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UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)

Questions (1 - 5)

The following table shows the percentage (%) of population below poverty line in six Indian States A-F for the financial year 2023-24, along with the ratio of males (M) to females (F) below poverty line and above poverty line. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow:

UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)Q.1) If the population of males above the poverty line in State D is 27 lakh, then what is the total population of State D?
[1] 60 lakh
[2] 70 lakh
[3] 80 lakh
[4] 90 lakh
Ans: 4

Q.2) If the total population of State A is 70 lakh, then what is the difference between the population of males below the poverty line and females above the poverty line in the same state?
[1] 18.2 lakh
[2] 16.4 lakh
[3] 20.6 lakh
[4] 19.8 lakh
Ans: 1

Q.3) If the population of State C is 90 lakh, then what is the population of males above the poverty line in the same state?
[1] 42.6 lakh
[2] 35.9 lakh
[3] 37.8 lakh
[4] 34.5 lakh
Ans: 3

Q.4) What is the ratio of the population of females below the poverty line to males above the poverty line in State F?
[1] 2:5
[2] 5:2
[3] 2:3
[4] 3:2
Ans: 1

Q.5) If the ratio of the total populations of State C and State D is 7:4, then what is the ratio of the population of males below the poverty line in State C to females above the poverty line in State D?
[1] 1:2
[2] 2:1
[3] 2:7
[4] 7:2
Ans: 1

Q.6) Identify the correct chronological order of the establishment of the following universities:
A. SNDT Women's University
B. Allahabad University
C. Patna University
D. Calcutta University
E. Punjab University

[1] A,B,C,D,E
[2] B,C,E,D,A
[3] C,D,B,A,E
[4] D,E,B,C,A
Ans: 4

Q.7) Four persons, A, B, C, and D, play a game of cards. A says to B, "If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as C has, and I shall have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice as many as D has." If B and D together have 50 cards, how many cards does A have?
[1] 32
[2] 35
[3] 27
[4] 40
Ans: 4

Q.8) Find the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, 48, ?
[1] 58
[2] 63
[3] 60
[4] 61
Ans: 2

Q.9) If research participants are assessed with a particular questionnaire early in a study, but the researchers change the questions for a later assessment so participants cannot simply repeat answers, what potential threat to internal validity is likely in the study?
[1] Instrumentation
[2] Maturation
[3] Attrition
[4] History
Ans: 1

Q.10) Which of the following were UGC recommendations on quality assurance?
A. Dismantling unviable colleges and universities
B. Creating a parallel accreditation agency for private universities
C. Adoption of total quality management practices
D. Sustaining quality through innovation and creativity
E. Establishment of suitable assessment and accreditation systems

[1] ABC
[2] BCD
[3] CDE
[4] ADE
Ans: 3

Q.11) Identify the correct code on the basis of the following argument:
All actors are athletes.
Some actors are comedians.
Therefore, some comedians are athletes.
Codes:
[1] AII; 1st Figure
[2] AIA; 2nd Figure
[3] AII; 3rd Figure
[4] IAI; 4th Figure
Ans: 3

Q.12) The cost price of an article is 95% of its selling price. Find the percentage of profit or loss.
[1] 5% loss
[2] 5% profit
[3] 5.26% profit
[4] 5.5% loss
Ans: 3

Q.13) Match the following:
UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)[1] A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
[2] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[3] A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
[4] A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Ans: 4

Q.14) Which of the following help in improving communication?
A. Non-consideration of others' views
B. Intelligible encoding
C. Clarifying the purpose of the message
D. Identification of receivers' needs
E. Ignoring receivers' emotions

[1] ABC
[2] BCD
[3] CDE
[4] ADE
Ans: 2

Q.15) Jar test is done to determine which of the following water quality parameters?
[1] pH
[2] BOD
[3] COD
[4] Turbidity
Ans: 4

Q.16) Match the following:
A. Paparazzi
B. Parody
C. Radical reading
D. Soap opera
I. Making fun of someone in an indirect way
II. Audience rejection of meanings, values, and opinions of authors
III. Serial drama genre
IV. Freelance photographers who stalk celebrities

[1] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[2] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Ans: 4

Q.17) Which of the following exemplifies an extension of a term that is empty?
[1] Pen
[2] Book
[3] God
[4] Bag
Ans: 3

Q.18) Arrange the following measures for a given dataset in increasing order:
A. 7th decile
B. Median
C. 3rd quartile
D. 78th percentile

[1] ABCD
[2] BACD
[3] CADB
[4] DBCA
Ans: 2

Q.19) In a line organization, the best-suited communication flow is:
[1] Horizontal
[2] Upward
[3] Downward
[4] Gestural
Ans: 3

Q.20) With reference to digital communication, which of the following are examples of simplex type of communication?
A. Radio broadcasting
B. Television broadcasting
C. Computer to printer communication
D. Keyboard to computer communication
E. Walkie-Talkie communication

[1] E
[2] ABCD
[3] ACE
[4] DE
Ans: 2

Q.21) Read the passage and pick the correct claims: "Therefore is the name of it (the tower) called Babel; because the Lord did there confound the language of all the earth"
A. It is an argument
B. It is an explanation
C. "Therefore" is a conclusion indicator in the context
D. In the context, 'because' indicates that what follows will explain the giving of the name Babel
E. The clause is not a premise

[1] ABC
[2] BDE
[3] BCD
[4] ACE
Ans: 2

Q.22) Which of the following tools are most suitable for creating videos for teaching and learning?
[1] ACD
[2] BC
[3] CE
[4] DE
Ans: 2

Q.23) In the context of cybersecurity, which of the following is a risk of phishing for target users?
[1] Connectivity fault
[2] Data deletion
[3] Fraudulent activity
[4] Power reduction
Ans: 3

Q.24) One of the major barriers in organizational communication is:
[1] Semantic distortion
[2] Effective downward communication
[3] Immediate feedback
[4] Flexible human environment
Ans: 1

Q.25) If (L) represents a number L in base-M number system, then identify the correct ascending order of the following numbers A-D when converted to the decimal number system:
A. (11101.11)2
B. (130.2)4
C. (34.5)8
D. (15.6)16
[1] ADBC
[2] BACD
[3] CADB
[4] DBCA
Ans: 4

Q.26) Direct instruction is best used when teachers do which one of the following?
[1] Assign critical thinking exercises
[2] Teach basic skills and explicit knowledge
[3] Have their students explore numerous pathways to solve a mathematics problem
[4] Encourage their students to refine their creativity in art
Ans: 2

Q.27) Identify the correct statements regarding content analysis:
A. It is a very transparent research method
B. Replications and follow-up studies are not feasible in content analysis
C. It can allow a certain amount of longitudinal analysis with relative ease
D. It can be applied to a wide variety of different kinds of unstructured textual information

[1] ABC
[2] ACD
[3] BCD
[4] ABD
Ans: 2

Q.28) Match the following:
UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)[1] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[2] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Ans: 4

Q.29) The Hunter Commission was the brainchild of:
[1] Lord Curzon
[2] Lord Ripon
[3] Lord Auckland
[4] Lord Dufferin
Ans: 2

Q.30)
UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1]
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[2] A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
[3] A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
[4] A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Ans: 4

Q.31) Arrange the steps of the Team-Pair-Solo strategy in the correct order:
A. Complete the task individually
B. Select a topic
C. Collaborate as a large team on a problem
D. Work on a similar problem in pairs

[1] BCDA
[2] CADB
[3] BCAD
[4] DABC
Ans: 1

Q.32) The Sridhanya Katak University attained celebrity status during the period of:
[1] Sage Nagarjuna
[2] Sage Sankaracharya
[3] Sage Ramanuja
[4] Sage Prabhakara
Ans: 1

Q.33) The correct sequence of profit maximization strategies of media, enlisted by B.L. Ottar, is:
A. Celebrity
B. Spectacle
C. Synergy
D. Planned obsolescence
E. Logic of safety

[1] EABCD
[2] ABCDE
[3] CDEAB
[4] DEABC
Ans: 3

Q.34) Investigation taking place at a specific time and place that focuses on a single question and is not oriented toward general questions refers to:
[1] Universalistic research
[2] Ethological research
[3] Particularistic research
[4] Qualitative research
Ans: 3

Q.35) Which among the following is not a form of fallacy of defective induction?
A. The argument from ignorance
B. Complex question
C. False cause
D. Hasty generalization
E. Begging the question

[1] AC
[2] BE
[3] DE
[4] AB
Ans: 2

Q.36) What is the correct sequence of steps from beginning to end that occurs in a nuclear power plant?
A. Controlled chain reaction
B. Moderation of neutrons
C. Bombardment by neutron
D. Heat release
E. Absorption of neutrons by radioactive nucleus

[1] CEBAD
[2] ABCDE
[3] BCDAE
[4] DECBA
Ans: 1

Q.37) A man is facing North direction. He turns 90 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction and then 135 degrees in the same direction. He then turns 270 degrees in the clockwise direction. Which direction is the man facing now?
[1] North-East
[2] North-West
[3] South-East
[4] South-West
Ans: 1

Q.38) Which among the following is incorrect?
[1] For the Jainas, sabda pramana is reduced to Anumana
[2] For Buddhists, sabda is not an independent Pramana
[3] For Mimamsa, sabda is an independent Pramana
[4] For Vedantists, sabda is a source of valid knowledge
Ans: 1

Q.39) What is the correct chronological order, from older to newer, of following Acts according to their year of enactment?
A. Environment Protection Act
B. Wildlife Protection Act
C. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

[1] BDCA
[2] BDAC
[3] ABCD
[4] ABDC
Ans: 1

Q.40) _____ describes how learners monitor and control their cognitive processes?
[1] Metacognitive Regulation
[2] Cognitive Apprenticeship
[3] Cognitive Load
[4] Convergent Thinking
Ans: 1

Q.41) What is the correct order of steps of Risk Assessment from initial to final?
A. Exposure Assessment
B. Risk Management
C. Hazard Identification
D. Risk Characterization

[1] BDCA
[2] BDAC
[3] CADB
[4] CABD
Ans: 3

Q.42) Which of the following is the first completely open source mobile operating system developed by Google, meaning that it is free to any cell phone mobile network?
[1] Symbian
[2] iOS
[3] Android
[4] Windows
Ans: 3

Q.43) If in a certain coded language:
"KASHMIR" is coded as "JZRGLHQ". then how "LUCKNOW? shall be coded in that language?

[1] KTBJMNV
[2] MVDLOPX
[3] WONKCUL
[4] KCULWON
Ans: 1

Q.44) Which of the following are true about Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs)?
A. They are potent carcinogenic air pollutants
B. They are formed when a minimum of 10 (ten) benzene rings are fused together
C. Formaldehyde is an example of PAH
D. They are formed due to combustion of fossil fuels

[1] AB
[2] BC
[3] CD
[4] AD
Ans: 4

Q.45) Which of the following are objectives of Inquiry Training Model?
A. To develop scientific process skills
B. To develop among students the strategies for creative inquiry
C. To develop among students the ability to tolerate ambiguity
D. To develop the spirit of creativity among students

[1] ABCD
[2] BC
[3] AD
[4] ABD
Ans: 1

Question (46 - 50)

Although coal was used as a fuel for centuries, not until the 18th century did it begin to replace wood as the dominant fuel in the Western world. Since then, coal has had a significant impact on human history. It was coal that powered the steam engine and supplied the energy for the Industrial Revolution, which began in the mid-18th century. Today utility companies use coal to produce electricity, and heavy industries use coal for steel production. Coal consumption has surged in recent years, particularly in the rapidly growing economies of China and India, both of which have large coal reserves.

Coal is found in different grades, largely as a result of the varying amounts of heat and pressure it was exposed to during formation. Coal exposed to high heat and pressure during its formation is drier, is more compact (and therefore harder), and has higher heating value (that is, a higher energy density).

Q.46) Which of the following about coal is incorrect?
[1] Coal has had a significant impact on human history
[2] Coal was used to power the steam engine
[3] Coal is found in different grades
[4] Utility companies do not use coal to produce electricity
Ans: 4

Q.47) Coal consumption in recent years has:
[1] Increased
[2] Decreased
[3] Remained the same
[4] Vanished
Ans: 1

Q.48) The Industrial Revolution started in the:
[1] 20th Century
[2] 12th Century
[3] Mid-18th Century
[4] Mid-19th Century
Ans: 3

Q.49) China and India are:
[1] Slowly growing economies
[2] Rapidly growing economies
[3] Developed economies
[4] Stagnant economies
Ans: 2

Q.50) Coal began to replace wood as a dominant fuel in the Western world:
[1] Recently
[2] In the sixteenth century
[3] In the mid-nineteenth century
[4] In the eighteenth century
Ans: 4

The document UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II) is a part of the UGC NET Course UGC NET Mock Test Series 2026.
All you need of UGC NET at this link: UGC NET

FAQs on UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper I (6 January 2025 Shift - II)

1. What is the UGC NET exam and what is its purpose?
Ans. The UGC NET exam, conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), is a national-level eligibility test in India. Its primary purpose is to determine the eligibility of candidates for the position of Assistant Professor and for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) in Indian universities and colleges. The exam assesses candidates' knowledge in various subjects, ensuring that only qualified individuals are allowed to pursue teaching and research careers in higher education.
2. What subjects are covered in the UGC NET exam?
Ans. The UGC NET exam covers a wide range of subjects, divided into two papers: Paper I and Paper II. Paper I is common for all candidates and assesses general knowledge, teaching aptitude, research methodology, and comprehension skills. Paper II focuses on specific subjects chosen by the candidates from a list of over 80 subjects, including disciplines like English, Sociology, Political Science, and more. Candidates must prepare for both papers to qualify for the exam.
3. How is the UGC NET exam structured in terms of format and scoring?
Ans. The UGC NET exam consists of two papers, each conducted in a multiple-choice format. Paper I contains 50 questions, while Paper II has 100 questions. Each question carries 2 marks, and there is a negative marking of 1 mark for each incorrect answer in both papers. The total score is calculated based on the correct answers, and candidates need to achieve a minimum qualifying score to be eligible for the JRF or Assistant Professor positions.
4. What is the eligibility criteria for appearing in the UGC NET exam?
Ans. To be eligible for the UGC NET exam, candidates must have completed a Master's degree or an equivalent qualification from a recognized university with a minimum aggregate of 55% marks (50% for reserved categories). There is no upper age limit for the Assistant Professor position; however, candidates applying for the JRF must be below a specified age limit, which is periodically updated by the NTA. Additionally, candidates must ensure they choose a subject that aligns with their educational background.
5. How can candidates prepare effectively for the UGC NET exam?
Ans. Candidates can prepare effectively for the UGC NET exam by following a structured study plan. They should start by understanding the exam syllabus and pattern. Utilizing standard textbooks, online resources, and previous years' question papers can enhance preparation. Joining coaching classes or online courses can provide additional guidance. Regular practice through mock tests and quizzes will help candidates manage time and improve their confidence. Lastly, staying updated with current affairs related to their chosen subjects is crucial for success in the exam.
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