CBSE Class 10  >  Class 10 Notes  >  Half Yearly and Final Exam Papers  >  Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers Set- 2

Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers Set- 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  • This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  • Question paper is divided into SIX sections - Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
  • Section A - question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Section B - question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
  • Section C - question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
  • Section D - question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer(LA) type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
  • Section E - question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
  • In Section F - question number 37 is Map skill based question with two parts - 37(i) History (2 marks) and 37(ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe, Nationalism in India, Resources and Development, Forest and Wildlife Resources, Water Resources, Power Sharing, Federalism, Development, Sectors of the Indian Economy.

Section A

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Crude oil extracted from the earth is an example of which type of resource? (1 Mark)

(a) Renewable

(b) Biotic

(c) Non-renewable

(d) Flow resource

Q2. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report? (1 Mark)

(a) World Bank

(b) UNDP

(c) IMF

(d) NSO

Q3. Resources are classified as Renewable or Non-renewable on the basis of: (1 Mark)

(a) Origin

(b) Exhaustibility

(c) Ownership

(d) Status of development

Q4. Activities like dairy, fishing, and forestry fall under which sector? (1 Mark)

(a) Secondary

(b) Tertiary

(c) Primary

(d) Service

Q5. GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is the total value of ________ produced in a year. (1 Mark)

(a) All goods

(b) Final goods and services

(c) Intermediate goods

(d) Raw materials

Q6. In which year did the Vienna Peace Settlement take place after Napoleon's fall? (1 Mark)

(a) 1789

(b) 1804

(c) 1815

(d) 1848

Q7. Which of the following is an example of a 'coming together' federation? (1 Mark)

(a) India

(b) Belgium

(c) USA

(d) Spain

Q8. In India, 'Forests' and 'Education' are subjects included in the: (1 Mark)

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(c) Concurrent List

(d) Residuary List

Q9. What was the special problem regarding Brussels in Belgium? (1 Mark)

(a) It was too small

(b) Dutch were a majority in country but minority in capital

(c) No one spoke French

(d) It was ruled by a King

Q10. Which soil is ideal for growing cotton? (1 Mark)

(a) Alluvial soil

(b) Red soil

(c) Black soil

(d) Arid soil

Q11. Corbett National Park is a tiger reserve located in which state? (1 Mark)

(a) West Bengal

(b) Kerala

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Assam

Q12. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in: (1 Mark)

(a) 2004

(b) 2005

(c) 2010

(d) 2015

Q13. What does 'Life Expectancy at birth' denote? (1 Mark)

(a) Years of schooling

(b) Average expected length of life

(c) Literacy level

(d) Family income

Q14. Napoleon's administrative reforms were aimed at making the system more: (1 Mark)

(a) Democratic

(b) Rational and efficient

(c) Religious

(d) Expensive

Q15. On which day did the Jallianwalla Bagh incident take place? (1 Mark)

(a) 13 April 1919

(b) 6 April 1919

(c) 10 April 1919

(d) 5 March 1931

Q16. In which state is terrace cultivation most common to restrict soil erosion? (1 Mark)

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Rajasthan

Q17. The public sector is primarily guided by the motive of: (1 Mark)

(a) Earning profits

(b) Public welfare and services

(c) Private wealth

(d) Exploitation

Q18. The Swaraj Flag designed by Gandhiji in 1921 had which symbol in the center? (1 Mark)

(a) Tricolour

(b) Spinning wheel

(c) Lotus

(d) Lion

Q19. Power sharing among legislature, executive, and judiciary is called: (1 Mark)

(a) Vertical distribution

(b) Horizontal distribution

(c) Majoritarianism

(d) Federalism

Q20. Which state passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management (JFM)? (1 Mark)

(a) Bihar

(b) Odisha

(c) Gujarat

(d) Kerala

Section B

Very Short Questions

Q21. What is meant by the idea of 'Satyagraha'? (2 Marks)

Q22. Define 'Jurisdiction'. (2 Marks)

Q23. What is 'Biodiversity'? (2 Marks)

Q24. Distinguish between the Public and Private sectors on the basis of ownership. (2 Marks)

Section C

Short Answer Questions

Q25. Mention the limitations of using 'Average Income' for comparing countries. (3 Marks)

Q26. How did the Non-Cooperation Movement affect the Indian economy in the cities? (3 Marks)

Q27. Explain the major step taken toward decentralization in India in 1992. (3 Marks)

Q28. Why is there an urgent need for water conservation and management in India? (3 Marks)

Q29. Why is 'Human Capital' considered the most important requirement for production? (3 Marks)

Section D

Long Answer Questions

Q30. Explain the various forms of power-sharing in modern democracies with examples. (5 Marks)

Q31. Describe the different types of forests classified by the Indian government for conservation. (5 Marks)

Q32. How did the First World War create a new economic situation in India? (5 Marks)

Q33. What is 'Resource Planning'? Explain the three complex steps involved in it in India. (5 Marks)

Section E Case-Based Questions

Q34. Read the text on 'Resource Definitions' and answer:

Resources are not simply things found in nature. A resource is anything in our environment that can satisfy human needs, but only when people have the technology, money, and cultural acceptance to use it. For example, coal was not a resource until humans discovered machines that could use it as fuel.

So, the process of converting natural substances into resources involves interaction between nature, human beings, technology and institutions. Nature provides raw material, technology helps in using it, and institutions organise its production and distribution.

Earlier, resources were thought to be free gifts of nature, but now we understand that humans play an important role in identifying, developing and managing resources.

However, the indiscriminate and careless use of resources - such as over-mining, deforestation and industrial pollution - has resulted in serious global problems like global warming, ozone depletion, land degradation and environmental pollution. This has created a global ecological crisis, reminding us that resources must be used wisely and sustainably.

(i) What does the process of transformation of things in nature involve? (1 Mark)

(ii) Why are resources not considered 'free gifts of nature'? (1 Mark)

(iii) Why has indiscriminate use of resources led to a global crisis? (2)

Q35. Read the case of 'Sri Lanka' and answer the questions:

Sri Lanka became an independent nation in 1948. The majority community in the country were the Sinhalese, who mainly followed Buddhism. The Tamil-speaking people formed a minority group, including Sri Lankan Tamils (living there for centuries) and Indian Tamils (brought by the British as plantation workers).

The Sinhalese political leaders wanted to assert dominance in government, using their majority. In 1956, they passed laws declaring Sinhala as the only official language, and promoted Buddhism as the state religion.

These policies denied equal status to Tamil people in language, education and jobs. The Tamil community began to feel alienated and discriminated against. Their peaceful demands for equality and power-sharing were ignored.

Gradually, tension increased and led to violent conflicts and a long civil war, which lasted for many years. This example shows how ignoring the rights of minorities can threaten national unity and democracy.

(i) Which language was recognized as the only official language of Sri Lanka in 1956? (1 Mark)

(ii) What was the result of the government's majoritarian policies? (1 Mark)

(iii) What were the main demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils? (2 Marks)

Q36. Read the text on the 'Gudem Hills Movement' and answer:

In the early 1920s, a strong tribal movement developed in the Gudem Hills region of Andhra Pradesh. The local tribal people depended on forests for grazing cattle, collecting fuelwood, hunting and small farming.

The British colonial government passed forest laws that restricted these rights. Large forest areas were declared reserved, and tribals were banned from using forest land. This badly affected their livelihood and angered them.

During this time, Alluri Sitaram Raju, a charismatic young leader, emerged. The tribal people believed he possessed spiritual and magical powers, such as predicting the future and being invincible. He travelled widely across tribal villages, explaining to people the meaning of the Non-Cooperation Movement started by Gandhiji.

Raju admired Gandhi and encouraged people to wear khadi and give up alcohol, but he did not agree with Gandhi's idea of non-violence. He believed that the British could only be driven out through armed struggle. Therefore, the Gudem rebels attacked police stations and carried out guerrilla warfare against the colonial government.

This movement became an important tribal resistance against British rule.

(i) Why were the hill people of Gudem enraged with the colonial government? (1 Mark)

(ii) Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju and what unique claim did he make? (1 Mark)

(iii) How did Raju relate to Mahatma Gandhi's principles? (2 Marks)


Section F

Map Skill-Based Question

Q37. (i) History: On the given political map of India, locate and label: (2 Marks)

(a) The state where the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre occurred (Amritsar, Punjab).

(b) The place where Gandhiji organized a satyagraha for cotton mill workers (Ahmedabad, Gujarat).

(ii) Geography: On the same map, locate and label: (3 Marks)

(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam (Punjab/Himachal).

(b) A major region showing Laterite soil (Kerala/Karnataka).

(c) A major region showing Red and Yellow soil (Odisha/Chhattisgarh).

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The document Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers Set- 2 is a part of the Class 10 Course Half Yearly and Final Exam Papers for Class 10.
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FAQs on Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers Set- 2

1. What are the key components of the Class 10 Social Studies Half Yearly Exam Paper?
Ans. The Class 10 Social Studies Half Yearly Exam Paper typically consists of multiple sections including Section A, which contains multiple choice questions, and additional sections, likely covering various topics in Social Studies such as history, geography, political science, and economics. Each section is designed to test different skills and knowledge areas relevant to the curriculum.
2. How can students prepare effectively for the Class 10 Social Studies exam?
Ans. Students can prepare effectively by reviewing their class notes, studying textbooks thoroughly, practising previous years' question papers, and participating in group studies. Additionally, understanding key concepts, terms, and historical events is crucial, as is staying updated on any changes to the exam pattern or syllabus laid out by the educational board.
3. What types of questions can be expected in the Multiple Choice section of the exam?
Ans. The Multiple Choice section usually includes questions that test students' knowledge of significant historical events, geographical concepts, political systems, and economic principles. Questions may require students to select the correct answer from a list of options based on their understanding of the material covered in class.
4. Why is revision important before the exam, and what methods can be used for effective revision?
Ans. Revision is important as it reinforces learning and helps students retain information. Effective revision methods include summarising notes, creating flashcards for key terms, practising past exam questions, and engaging in discussions with peers. This process assists in identifying areas where further study is needed and boosts confidence before the exam.
5. What is the significance of understanding historical timelines in Social Studies?
Ans. Understanding historical timelines is significant as it allows students to comprehend the chronological order of events, the relationships between different historical occurrences, and their impact on contemporary society. This knowledge helps in developing critical thinking skills and provides context for understanding current events and social structures.
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