Half Yearly Class 9 Social Studies Set 3 (Solutions)

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The French Revolution, Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution, India Size and Location, Physical Features of India, What is democracy? Why is democracy?, Constitutional Design, The story of Palampur, People as Resource.

Section A History

Q1. Which direct tax did all members of the Third Estate have to pay to the state under the Old Regime in France? (1 mark) 
(a) Tithe 
(b) Corvée 
(c) Taille 
(d) Livre

Ans: (c) 
Sol: All members of the third estate had to pay a direct tax, called Taille, to the state.

Q2. Who was the leader of the most successful political club, the Jacobin Club, during the French Revolution?  (1 mark)
(a) Louis XVI 
(b) Mirabeau 
(c) Abbé Sieyès 
(d) Maximilian Robespierre

Ans: (d) 
Sol: The leader of the Jacobin club was Maximilian Robespierre.

Q3. The word 'Tryst' in Nehru's famous speech 'Tryst with Destiny' means.  (1 mark) 
(a) A solemn agreement
(b) A meeting or meeting place that has been agreed upon 
(c) Betrayal of one's country 
(d) The struggle for survival

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The glossary defines a Tryst as a meeting or meeting place that has been agreed upon.

Q4. What was the main objective of the Constitution drafted by the National Assembly in 1791? (1 mark)
(a) To abolish the monarchy entirely. 
(b) To limit the powers of the monarch. 
(c) To declare France a republic. 
(d) To abolish slavery immediately.

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The main object of the Constitution of 1791 was to limit the powers of the monarch by separating power into the legislature, executive, and judiciary.

Q5. Differentiate between the taxes 'Tithe' and 'Taille' in 18th-century France. (2 marks)

Ans: Tithe was an ecclesiastical tax levied by the Church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce. Taille was a direct tax that all members of the Third Estate had to pay directly to the state.

Q6. Explain the fundamental reason why Socialists were against private property by the mid-nineteenth century. (3 marks)

Ans:
A. Socialists saw private property as the root of all social ills of the time. 
B. They argued that individuals owned the property that gave employment, but the propertied owners were concerned only with personal gain.
C. They were not concerned with the welfare of those who made the property productive, thus leading to exploitation.

Q7. Describe the working and living conditions of the industrial workers in prominent Russian cities like St Petersburg and Moscow before the 1905 Revolution. (5 marks)

Ans: 
i. Working Hours: In craft units and small workshops, the working day was sometimes 15 hours, compared with 10 or 12 hours in factories. 
ii. Wages and Gender Inequality: Women made up 31 per cent of the factory labour force by 1914 but were paid less than men (between half and three-quarters of a man's wage). 
iii. Supervision: While the government supervised large factories to ensure minimum wages and limited hours of work, factory inspectors could not prevent rules from being broken. 
iv. Accommodation: Accommodation varied from rooms to dormitories. In dormitories, workers often slept in shifts and could not keep their families with them. 
v. Divisions: Workers were a divided social group, separated by skill (e.g., metalworkers considered themselves 'aristocrats') and their links to their original villages.

Q8. Read the details regarding women's activities during the French Revolution and answer the questions.  (4 marks) 
​Most women of the third estate had to work for a living, typically as seamstresses, laundresses, or domestic servants, but they did not have access to education or job training. Their wages were generally lower than those of men. Women were disappointed that the Constitution of 1791 reduced them to passive citizens. In order to discuss and voice their interests, they started political clubs, the most famous of which was the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women. Their main political demands were the right to vote, the right to be elected to the Assembly, and the right to hold political office.
i. Which group of citizens were women reduced to by the Constitution of 1791?
ii. Name the most famous political club founded by women.
iii. List two major political demands made by women's clubs.

Ans: 
i. Women were reduced to passive citizens by the Constitution of 1791. 
ii. The most famous club was the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women. 
iii. Their two major political demands were the right to vote and the right to be elected to the Assembly and hold political office.

Q9. (MAP SKILLS) -  Two places A and B related to the Russian Revolution and its aftermath. (2 Marks)
A. The city where Tsar Louis XVI was publicly executed. 
B. The city/location where the Bolsheviks made peace with Germany in March 1918.

Ans: 
A. Place de la Concorde (or Paris/Petrograd for general location) 
B. Brest Litovsk

Section B Geography

Q10. The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees is. (1 Mark) 
(a) 8°4' N 
(b) 37°6' N 
(c) 82°30' E 
(d) 97°25' E

Ans: (a) 
Sol: The Indian mainland extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N.

Q11. Which peak is the highest in the Western Ghats? (1 Mark) 
(a) Mahendragiri 
(b) Doda Betta 
(c) Kanchenjunga 
(d) Anai Mudi

Ans: (d) 
Sol: The highest peaks of the Western Ghats include the Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and the Doda Betta (2,637 metres).

Q12. Which lake is the largest salt water lake in India and lies in the state of Odisha? (1 Mark) 
(a) Wular Lake 
(b) Pulicat Lake 
(c) Sambhar Lake 
(d) Chilika Lake

Ans: (d) 
Sol: The Chilika Lake is the largest salt water lake in India and lies in the state of Odisha, to the south of the Mahanadi delta.

Q13. Crescent-shaped sand dunes that cover larger areas in the Indian Desert are known as. (1 Mark) 
(a) Doab 
(b) Alluvium 
(c) Duns 
(d) Barchans

Ans: (d) 
Sol: Barchans are crescent-shaped dunes that cover larger areas in the Indian Desert.

Q14. The Indian Standard Meridian (82°30'E) passes through which location? (1 Mark) 
(a) Kanniyakumari 
(b) Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) 
(c) Arunachal Pradesh 
(d) Delhi

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The Standard Meridian of India (82°30'E) passes through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh).

Q15. India is the seventh largest country in the world, succeeding which country in size? (1 Mark) 
(a) Russia 
(b) Canada 
(c) Australia 
(d) Australia

Ans: (d) 
Sol: From the list of seven largest countries (Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India), India is the seventh largest, succeeding Australia.

Q16. What is a 'Doab', and what does the name 'Punjab' signify geographically? (2 marks)

Ans: 
A. 'Doab' is made up of two words-'do' meaning two and 'ab' meaning water, referring to the land between two rivers. 
B. 'Punjab' is similarly made up of two words-'Punj' meaning five and 'ab' meaning water, signifying the region of five rivers.

Q17. Give an account of the Peninsular Plateau, detailing its rock composition, formation, and its two broad geographical divisions. 
(5 marks)

Ans: 
i. Composition and Formation: The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land, making it a part of the oldest landmass. 
ii. Geographical Divisions: The plateau consists of two broad divisions: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau. 
iii. Central Highlands: This part lies north of the Narmada river, covering a major area of the Malwa plateau. The flow of its draining rivers (Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken) is from southwest to northeast. 
iv. Deccan Plateau: This is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada. It is flanked by the Satpura range in the north and is higher in the west, sloping gently eastwards. 
v. Northeast Extension: An extension of the Plateau is also visible in the northeast, locally known as the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau and North Cachar Hills, separated from the Chotanagpur Plateau by a fault.

Q18. Read the analysis of India's physiographic divisions and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​A detailed analysis of India's diverse physiographic units highlights that each region complements the others, thereby enriching the country's natural resources. The Himalayan mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth. The great Northern Plains are the granaries of the country. The Peninsular Plateau is a storehouse of minerals, which has been crucial in the industrialisation of the country. Lastly, the coastal region and island groups provide vital sites for fishing and port activities.
i. What natural resources are the Himalayan Mountains primarily considered major sources of? 
ii. What is the Peninsular Plateau considered a storehouse of?
iii. How do the Northern Plains and the Coastal Region/Islands contribute to the country?

Ans: 
i. The mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth. 
ii. The plateau is a storehouse of minerals. 
iii. The Northern Plains are the granaries of the country. The coastal region and island groups provide sites for fishing and port activities.

Q19. (MAP SKILLS) -  On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. (3 marks)
I. The island group lying in the Bay of Bengal.
II. The hill range that forms the eastern extension of the Peninsular Plateau in the northeast.
III. The location of the world's highest peak.

Ans: 
I. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 
II. Garo Hills (or Khasi or Jaintia Hills) 
III. Mt. Everest (Located in Nepal)

Section C Political Science

Q20. In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf issued a 'Legal Framework Order' in 2002 which allowed him to dismiss which assemblies?
(1 Mark) 
(a) Constituent Assembly only 
(b) National and Provincial Assemblies 
(c) National Assembly only 
(d) Military Council only

Ans: (b) 
Sol: According to the Legal Framework Order, the President (Musharraf) can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies.

Q21. The electoral system in Fiji is such that the vote of which group has more value than others? (1 Mark) 
(a) The Indian-Fijian population 
(b) The Indigenous Fijians (c) The Russian minority (d) The Black minority

Ans: (b) 
Sol: In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian-Fijian.

Q22. In what year was the new national flag of the Republic of South Africa unfurled, marking the end of the apartheid government? 
(1 Mark) 
(a) 1980 
(b) 1964 
(c) 1994 
(d) 2017

Ans: (c) 
Sol: The new national flag of the Republic of South Africa was unfurled at the midnight of 26 April 1994.

Q23. In the Preamble, the term 'Fraternity' means: (1 Mark) 
(a) People have supreme right to make decisions. 
(b) Citizens cannot be discriminated against. 
(c) Head of the state is an elected person. 
(d) All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family.

Ans: (d) 
Sol: Fraternity means that all of us should behave as if we are members of the same family and no one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

Q24. What is a Republic? Why did the newly formed French Assembly (Convention) declare France a Republic in 1792? (2 marks)

Ans: A Republic is a form of government where the people elect the head of the government, ensuring there is no hereditary monarchy. France became a Republic when the newly elected assembly, the Convention, abolished the monarchy on September 21, 1792, after the King Louis XVI was held hostage.

Q25. Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar express anxiety about India entering a "life of contradictions" on January 26, 1950? (2 marks)

Ans: 
A. Ambedkar was worried that in politics, India would have equality (one man, one vote, one value). 
B. However, in social and economic life, the existing social structure would continue to deny the principle of one man, one value (inequality).

Q26. Why is democracy considered a more accountable form of government than a non-democratic one? (3 marks) 

Ans: 
A. Democracy requires that the rulers attend to the needs of the people. 
B. A non-democratic government may respond to people's needs only depending on the wishes of the people who rule. 
C. Since rulers in a democracy are elected and subject to constitutional checks, they must answer to the citizens, making it a more accountable form of government.

Q27. Provide four key arguments supporting the view that democracy is the best form of government.  (5 marks) 

Ans:  
i. Accountability: Democracy is better in responding to the needs of the people, making it a more accountable form of government. 
ii. Quality of Decision-Making: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion, which reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions, thus improving decision quality. 
iii. Enhances Dignity: Democracy is based on the principle of political equality, enhancing the dignity of citizens by recognizing that everyone (rich or poor) has the same status. 
iv. Conflict Resolution: Democracy provides the only peaceful solution to dealing with differences and conflicts in a diverse society, as no one is a permanent winner or permanent loser. 
v. Corrects Mistakes: Democracy allows a way of correcting its own mistakes through public discussion, or by changing the rulers, which cannot happen in non-democratic governments. (Any four or five points)

Q28. Read the quotations by Gandhi, Ambedkar, and Nehru regarding the future of India and answer the questions. (4 marks)
​Founding leaders defined India's future through core democratic values. Mahatma Gandhi (1931) desired a Constitution where the poorest feel India is their own, eliminating the curse of untouchability and ensuring women enjoy the same rights as men. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1950) expressed anxiety about India entering a "life of contradictions," having political equality (one man, one vote) but continuing to deny social and economic equality. Jawaharlal Nehru (1947) spoke of keeping a "tryst with destiny," dedicating the nation to the service of the suffering millions, aiming for the ending of poverty, ignorance, disease, and inequality of opportunity.
i. Which common idea related to social justice is shared by all three leaders?
ii. What specific issue did Mahatma Gandhi aim to eliminate from India?
iii. How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar define the core conflict India faced in 1950?

Ans: 
i. The common idea is the elimination of inequality and suffering, or achieving social and economic justice, for the poor and disadvantaged. 
ii. Mahatma Gandhi specifically aimed to eliminate the curse of untouchability or the curse of intoxicating drinks and drugs. 
iii. Ambedkar defined the core conflict as entering a life of contradictions where political equality (one man, one vote) coexisted with social and economic inequality, meaning citizens would continue to deny the principle of one man, one value in economic life.

Section D Economics

Q29. What is the age group that constitutes the workforce population according to the definition of unemployment? (1 Mark) 
(a) 1 year to 59 years 
(b) 15 years to 59 years 
(c) 15 years to 65 years 
(d) 18 years to 60 years

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years.

Q30. Investment in human capital (through education and medical care) yields a return in the future in the form of. (1 Mark) 
(a) Vicious cycle 
(b) Physical capital formation 
(c) Higher earnings and greater contribution to society 
(d) Lower unemployment rates

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Investment in human capital yields a high return in the future in the form of higher earnings and greater contribution to the society.

Q31. The Green Revolution was most successful in significantly increasing the yield of which crop in India? (1 Mark) 
(a) Pulses 
(b) Rice 
(c) Wheat 
(d) Sugarcane

Ans: (c) 
Sol: The Green Revolution introduced HYV seeds for cultivation of wheat and rice, and farmers were rewarded with high yields of wheat.

Q32. How do medium and large farmers typically obtain capital for farming? (1 Mark) 
(a) By borrowing from small farmers. 
(b) By taking loans from the bank at high interest rates. 
(c) By using their own savings from previous farming activities. 
(d) By relying on government subsidies.

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Medium and large farmers have their own savings from farming and use a part of these earnings to arrange for capital for the next season.

Q33. Which component of Physical Capital is categorized as 'fixed capital'? (1 Mark) 
(a) Raw Materials 
(b) Money in Hand 
(c) Raw Sugarcane 
(d) Tools, Machines, Buildings

Ans: (d) 
Sol: Tools, machines, and buildings are called fixed capital because they can be used in production over many years.

Q34. Which requirement for the production of goods and services is considered a natural resource? (1 Mark) 
(a) Land 
(b) Labour 
(c) Physical Capital 
(d) Human Capital

Ans: (a) 
Sol: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, and minerals

Q35. Differentiate between market activities and non-market activities based on remuneration and the sector they include. (4 marks)

Ans: 
i. Market Activities involve remuneration (pay or profit) to anyone who performs the activity. They include the production of goods or services, including government service. 
ii. Non-Market Activities are the production for self-consumption. 
iii. These include the consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets. 
iv. Women's services delivered in the family (like cooking and cleaning) are usually not paid for and thus not recognised in the National Income (non-market activities).

Q36. Explain why education contributes not only to an individual's growth (like Sakal) but also to the growth of society.  (3 marks)

Ans: 
A. Education contributes towards the growth of society by enhancing the national income and cultural richness. 
B. It also increases the efficiency of governance. 
C. It opens new horizons for individuals, provides new aspirations, and develops values of life, making the population a productive asset. 

Q37. Why do families cultivating small plots of land (less than 2 hectares) struggle to make a living, even with improved irrigation and modern methods? (3 marks) 

Ans: 
A. The small plots (e.g., Gobind's sons' 0.75 hectare plots) mean that the total production is small. 
B. After keeping a substantial share for the family's consumption, they have little or no surplus wheat to sell. 
C. This forces them to look for additional work as farm labourers during part of the year to meet their family's needs.

Q38. Explain the two major ways of increasing production from a fixed piece of land, detailing the inputs required for each. (5 marks) 

Ans: 
i. Multiple Cropping: This is the most common way of increasing production, involving growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year (e.g., jowar/bajra, wheat, and potato in Palampur). The feasibility of multiple cropping often relies on a well-developed system of irrigation. 
ii. Modern Farming Methods: This aims for higher yield (crop produced per single season) through specialized inputs. 
iii. Inputs for Modern Methods: This included the introduction of High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of seeds (the Green Revolution). 
iv. Requirement Set: These HYV seeds require a combination of inputs, specifically plenty of water/irrigation, as well as chemical fertilizers and pesticides, to produce the best results. 
v. Capital Requirement: Modern methods require the farmer to start with more cash/capital than traditional methods.