CBSE Class 9  >  Class 9 Notes  >  Social Studies (SST)   >  Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 2 (Solutions)

Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 2 (Solutions)

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

  • There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
  • Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
  • Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  • Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  • Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  • There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
  • The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
  • There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. Which philosopher proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive, and the judiciary in his work The Spirit of the Laws? (1 mark)
​(a) Jean-Jacques Rousseau 
​(b) John Locke 
​(c) Montesquieu 
​(d) Karl Marx

Ans: (c) 
Sol: In The Spirit of the Laws, Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.
Q2. Napoleon Bonaparte was finally defeated at which location in 1815? (1 mark)
(a) Paris 
(b) Versailles 
(c) Waterloo 
(d) Brest Litovsk
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Napoleon Bonaparte was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815.
Q3. Which group comprised the First Estate in 18th-century French society?  (1 mark)
(a) Nobles 
(b) Peasants and Artisans 
(c) Clergy 
(d) Big businessmen and Merchants
Ans: (c) 
Sol: The members of the first estate were the Clergy, invested with special functions in the church.
Q4. In what year did Lenin dismiss the Constituent Assembly in Russia after it rejected Bolshevik measures? (1 mark) 
(a) November 1917 
(b) December 1922 
(c) January 1918 
(d) March 1918
Ans: (c) 
Sol: The Constituent Assembly rejected Bolshevik measures in January 1918, and Lenin dismissed the Assembly.
Q5. Define the following terms as used in the context of the French Revolution. (2 marks)
i. Treason 
ii. Tithe

Ans: 
i. Treason: The betrayal of one's country or government. For example, Louis XVI was sentenced to death on this charge during the French Revolution.
ii. Tithe: A tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce. This tax was abolished by the National Assembly on the night of August 4, 1789.
Q6. Contrast the views of Liberals and Radicals concerning the concentration of wealth and political power in 19th-century Europe. 
(3 marks) 
Ans: 
A. Liberals opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers and argued for a representative, elected government, but they were not democrats; they felt that primarily men of property should have the vote. 
B. Radicals wanted a government based on the majority of the country's population and many supported women's suffragette movements. 
C. Unlike Liberals who often were property owners themselves, Radicals disliked the concentration of property in the hands of a few, though they were not against the existence of private property generally.
Q7. Describe the major changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution of 1917. (5 marks) 
Ans: 
Q8. Read the details regarding political symbols and answer the questions: (4 marks) 
The majority of men and women in the eighteenth century could not read or write. So, images and symbols were frequently used instead of printed words to communicate important ideas. For example, the Snake biting its tail to form a ring symbolized Eternity, as a ring has neither beginning nor end. The Sceptre was the symbol of royal power. The Broken chain stood for the act of becoming free, as chains were used to fetter slaves. Finally, the Bundle of rods or fasces symbolized Strength in Unity.
i. What does the 'Sceptre' symbolize in political imagery?
ii. What does the symbol of the 'Snake biting its tail to form a ring' represent?
iii. Explain the meaning of the 'The bundle of rods or fasces' and the 'Broken chain'.
Ans: i. The Sceptre is the symbol of royal power. 
ii. The symbol of the snake biting its tail to form a ring represents Eternity, as a ring has neither beginning nor end. 
iii. The Bundle of rods or fasces symbolizes Strength in Unity (one rod can be easily broken, but not an entire bundle). The Broken chain stands for the act of becoming free, as chains were used to fetter slaves.
Q9. (MAP SKILLS) - Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of the world. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2 Marks)
A. The place where Napoleon Bonaparte was finally defeated. 
B. A French port city whose economic prosperity was tied to the slave trade.
Ans: 
A. Waterloo 
B. Bordeaux (or Nantes)

Section B Geography

Q10. The land boundary of India measures approximately: (1 Mark) 
(a) 7,516.6 km 
(b) 15,200 km 
(c) 3.28 million square km 
(d) 2,400 km
Ans: (b) 
Sol: India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km.
Q11. The Maldives Islands, one of India's southern neighbours, are situated to the south of which Indian island group? (1 Mark) 
(a) Andaman Islands 
(b) Nicobar Islands 
(c) Sri Lanka 
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans: (d) 
Sol: The Maldives Islands are situated to the south of the Lakshadweep Islands.
Q12. What is the approximate length of the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the Indian mainland? (1 Mark) 
(a) 8° 
(b) 22° 
(c) 30° 
(d) 68°
Ans: (c) 
Sol: The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°.
Q13. Nanga Parbat, a prominent Himalayan peak with a height of 8,126 metres, is located in which country? (1 Mark) 
(a) Nepal 
(b) India 
(c) China 
(d) Bhutan
Ans: (b) 
Sol: Nanga Parbat is one of the highest peaks located in India.
Q14. Which two rivers demarcate the boundary of the Nepal Himalayas, based on regional divisions from west to east? (1 Mark) 
(a) Indus and Satluj 
(b) Teesta and Dihang 
(c) Satluj and Kali 
(d) Kali and Teesta
Ans: (d) 
Sol: The Kali and Teesta rivers demarcate the Nepal Himalayas.
Q15. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as a: (1 Mark) 
(a) Coast 
(b) Island 
(c) Strait 
(d) Peninsula
Ans: (d) 
Sol: A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as a Peninsula.
Q16. What is the Bhabar, and what happens to the streams and rivers in this region? (2 marks)
Ans: 
A. The Bhabar is a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks. 
B. It is characterized by rivers depositing pebbles, and all streams disappear in this belt.
Q17. Distinguish between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats based on their continuity, elevation, and effects on climate.  
(5 marks)
Ans: 
i. Continuity: The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed only through passes (like Thal, Bhor, and Pal Ghats), whereas the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular. 
ii. Elevation: The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats; their average elevation is 900-1600 metres as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. 
iii. Dissection: The Eastern Ghats are dissected by large rivers (like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri) draining into the Bay of Bengal, a feature absent in the Western Ghats. 
iv. Climatic Effect: The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by forcing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along their western slopes. 
v. Highest Peaks: The height of the Western Ghats increases progressively from north to south (e.g., Anai Mudi, Doda Betta), while the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Mahendragiri.
Q18. Read the text on India's location and answer the following questions. (4 marks) 
​​India is a southward extension of the Asian continent. The trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia, providing a strategic central location to India. Note that the Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, allowing India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts.
i. Which specific geographical feature of India protrudes into the Indian Ocean?
ii. How did India's relationships through land routes compare historically to its maritime contacts?
iii. State any two reasons why the Indian landmass is considered to have a strategic central location.
Ans: i. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean. 
ii. India's relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. 
iii. India's location is considered strategic because: 
a. It is a southward extension of the Asian continent. 
b. The trans Indian Ocean routes connect Europe in the West and East Asia.
Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 Marks)
 I. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats.
II. A hill range comprising the Purvachal/Eastern Hills.
III. The southernmost tip of the Indian mainland
.
Ans: 
I. Mahendragiri 
II. Patkai Bum (or Naga Hills, Mizo Hills, Manipur Hills) 
III. Kanniyakumari

Section C Political Science

Q20. The Greek word 'Demokratia' is composed of 'demos' and 'kratia'. What does 'demos' mean? (1 Mark) 
(a) Rule 
(b) Government 
(c) People 
(d) Authority
Ans: (c) 
Sol: The Greek word 'Demokratia' is composed of 'demos' meaning people and 'kratia' meaning rule.
Q21. The party that led the freedom struggle in Zimbabwe against White minority rule was: (1 Mark) 
(a) African National Congress (ANC) 
(b) Ba'ath Party 
(c) ZANU-PF 
(d) Chinese Communist Party
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Zimbabwe has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle.
Q22. In the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, the term 'Sovereign' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) Head of the state is an elected person. 
(b) Wealth is shared equally by society. 
(c) People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. 
(d) Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste, religion, or gender.
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Sovereign means people have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters, and no external power can dictate the government of India.
Q23. Which action provides the sanctity to the Indian Constitution even though the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by all the people? (1 Mark) 
(a) The adoption of institutional procedures from the Government of India Act, 1935. 
(b) The fact that the Constituent Assembly Debates were recorded in 12 bulky volumes. 
(c) The presence of leaders like Mahatma Gandhi. 
(d) The provision for constitutional amendments.
Ans: (b) 
Sol: The fact that the Assembly worked in a systematic, open, and consensual manner, and that Every document presented and every word spoken in the Constituent Assembly has been recorded and preserved (Constituent Assembly Debates), provides sanctity to the Constitution.
Q24. Define a Constitutional Amendment and state why the Indian Constitution has provisions for these amendments. (2 marks) 
Ans: 
A. A constitutional amendment is a change in the constitution made by the supreme legislative body in a country. 
B. The makers of the Indian Constitution felt it had to be in accordance with people's aspirations and changes in society, so they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time.
Q25. What were the two types of states that existed in India before 1947?  (2 marks)
Ans: Before 1947, there were two types of states in India:
1. The provinces, which were ruled directly by British officials.
2. The Princely states, which were ruled by local, hereditary rulers.
Q26. Explain why a constitution is necessary to generate trust and coordination among people living in a country. (3 marks)
Ans: 
A. Every country has diverse groups of people with differences of opinion and interests. 
B. A constitution writes down a set of written rules (rules of the game) that everyone agrees to abide by. 
C. These rules lay down how the rulers are chosen and what their powers are, generating a degree of trust and coordination necessary for different kinds of people to live together.
Q27. Summarize the four key features that define democracy as a form of government. (5 marks)
Ans: Democracy is a form of government in which: 
i. Rulers elected by the people take all the major decisions. 
ii. Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers, where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. 
iii. This choice and opportunity is available to all the people on an equal basis (upholding the principle of one person, one vote, one value). 
iv. The exercise of this choice leads to a government limited by basic rules of the constitution and citizens' rights.
Q28. Read the details regarding the transition in South Africa and answer the questions. (4 marks)

Nelson Mandela, the first president of the new South Africa, cherished the ideal of a democratic and free society in which all persons live together in harmony and with equal opportunities. After the emergence of the new democracy, black leaders appealed to fellow blacks to forgive the whites for the atrocities committed. They agreed to build a new South Africa based on democratic values and social justice. South Africans call themselves a "rainbow nation". The new constitution, therefore, is a solemn pact declaring that they shall never permit a repetition of their racist, brutal, and repressive past.

i. What ideal did Nelson Mandela cherish while fighting against both white and black domination?
ii. What did South Africa call itself after the formation of the multi-racial government?
iii. What was the solemn pact made by South Africans regarding their past?
Ans:
 i. Mandela cherished the ideal of a democratic and free society in which all persons live together in harmony and with equal opportunities. 
ii. South Africans called themselves a 'rainbow nation'. 
iii. South Africans declared that they shall never permit a repetition of their racist, brutal, and repressive past.

Section D Economics

Q29. What is the aim of production of goods and services? (1 Mark) 
(a) To generate maximum capital 
(b) To utilize all available labour 
(c) To produce the goods and services that we want 
(d) To maximize the use of land

Ans: (c) 
Sol: The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.

Q30. Raw materials and money in hand are examples of which type of capital? (1 Mark) 
(a) Fixed Capital 
(b) Human Capital 
(c) Working Capital 
(d) Financial Capital
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital because unlike tools and buildings, they are used up in production.
Q31. Approximately what percentage of the people working in Palampur are engaged in non-farm activities? (1 Mark) 
(a) 75 per cent 
(b) 50 per cent 
(c) 33 per cent 
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: (d) 
Sol: Only 25 per cent of the people working in Palampur are engaged in activities other than agriculture.
Q32. Which of the following activities is classified under the Secondary Sector? (1 Mark) 
(a) Forestry 
(b) Mining and quarrying 
(c) Manufacturing 
(d) Trade and transport
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector.
Q33. Which organization was established in factories to provide crèches for the children of women workers in Soviet Russia? (1 Mark) 
(a) Duma 
(b) Kolkhoz 
(c) Crèches 
(d) All Russian Congress of Soviets
Ans: (c) 
Sol: Crèches were established in factories for the children of women workers in Soviet Russia.
Q34. The maximum wages for a farm labourer set by the government (as of March 2019 in the source) was: (1 Mark) 
(a) Rs 100 per day 
(b) Rs 160 per day 
(c) Rs 300 per day 
(d) Rs 500 per day
Ans: (c) 
Sol: The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government was Rs 300 per day (March 2019).
Q35. Compare the access to capital for small farmers (like Savita) and medium/large farmers (like Tejpal Singh) in Palampur. (4 marks)
Ans: 
A. Small farmers have little surplus production due to the small size of their plots, so they have to borrow money to arrange for capital. 
B. They borrow from large farmers or moneylenders, and the rate of interest on such loans is very high (e.g., Savita agreed to 24% for four months). 
C. In contrast, medium and large farmers have their own savings from farming. 
D. They use their savings to arrange for the working capital for the next season and sometimes invest in increasing their fixed capital (e.g., Tejpal Singh planned to buy another tractor).
Q36. In Palampur, farm labourers like Dala often agree to work for wages below the government minimum wage. Explain why. (3 marks)
Ans:
A. Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots, meaning they are the most abundant factor of production but opportunities are limited. 
B. There is heavy competition for work among the farm labourers in Palampur. 
C. Due to this high competition, people agree to work for lower wages to ensure they get work at all.
Q37. Explain the negative effects of the continuous use of chemical fertilizers on land and the natural resource base.  (3 marks)
Ans: 
A. Chemical fertilisers lead to the loss of soil fertility in the long run. 
B. These chemicals may not be retained in the soil for long; they can escape from the soil and pollute groundwater, rivers, and lakes. 
C. Chemical fertilizers can also kill bacteria and other micro-organisms in the soil, making the soil less fertile than ever before.
Q38. What is Human Capital Formation? Discuss why investment in Human Capital is considered superior to investment in physical capital.  (5 marks)
Ans: 
i. Definition:
Human capital formation occurs when the existing human resource is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy. ii. Investment: This development is achieved through investment in human capital in the form of education, training, and medical care. 
iii. Superiority: Human capital is considered superior because the human resource can make use of land and capital. 
iv. Limitation of Physical Capital: Land and physical capital cannot become useful on their own, they require human knowledge and enterprise to be productive. 
v. Return: Investment in human capital yields a return in the form of higher incomes earned because of the higher productivity and greater contribution to society by educated or healthier persons.
The document Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 2 (Solutions) is a part of the Class 9 Course Social Studies (SST) Class 9.
All you need of Class 9 at this link: Class 9

FAQs on Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 2 (Solutions)

1. What are the main topics covered in the Class 9 Half-Yearly Social Studies exam?
Ans. The Class 9 Half-Yearly Social Studies exam typically covers various topics such as history, geography, political science, and economics. Students should be familiar with significant historical events, geographical concepts, government structures, and basic economic principles relevant to their curriculum.
2. How can students effectively prepare for the Half-Yearly Social Studies exam?
Ans. To prepare effectively, students should review their class notes, read the prescribed textbooks, and complete practice papers. Group study sessions can also be beneficial. Additionally, creating summary notes and using flashcards for important terms and dates can aid in retention.
3. What types of questions can be expected in the Half-Yearly Social Studies exam?
Ans. The exam may include a mix of multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, and essay-type questions. Students should be prepared to analyze maps, interpret data, and express their understanding of various concepts in detailed explanations.
4. Are there any specific study materials recommended for Class 9 Social Studies?
Ans. Yes, students are recommended to use their NCERT textbooks as primary study materials. Supplementing these with reference books, online resources, and previous years' question papers can provide additional practice and insight into the exam pattern.
5. How important is time management during the Half-Yearly Social Studies exam?
Ans. Time management is crucial during the exam. Students should allocate time to each section based on the marks assigned and ensure they leave time for review. Practicing with timed mock tests can help improve their pacing and efficiency during the actual exam.
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