol of the 'Snake biting its tail to form a ring' represent?
iii. Explain the meaning of the 'The bundle of rods or fasces' and the 'Broken chain'.

Section B Geography

Q10. The land boundary of India measures approximately: (1 Mark) 
(a) 7,516.6 km 
(b) 15,200 km 
(c) 3.28 million square km 
(d) 2,400 km

Q11. The Maldives Islands, one of India's southern neighbours, are situated to the south of which Indian island group? (1 Mark) 

(a) Andaman Islands 
(b) Nicobar Islands 
(c) Sri Lanka 
(d) Lakshadweep Islands

Q12. What is the approximate length of the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the Indian mainland? (1 Mark) 
(a) 8° 
(b) 22° 
(c) 30° 
d) 68°

Q13. Nanga Parbat, a prominent Himalayan peak with a height of 8,126 metres, is located in which country? (1 Mark) 
(a) Nepal 
(b) India 
(c) China
(d) Bhutan

Q14. Which two rivers demarcate the boundary of the Nepal Himalayas, based on regional divisions from west to east? (1 Mark) 
(a) Indus and Satluj 
(b) Teesta and Dihang 
(c) Satluj and Kali 
(d) Kali and Teesta

Q15. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as a: (1 Mark) 
(a) Coast 
(b) Island 
(c) Strait 
(d) Peninsula

Q16. What is the Bhabar, and what happens to the streams and rivers in this region? (2 marks)

Q17. Distinguish between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats based on their continuity, elevation, and effects on climate. (5 marks)

Q18. Read the text on India's location and answer the following questions. (4 marks) 
​​​India is a southward extension of the Asian continent. The trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia, providing a strategic central location to India. Note that the Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, allowing India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts.
i. Which specific geographical feature of India protrudes into the Indian Ocean?
ii. How did India's relationships through land routes compare historically to its maritime contacts?
iii. State any two reasons why the Indian landmass is considered to have a strategic central location.

Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 Marks)
I. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats.
II. A hill range comprising the Purvachal/Eastern Hills.
III. The southernmost tip of the Indian mainland.

Section C Political Science

Q20. The Greek word 'Demokratia' is composed of 'demos' and 'kratia'. What does 'demos' mean? (1 Mark) 
(a) Rule 
(b) Government 
(c) People 
(d) Authority

Q21. The party that led the freedom struggle in Zimbabwe against White minority rule was: (1 Mark) 

(a) African National Congress (ANC) 
(b) Ba'ath Party 
(c) ZANU-PF 
(d) Chinese Communist Party

Q22. In the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, the term 'Sovereign' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) Head of the state is an elected person. 
(b) Wealth is shared equally by society. 
(c) People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. 
(d) Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste, religion, or gender.

Q23. Which action provides the sanctity to the Indian Constitution even though the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by all the people? (1 Mark) 
(a) The adoption of institutional procedures from the Government of India Act, 1935. 
(b) The fact that the Constituent Assembly Debates were recorded in 12 bulky volumes. 
(c) The presence of leaders like Mahatma Gandhi. 
(d) The provision for constitutional amendments.

Q24. Define a Constitutional Amendment and state why the Indian Constitution has provisions for these amendments. (2 marks) 

Q25. What were the two types of states that existed in India before 1947?  (2 marks)

Q26. Explain why a constitution is necessary to generate trust and coordination among people living in a country. (3 marks)

Q27. Summarize the four key features that define democracy as a form of government. (5 marks)

Q28. Read the details regarding the transition in South Africa and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​​Nelson Mandela, the first president of the new South Africa, cherished the ideal of a democratic and free society in which all persons live together in harmony and with equal opportunities. After the emergence of the new democracy, black leaders appealed to fellow blacks to forgive the whites for the atrocities committed. They agreed to build a new South Africa based on democratic values and social justice. South Africans call themselves a "rainbow nation". The new constitution, therefore, is a solemn pact declaring that they shall never permit a repetition of their racist, brutal, and repressive past.
i. What ideal did Nelson Mandela cherish while fighting against both white and black domination?
ii. What did South Africa call itself after the formation of the multi-racial government?
iii. What was the solemn pact made by South Africans regarding their past?

Section D Economics

Q29. What is the aim of production of goods and services? (1 Mark) 
(a) To generate maximum capital 
(b) To utilize all available labour 
(c) To produce the goods and services that we want 
(d) To maximize the use of land

Q30. Raw materials and money in hand are examples of which type of capital? (1 Mark) 
(a) Fixed Capital 
(b) Human Capital 
(c) Working Capital 
(d) Financial Capital

Q31. Approximately what percentage of the people working in Palampur are engaged in non-farm activities? (1 Mark) 
(a) 75 per cent 
(b) 50 per cent 
(c) 33 per cent 
(d) 25 per cent

Q32. Which of the following activities is classified under the Secondary Sector? (1 Mark) 
(a) Forestry 
(b) Mining and quarrying 
(c) Manufacturing 
(d) Trade and transport

Q33. Which organization was established in factories to provide crèches for the children of women workers in Soviet Russia? (1 Mark) 
(a) Duma 
(b) Kolkhoz 
(c) Crèches 
(d) All Russian Congress of Soviets

Q34. The maximum wages for a farm labourer set by the government (as of March 2019 in the source) was: (1 Mark) 
(a) Rs 100 per day 
(b) Rs 160 per day 
(c) Rs 300 per day 
(d) Rs 500 per day

Q35. Compare the access to capital for small farmers (like Savita) and medium/large farmers (like Tejpal Singh) in Palampur. (4 marks)

Q36. In Palampur, farm labourers like Dala often agree to work for wages below the government minimum wage. Explain why. (3 marks)

Q37. Explain the negative effects of the continuous use of chemical fertilizers on land and the natural resource base.  (3 marks)

Q38. What is Human Capital Formation? Discuss why investment in Human Capital is considered superior to investment in physical capital.  (5 marks)

You can access the solutions to this Half Yearly here .