Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers (Solutions) Set- 1

Table of Contents
1. Section A
2. Section B
3. Section C
4. Section D
5. Section E
6. Section F
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Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

• This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Question paper is divided into SIX sections - Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
• Section A - question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
• Section B - question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Section C - question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
• Section D - question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer(LA) type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
• Section E - question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
• In Section F - question number 37 is Map skill based question with two parts - 37(i) History (2 marks) and 37(ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe, Nationalism in India, Resources and Development, Forest and Wildlife Resources, Water Resources, Power Sharing, Federalism, Development, Sectors of the Indian Economy.

Section A 

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. The World Bank uses which criterion to classify different countries? (1 Mark)
(a) Literacy rate
(b) Per capita income
(c) Health status
(d) Population

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The World Bank classifies countries on the basis of per capita income in its World Development Reports.

Q2. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource? (1 Mark)
(a) Crude oil
(b) Coal
(c) Groundwater
(d) Iron ore

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Groundwater is a renewable resource as it is replenished by rainfall.

Q3. Resources are classified as Biotic or Abiotic on the basis of their: (1 Mark)
(a) Origin
(b) Exhaustibility
(c) Ownership
(d) Status of development

Ans: (a) 
Sol: Biotic and abiotic classification is based on the origin of resources.

Q4. The Tertiary sector is also known as the: (1 Mark)
(a) Industrial sector
(b) Agricultural sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Public sector

Ans: (c) 
Sol: The tertiary sector provides services such as transport, banking, and trade.

Q5. What was the central idea of Mahatma Gandhi's 'Satyagraha'? (1 Mark)
(a) Use of physical force
(b) Revenge
(c) Power of truth
(d) Aggression

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and non-violence.

Q6. Who was the architect of German unification? (1 Mark)
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Otto von Bismarck
(c) William I
(d) Napoleon

Ans: (b)
Sol: Otto von Bismarck led the unification of Germany through diplomacy and war.

Q7. Federalism is a system of government in which power is divided between: (1 Mark)
(a) The King and subjects
(b) Central authority and constituent units
(c) Two individuals
(d) Only local bodies

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Federalism divides power between central and state governments.

Q8. Which list in the Indian Constitution includes subjects like 'Defence' and 'Foreign Affairs'? (1 Mark)
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List

Ans: (a) 
Sol: Defence and foreign affairs are subjects of national importance listed in the Union List.

Q9. Majoritarianism was a policy adopted in which country? (1 Mark)
(a) Belgium
(b) India
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) France

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Sri Lanka adopted majoritarian policies favoring the Sinhala community.

Q10. Black soil is also known as: (1 Mark)
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Regur soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Arid soil

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Black soil is commonly called regur or black cotton soil.

Q11. Project Tiger was launched in India in the year: (1 Mark)
(a) 1962
(b) 1980
(c) 1973
(d) 1991

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Project Tiger was launched in 1973 to conserve the tiger population.

Q12. MGNREGA 2005 guarantees how many days of employment in a year? (1 Mark)
(a) 50 days
(b) 150 days
(c) 100 days
(d) 200 days

Ans: (c) 
Sol: MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households.

Q13. In which state do 90 per cent of people in rural areas use ration shops (PDS)? (1 Mark)
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Tamil Nadu has the highest usage of ration shops in rural areas.

Q14. The Human Development Report is published by which organization? (1 Mark)
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) UNDP
(d) UNESCO

Ans: (c) 
Sol: The Human Development Report is published by UNDP.

Q15. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is popularly known as the: (1 Mark)
(a) French Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) Citizen's Code
(d) Revolution Code

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The Civil Code of 1804 is known as the Napoleonic Code.

Q16. New alluvial soil is specifically called: (1 Mark)
(a) Bangar
(b) Kankar
(c) Khadar
(d) Humus

Ans: (c) 
Sol: New alluvial soil deposited by rivers is known as Khadar.

Q17. Power to legislate on 'Residuary' subjects lies with: (1 Mark)
(a) State Governments
(b) Union Government
(c) Local Bodies
(d) High Courts

Ans: (b) 
Sol: The Union Government has the power to legislate on residuary subjects.

Q18. Disguised unemployment is most commonly found in which sector? (1 Mark)
(a) Service sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Agricultural sector
(d) IT sector

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Disguised unemployment is common in agriculture.

Q19. Sacred groves are patches of forest preserved due to: (1 Mark)
(a) Government laws
(b) Tribal beliefs / Nature worship
(c) Industrial needs
(d) Tourism

Ans: (b) 
Sol: Sacred groves are protected due to tribal beliefs and nature worship.

Q20. Vertical division of power is another name for: (1 Mark)
(a) Checks and balances
(b) Community government
(c) Federal division of power
(d) Majoritarianism

Ans: (c) 
Sol: Vertical division of power refers to federal division among different levels of government.

Section B

Very Short Answer Questions

Q21. Define 'Sustainable Development'. (2 Marks)

Ans: Sustainable development means development that takes place without damaging the environment. It ensures that the needs of the present generation are met without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Q22. What are 'Final Goods'? (2 Marks)

Ans: Final goods are goods that reach consumers for direct use, such as biscuits. Their value already includes the value of all intermediate goods used during the production process.

Q23. Mention the powers given to the British government by the Rowlatt Act. (2 Marks)

Ans: The Rowlatt Act gave the British government extensive powers to suppress political activities. It allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for up to two years.

Q24. Explain the concept of 'Community Government' in Belgium. (2 Marks)

Ans: Community Government is a third tier of government elected by people belonging to a particular language community-Dutch, French, or German-speaking. It handles cultural, educational, and language-related matters.

Section C 

Short Answer Questions

Q25. Distinguish between 'Bangar' and 'Khadar' soils. (3 Marks)

Ans: Bangar is old alluvial soil, while Khadar is new alluvial soil. Bangar soil contains more kankar (calcareous deposits) and is less fertile. Khadar soil has finer particles, is renewed annually by floods, and is more fertile.

Q26. Why do different people have different developmental goals? Explain with an example. (3 Marks)

Ans: People have different developmental goals because their life situations and priorities differ. What is beneficial for one person may be harmful to another. For example, an industrialist may support large dams for electricity, while local tribal communities may oppose them due to loss of land and livelihood.

Q27. Describe the three lists of legislative powers in the Indian Constitution. (3 Marks)

Ans: The Union List includes subjects of national importance like defence and banking, on which only the Union Government can legislate. The State List includes subjects of local importance such as police and agriculture, on which State Governments legislate. The Concurrent List includes subjects like education and forests, on which both Union and State Governments can make laws, but Union law prevails in case of conflict.

Q28. Why is the Tertiary sector becoming important in India? Give three reasons. (3 Marks)

Ans: The government must provide basic services such as education, health, and security. Growth in agriculture and industry increases demand for services like transport, storage, and trade. Rising incomes increase demand for services such as tourism, private education, and shopping.

Q29. How did folklore and songs contribute to the making of nationalism in India? (3 Marks)

Ans: Folklore and songs helped create nationalism by reviving pride in India's cultural heritage. Nationalists believed folk traditions reflected the true spirit of the people. Collections of ballads, myths, and folk tales by scholars like Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri strengthened national identity.

Section D

Long Answer Questions

Q30. Describe the measures introduced by French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity. (5 Marks)

Ans: French revolutionaries promoted ideas of la patrie (fatherland) and le citoyen (citizen) to emphasize unity and equal rights. They adopted the tricolour flag to replace the royal standard. The Estates General was renamed the National Assembly and elected by active citizens. New hymns were composed, and oaths were taken in the name of the nation. A centralized administrative system with uniform laws was established, internal customs duties were abolished, and uniform weights and measures were introduced.

Q31. Explain the key features of federalism. (5 Marks)

Ans: Federalism has two or more levels of government. Each level has separate jurisdictions in legislation and taxation. The Constitution guarantees the existence and authority of each tier. Changes to fundamental provisions require mutual consent. The judiciary acts as an umpire in disputes, and each level has clearly defined financial powers.

Q32. What are 'Multi-purpose River Projects'? Discuss their benefits and reasons for opposition. (5 Marks)

Ans: Multi-purpose river projects are large dams built for irrigation, electricity generation, flood control, and water supply. They support agriculture, industry, fish breeding, and power generation. However, they disrupt natural river flow, cause sedimentation, fragment river ecosystems, displace local communities, and submerge vegetation and fertile land.

Q33. Distinguish between the Organised and Unorganised sectors in terms of employment conditions. (5 Marks)

Ans: The organised sector provides regular employment with job security, fixed working hours, paid leave, provident fund, and medical benefits. The unorganised sector consists of small units with irregular, low-paid jobs, no job security, no paid leave, and workers can be dismissed without notice.

Section E 

Case-Based Questions

Q34. Read the text on 'Groundwater in India' and answer the following:
"Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves."
(i) Why is groundwater considered a renewable resource? (1 Mark)
(ii) In which regions of India is groundwater overuse particularly high? (1 Mark) 
(iii) What are the consequences of continued over-exploitation of water? (2 Marks)

Ans: 
(i) Groundwater is considered renewable because it is replenished naturally through the hydrological cycle, mainly by rainfall.
(ii) Groundwater overuse is particularly high in agriculturally prosperous regions like Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh, and in rapidly growing urban areas.
(iii) Continued over-exploitation leads to depletion of water resources, ecological imbalance, and threatens livelihoods and food security.

Q35. Read the following on 'Belgium' and answer the questions:
"The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together."
(i) How many times was the Belgian constitution amended for power-sharing? (1 Mark)
(ii) Mention one innovative element of the Belgian model regarding the Central Government. (1 Mark)
(iii) Why did French-speaking people in Brussels accept equal representation? (2 Marks)

Ans: 
(i) The Belgian constitution was amended four times.
(ii) The Constitution provides equal representation of Dutch-speaking and French-speaking ministers in the Central Government.
(iii) French-speaking people accepted equal representation because the Dutch-speaking majority had already agreed to share power equally at the central level.

Q36. Read the source on the 'Salt March' and answer the following:
"Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31 January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax."
(i) Why was the demand to abolish the salt tax considered the 'most stirring'? (1 Mark)
(ii) What was the significance of 6 April in the Dandi March? (1 Mark)
(iii) How did the Salt March mark the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement? (2 Marks)

Ans: 
(i) The salt tax was considered most stirring because salt was an essential item used by both rich and poor alike.
(ii) On 6 April, Gandhiji reached Dandi and broke the salt law by boiling seawater.
(iii) The Salt March inspired people to peacefully defy British laws, leading to mass violation of the salt law, boycott of foreign goods, and refusal to pay taxes across India.

Section F

Map Skill-Based Question

Q37. (i) History: On the given political map of India, locate and label the following: (2 Marks)
(a) The place where Gandhiji violated the salt law.
(b) The site of the first peasant satyagraha movement in 1917.

(ii) Geography: On the same map, locate and label: (3 Marks)
(a) Hirakud Dam.
(b) A major region of Black soil.
(c) A major region of Alluvial soil.

Ans: 
(i) (a) Dandi, Gujarat
(b) Champaran, Bihar
(ii) (a) Hirakud Dam - Odisha
(b) Black soil region - Maharashtra / Gujarat
(c) Alluvial soil region - Northern Plains