Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. Which direct tax did all members of the Third Estate have to pay to the state under the Old Regime in France? (1 mark) 
(a) Tithe 
(b) Corvée 
(c) Taille 
(d) Livre

Q2. Who was the leader of the most successful political club, the Jacobin Club, during the French Revolution?  (1 mark)
(a) Louis XVI 
(b) Mirabeau 
(c) Abbé Sieyès 
(d) Maximilian Robespierre

Q3. The word 'Tryst' in Nehru's famous speech 'Tryst with Destiny' means.  (1 mark) 
(a) A solemn agreement
(b) A meeting or meeting place that has been agreed upon 
(c) Betrayal of one's country 
(d) The struggle for survival

Q4. What was the main objective of the Constitution drafted by the National Assembly in 1791? (1 mark)
(a) To abolish the monarchy entirely. 
(b) To limit the powers of the monarch. 
(c) To declare France a republic. 
(d) To abolish slavery immediately.

Q5. Differentiate between the taxes 'Tithe' and 'Taille' in 18th-century France. (2 marks)

Q6. Explain the fundamental reason why Socialists were against private property by the mid-nineteenth century. (3 marks)

Q7. Describe the working and living conditions of the industrial workers in prominent Russian cities like St Petersburg and Moscow before the 1905 Revolution. (5 marks)

Q8. Read the details regarding women's activities during the French Revolution and answer the questions.  (4 marks) 
​​Most women of the third estate had to work for a living, typically as seamstresses, laundresses, or domestic servants, but they did not have access to education or job training. Their wages were generally lower than those of men. Women were disappointed that the Constitution of 1791 reduced them to passive citizens. In order to discuss and voice their interests, they started political clubs, the most famous of which was the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women. Their main political demands were the right to vote, the right to be elected to the Assembly, and the right to hold political office.
i. Which group of citizens were women reduced to by the Constitution of 1791?
ii. Name the most famous political club founded by women.
iii. List two major political demands made by women's clubs.

Q9. (MAP SKILLS) -  Two places A and B related to the Russian Revolution and its aftermath. (2 Marks)
A. The city where Tsar Louis XVI was publicly executed. 
B. The city/location where the Bolsheviks made peace with Germany in March 1918.

Section B Geography

Q10. The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees is. (1 Mark) 
(a) 8°4' N 
(b) 37°6' N 
(c) 82°30' E 
(d) 97°25' E

Q11. Which peak is the highest in the Western Ghats? (1 Mark) 
(a) Mahendragiri 
(b) Doda Betta 
(c) Kanchenjunga 
(d) Anai Mudi

Q12. Which lake is the largest salt water lake in India and lies in the state of Odisha? (1 Mark) 
(a) Wular Lake 
(b) Pulicat Lake 
(c) Sambhar Lake 
(d) Chilika Lake

Q13. Crescent-shaped sand dunes that cover larger areas in the Indian Desert are known as. (1 Mark) 
(a) Doab 
(b) Alluvium 
(c) Duns 
(d) Barchans

Q14. The Indian Standard Meridian (82°30'E) passes through which location? (1 Mark) 
(a) Kanniyakumari 
(b) Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) 
(c) Arunachal Pradesh 
(d) Delhi

Q15. India is the seventh largest country in the world, succeeding which country in size? (1 Mark) 
(a) Russia 
(b) Canada 
(c) Australia 
(d) Australia

Q16. What is a 'Doab', and what does the name 'Punjab' signify geographically? (2 marks)

Q17. Give an account of the Peninsular Plateau, detailing its rock composition, formation, and its two broad geographical divisions. 
(5 marks)

Q18. Read the analysis of India's physiographic divisions and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​​A detailed analysis of India's diverse physiographic units highlights that each region complements the others, thereby enriching the country's natural resources. The Himalayan mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth. The great Northern Plains are the granaries of the country. The Peninsular Plateau is a storehouse of minerals, which has been crucial in the industrialisation of the country. Lastly, the coastal region and island groups provide vital sites for fishing and port activities.
i. What natural resources are the Himalayan Mountains primarily considered major sources of? 
ii. What is the Peninsular Plateau considered a storehouse of?
iii. How do the Northern Plains and the Coastal Region/Islands contribute to the country?

Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 marks)
I. The island group lying in the Bay of Bengal.
II. The hill range that forms the eastern extension of the Peninsular Plateau in the northeast.
III. The location of the world's highest peak.

Section C Political Science

Q20. In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf issued a 'Legal Framework Order' in 2002 which allowed him to dismiss which assemblies?
(1 Mark) 
(a) Constituent Assembly only 
(b) National and Provincial Assemblies 
(c) National Assembly only 
(d) Military Council only

Q21. The electoral system in Fiji is such that the vote of which group has more value than others? (1 Mark) 
(a) The Indian-Fijian population 
(b) The Indigenous Fijians (c) The Russian minority (d) The Black minority

Q22. In what year was the new national flag of the Republic of South Africa unfurled, marking the end of the apartheid government? 
(1 Mark) 
(a) 1980 
(b) 1964 
(c) 1994 
(d) 2017

Q23. In the Preamble, the term 'Fraternity' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) People have supreme right to make decisions. 
(b) Citizens cannot be discriminated against. 
(c) Head of the state is an elected person. 
(d) All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family.

Q24. What is a Republic? Why did the newly formed French Assembly (Convention) declare France a Republic in 1792? (2 marks)

Q25. Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar express anxiety about India entering a "life of contradictions" on January 26, 1950? (2 marks)

Q26. Why is democracy considered a more accountable form of government than a non-democratic one? (3 marks) 

​Q27. Provide four key arguments supporting the view that democracy is the best form of government.  (5 marks) 

Q28. Read the quotations by Gandhi, Ambedkar, and Nehru regarding the future of India and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​​Founding leaders defined India's future through core democratic values. Mahatma Gandhi (1931) desired a Constitution where the poorest feel India is their own, eliminating the curse of untouchability and ensuring women enjoy the same rights as men. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1950) expressed anxiety about India entering a "life of contradictions," having political equality (one man, one vote) but continuing to deny social and economic equality. Jawaharlal Nehru (1947) spoke of keeping a "tryst with destiny," dedicating the nation to the service of the suffering millions, aiming for the ending of poverty, ignorance, disease, and inequality of opportunity.
i. Which common idea related to social justice is shared by all three leaders?
ii. What specific issue did Mahatma Gandhi aim to eliminate from India?
iii. How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar define the core conflict India faced in 1950?

Section D Economics

Q29. What is the age group that constitutes the workforce population according to the definition of unemployment? (1 Mark) 
(a) 1 year to 59 years 
(b) 15 years to 59 years 
(c) 15 years to 65 years 
(d) 18 years to 60 years

Q30. Investment in human capital (through education and medical care) yields a return in the future in the form of. (1 Mark) 
(a) Vicious cycle 
(b) Physical capital formation 
(c) Higher earnings and greater contribution to society 
(d) Lower unemployment rates

Q31. The Green Revolution was most successful in significantly increasing the yield of which crop in India? (1 Mark) 
(a) Pulses 
(b) Rice 
(c) Wheat 
(d) Sugarcane

Q32. How do medium and large farmers typically obtain capital for farming? (1 Mark) 
(a) By borrowing from small farmers. 
(b) By taking loans from the bank at high interest rates. 
(c) By using their own savings from previous farming activities. 
(d) By relying on government subsidies.

Q33. Which component of Physical Capital is categorized as 'fixed capital'? (1 Mark) 
(a) Raw Materials 
(b) Money in Hand 
(c) Raw Sugarcane 
(d) Tools, Machines, Buildings

Q34. Which requirement for the production of goods and services is considered a natural resource? (1 Mark) 
(a) Land 
(b) Labour 
(c) Physical Capital 
(d) Human Capital

Q35. Differentiate between market activities and non-market activities based on remuneration and the sector they include. (4 marks) 

Q36. Explain why education contributes not only to an individual's growth (like Sakal) but also to the growth of society.  (3 marks) 

Q37. Why do families cultivating small plots of land (less than 2 hectares) struggle to make a living, even with improved irrigation and modern methods? (3 marks) 

Q38. Explain the two major ways of increasing production from a fixed piece of land, detailing the inputs required for each. (5 marks) 

​​You can access the solutions to this Half Yearly here .