Final Exam Paper Science: Set 3

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions
The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections: A, B, C, and D.
All questions are compulsory.
Section A: Questions 1 to 15 are multiple-choice questions, carrying 1 mark each. Select the most appropriate response.
Section B: Questions 16 to 22 are short-answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Section C: Questions 23 to 31 are short-answer questions, carrying 4 marks each.
Section D: Questions 32 to 34 are short-answer questions, carrying 5 marks each.

Syllabus: The Final Exam Question Paper is framed from the following chapters: Temperature and its Measurement, A Journey through States of Water, Methods of Separation in Everyday Life, Living Creatures: Exploring their Characteristics, Nature's Treasures, Beyond Earth.

Section A

Q1. What is the typical temperature range of a laboratory thermometer? (1 mark)
(a) 35 °C to 42 °C
(b) 0 °C to 100 °C
(c) -10 °C to 110 °C
(d) -5 °C to 50 °C

Q2. The difference in temperature between two bodies tells us: (1 mark)
(a) Their distance
(b) How hot a body is compared to another
(c) Their mass
(d) Their volume

Q3. Which state of water is characterized by retaining its shape irrespective of the container? (1 mark)
(a) Water vapour
(b) Liquid state
(c) Gaseous state
(d) Solid state (Ice)

Q4. What is the process of beating stalks to separate grains called? (1 mark)
(a) Winnowing
(b) Threshing
(c) Sieving
(d) Churning

Q5. Why is reproduction necessary for living beings? (1 mark)
(a) For growth
(b) For movement
(c) For cooling
(d) For the continuity of life

Q6. Which stage immediately follows the egg stage in the mosquito life cycle? (1 mark)
(a) Pupa
(b) Adult
(c) Larva
(d) Froglet

Q7. Resources created by human beings, such as electric bulbs or furniture, are called: (1 mark)
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Natural resources
(d) Human-made resources

Q8. What gas is produced when fossil fuels are burnt, contributing to air pollution? (1 mark)
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Argon

Q9. Which object is Earth's nearest neighbor in space? (1 mark)
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) The Moon
(d) The Sun

Q10. Which star is the star closest to us? (1 mark)
(a) Sirius
(b) Proxima Centauri
(c) Pole Star
(d) The Sun

Q11. The temperature of a person's body is influenced by factors such as age, time of day, and: (1 mark)
(a) Mass
(b) Activity level
(c) Location (city/village)
(d) Diet

Q12. The change in the state of water from water to ice (liquid to solid) is done by: (1 mark)
(a) Supplying heat
(b) Increasing pressure
(c) Placing it in a cold environment
(d) Stirring it quickly

Q13. Which separation method would you use to separate a mixture of mustard oil and water? (1 mark)
(a) Filtration
(b) Decantation
(c) Sieving
(d) Evaporation

Q14. Any thing or any event that prompts living beings to respond is called a: (1 mark)
(a) Response
(b) Movement
(c) Stimulus
(d) Excretion

Q15. In comparison to Earth, the inner four planets are: (1 mark)
(a) Much larger
(b) Made mostly of gases
(c) Smaller in size
(d) Surrounded by rings

Section B

Q16. List two necessary precautions that should be taken while using a laboratory thermometer to measure the temperature of water. (2 mark)

Q17. Based on their behavior, describe one difference between water (liquid state) and water vapour (gaseous state). (2 mark)

Q18. Define Magnetic Separation. Give one example of where this process is used commercially. (2 mark)

Q19. How are living beings differentiated from non-living things? List three essential characteristics shared by all living beings. (2 mark)

Q20. Why is water conservation important, given that water covers about two-thirds of Earth's surface? Name two methods for conserving water. (2 mark)

Q21. Explain why the Sun appears much bigger and brighter than other stars in the night sky. (2 mark)

Q22. Explain why spraying kerosene oil on stagnant water helps disrupt the mosquito life cycle. (2 mark)

Section C

Q23. By referring to Activity 7.4, explain how one determines the smallest value (least count) that a specific laboratory thermometer can read. (4 mark)

Q24. Describe the properties of the three states of water (Solid, Liquid, Gas) focusing on their shape, ability to flow, and volume. (4 mark)

Q25. Describe the method of Sieving. Explain why it is used and provide a practical example from daily life. (4 mark)

Q26. Define "Stimulus" and provide three detailed examples of how living beings (humans or plants) respond to different stimuli. (4 mark)

Q27. Differentiate between Renewable and Non-renewable resources. Give two examples of each type with reasons for their classification. (4 mark)

Q28. Describe how an observer in the Northern Hemisphere should locate the constellation Orion and the bright star Sirius in the night sky. (4 mark)

Q29. Describe how plants exhibit movement, giving three specific examples. Define how Movement and Growth are considered essential characteristics of plants. (4 mark)

Q30. Describe the Evaporation process in detail, its application in separating common salt from seawater, and how one can confirm the presence of salt left behind. (4 mark)

Q31. Differentiate between Clinical and Laboratory Thermometers by highlighting their intended use, typical temperature range, and the liquids commonly contained within them. (4 mark)

Section D

Q32. Describe the life cycle of a frog, specifically explaining the physical adaptations and habitat changes that occur between the tadpole and adult stages. (5 mark)

Q33. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable natural resources. Provide two examples of each and explain why fossil fuels fall into the non-renewable category. (5 mark)

Q34. Explain how an observer can locate the Pole Star in the night sky using the Big Dipper constellation. Why has the Pole Star been significant for travellers throughout history? (5 mark)