CBSE Class 10  >  Class 10 Notes  >  Half Yearly and Final Exam Papers  >  Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers (Solutions) Set- 2

Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers (Solutions) Set- 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  • This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  • Question paper is divided into SIX sections - Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
  • Section A - question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Section B - question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
  • Section C - question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
  • Section D - question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer(LA) type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
  • Section E - question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
  • In Section F - question number 37 is Map skill based question with two parts - 37(i) History (2 marks) and 37(ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.

Syllabus: The half-yearly question paper is framed from the following chapters: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe, Nationalism in India, Resources and Development, Forest and Wildlife Resources, Water Resources, Power Sharing, Federalism, Development, Sectors of the Indian Economy.

Section A 

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Crude oil extracted from the earth is an example of which type of resource? (1 Mark)

(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Non-renewable
(d) Flow resource

Ans: (c)
Sol: Crude oil is non-renewable because it has a fixed stock on Earth and will get exhausted after years of use as it cannot be replenished.

Q2. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report? (1 Mark)

(a) World Bank
(b) UNDP
(c) IMF
(d) NSO

Ans: (b)
Sol: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the HDR, using health, education, and income indicators.

Q3. Resources are classified as Renewable or Non-renewable on the basis of: (1 Mark)

(a) Origin
(b) Exhaustibility
(c) Ownership
(d) Status of development

Ans: (b)
Sol: Exhaustibility determines whether a resource can be replenished (Renewable) or will run out (Non-renewable).

Q4. Activities like dairy, fishing, and forestry fall under which sector? (1 Mark)

(a) Secondary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) Service

Ans: (c)
Sol: The Primary sector involves producing goods by directly exploiting natural resources.

Q5. GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is the total value of ________ produced in a year. (1 Mark)

(a) All goods
(b) Final goods and services
(c) Intermediate goods
(d) Raw materials

Ans: (b)
Sol: GDP is the sum of the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year.

Q6. In which year did the Vienna Peace Settlement take place after Napoleon's fall? (1 Mark)

(a) 1789
(b) 1804
(c) 1815
(d) 1848

Ans: (c)
Sol: In 1815, representatives of European powers who defeated Napoleon met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.

Q7. Which of the following is an example of a 'coming together' federation? (1 Mark)

(a) India
(b) Belgium
(c) USA
(d) Spain

Ans: (c)
Sol: Independent states like the USA and Switzerland came together on their own to form a bigger unit to increase security.

Q8. In India, 'Forests' and 'Education' are subjects included in the: (1 Mark)

(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List

Ans: (c)
Sol: The Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments.

Q9. What was the special problem regarding Brussels in Belgium? (1 Mark)

(a) It was too small
(b) Dutch were a majority in country but minority in capital
(c) No one spoke French
(d) It was ruled by a King

Ans: (b)
Sol: In Belgium, Dutch-speakers were 59% of the country, but in Brussels, they were only 20%, creating an acute tension.

Q10. Which soil is ideal for growing cotton? (1 Mark)

(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Arid soil

Ans: (c)
Sol: Black soil is typical of the Deccan trap region and is well-known for its capacity to grow cotton.

Q11. Corbett National Park is a tiger reserve located in which state? (1 Mark)

(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Assam

Ans: (c)
Sol: Corbett National Park is one of India's major tiger reserves located in Uttarakhand.

Q12. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in: (1 Mark)

(a) 2004
(b) 2005
(c) 2010
(d) 2015

Ans: (b)
Sol: MGNREGA 2005 was implemented to guarantee the 'Right to Work' in rural areas.

Q13. What does 'Life Expectancy at birth' denote? (1 Mark)

(a) Years of schooling
(b) Average expected length of life
(c) Literacy level
(d) Family income

Ans: (b)
Sol: It denotes the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.

Q14. Napoleon's administrative reforms were aimed at making the system more: (1 Mark)

(a) Democratic
(b) Rational and efficient
(c) Religious
(d) Expensive

Ans: (b)
Sol: Napoleon incorporated revolutionary principles in administration to make the whole system more rational.

Q15. On which day did the Jallianwalla Bagh incident take place? (1 Mark)

(a) 13 April 1919
(b) 6 April 1919
(c) 10 April 1919
(d) 5 March 1931

Ans: (a)
Sol: On 13 April 1919, a large crowd gathered at Jallianwalla Bagh for a protest and Baisakhi fair when General Dyer opened fire.

Q16. In which state is terrace cultivation most common to restrict soil erosion? (1 Mark)

(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan

Ans: (c)
Sol: Western and central Himalayas (like Uttarakhand) have well-developed terrace farming to control soil wash-off on slopes.

Q17. The public sector is primarily guided by the motive of: (1 Mark)

(a) Earning profits
(b) Public welfare and services
(c) Private wealth
(d) Exploitation

Ans: (b)
Sol: Unlike the private sector, the public sector (government-owned) focuses on providing services and welfare rather than just profits.

Q18. The Swaraj Flag designed by Gandhiji in 1921 had which symbol in the center? (1 Mark)

(a) Tricolour
(b) Spinning wheel
(c) Lotus
(d) Lion

Ans: (b)
Sol: The flag had a spinning wheel in the center, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help.

Q19. Power sharing among legislature, executive, and judiciary is called: (1 Mark)

(a) Vertical distribution
(b) Horizontal distribution
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Federalism

Ans: (b)
Sol: This is horizontal because organs at the same level exercise different powers, creating checks and balances.

Q20. Which state passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management (JFM)? (1 Mark)

(a) Bihar
(b) Odisha
(c) Gujarat
(d) Kerala

Ans: (b)
Sol: The JFM programme formally started in 1988 when Odisha passed the first resolution for it.

Section B

Very Short Answer Questions

Q21. What is meant by the idea of 'Satyagraha'? (2 Marks)

Ans: It is a novel method of mass agitation that emphasizes the power of truth and non-violence. It suggests that if the cause is true, physical force is not necessary to fight an oppressor; instead, one should appeal to their conscience.

Q22. Define 'Jurisdiction'. (2 Marks)

Ans: Jurisdiction is the area over which someone has legal authority. This area can be defined in terms of geographical boundaries or in terms of certain kinds of subjects (like laws or taxes).

Q23. What is 'Biodiversity'? (2 Marks)

Ans: Biodiversity, or Biological Diversity, is the immense richness in wildlife and cultivated species. These species are diverse in form and function but are closely integrated through multiple networks of interdependencies.

Q24. Distinguish between the Public and Private sectors on the basis of ownership. (2 Marks)

Ans: In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and is responsible for delivering services (e.g., Railways). In the private sector, ownership of assets is in the hands of private individuals or companies (e.g., TISCO).

Section C 

Short Answer Questions

Q25. Mention the limitations of using 'Average Income' for comparing countries. (3 Marks)

Ans: 
  • Average income does not show how income is distributed among people.
  • It may hide the gap between rich and poor.
  • Two countries may have the same average income, but in one country most people may be poor while only a few are rich.

Q26. How did the Non-Cooperation Movement affect the Indian economy in the cities? (3 Marks)

Ans: 
  • People boycotted foreign goods, cloth, and liquor shops.
  • Imports of foreign cloth reduced drastically, almost to half between 1921-1922.
  • Indian textile mills and handloom industries grew as people started using swadeshi goods.

Q27. Explain the major step taken toward decentralization in India in 1992. (3 Marks)

Ans: 
  • A Constitutional Amendment was passed to strengthen local self-government.
  • Regular elections for local bodies were made compulsory.
  • One-third seats were reserved for women and State Election Commissions were set up.

Q28. Why is there an urgent need for water conservation and management in India? (3 Marks)

Ans: 
  • Water is being over-used and wasted, leading to shortage.
  • It is needed to ensure food security, livelihoods and development.
  • Misuse of water can cause ecological damage and future crises.

Q29. Why is 'Human Capital' considered the most important requirement for production? (3 Marks)

Ans: 
  • Human capital means the skills, knowledge and abilities of people.
  • It uses and organises other resources like land, labour and capital.
  • Without human effort, no production is possible.

Section D

Long Answer Questions

Q30. Explain the various forms of power-sharing in modern democracies with examples. (5 Marks)

Ans: Power-sharing means dividing power among different groups and institutions so that no one body becomes too powerful. Modern democracies use the following forms of power-sharing:

1. Horizontal Distribution of Power
Power is shared among organs of the government such as the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
Each organ checks the others to prevent misuse of power.
Example: In India, courts can declare government laws unconstitutional.

2. Vertical Division of Power (Federalism)
Power is divided among governments at different levels - Central, State and Local.
Each level has its own powers.
Example: Education and Police are State subjects in India.

3. Power Sharing among Social Groups
Power is also shared among different religious and linguistic communities to give minority groups representation.
Example: Belgium has a 'Community Government' representing Dutch, French and German speakers.

4. Power Sharing among Political Parties and Pressure Groups
Political parties compete in elections and share power through the electoral process.
This ensures that power does not stay with one group permanently.

5. Coalition Governments
When no single party gets a majority, two or more parties join together to form the government and share power.
Example: Many Indian governments have been coalitions.

Thus, power-sharing promotes stability and strengthens democracy.

Q31. Describe the different types of forests classified by the Indian government for conservation. (5 Marks)

Ans: To protect forests and wildlife, the Indian government has classified forests into three main categories:

1. Reserved Forests
These forests are considered most valuable for the conservation of biodiversity. Over half of India's forest area falls under this category.
Activities like grazing and hunting are strictly controlled or banned.

2. Protected Forests
These forests are protected from further destruction but some activities are allowed with permission. They cover about one-third of India's forest area.

3. Unclassed Forests
These are forests and wastelands that are not included in the above two categories. They may belong to the government, communities, or private owners.

Reserved and Protected forests together form Permanent Forest Estates, meaning they are protected for long-term conservation.

Q32. How did the First World War create a new economic situation in India? (5 Marks)

Ans: The First World War (1914-1918) had a deep impact on the Indian economy:

1. Rise in Defence Expenditure: The British increased India's defence spending to support the war. This was financed through war loans and higher taxes.

2. Increase in Taxes and Duties: Customs duties were raised and income tax was introduced for the first time to collect revenue.

3. Sharp Rise in Prices: Between 1913 and 1918, prices almost doubled, making life difficult for common people.

4. Forced Recruitment: Villagers were pressurised to join the army, which created anger and unrest in rural areas.

5. Food Shortages and Epidemic: Crop failures in 1918-19 and 1920-21 caused severe food shortages. At the same time, the influenza epidemic killed lakhs of people.

Thus, the war led to economic hardship and social tension in India.

Q33. What is 'Resource Planning'? Explain the three complex steps involved in it in India. (5 Marks)

Ans: Resource Planning means using natural resources in a balanced and careful manner so that they are available for present and future generations.

The major steps in resource planning in India are:

1. Identification and Inventory of Resources
This involves surveying, mapping and collecting data about the type, quantity and quality of resources in different regions.
For example, land use mapping and mineral surveys.

2. Developing a Planning Structure
A proper planning system is created with trained personnel, technology and institutions so that resources can be used efficiently.

3. Matching Resource Development with National Development Plans
Resource use should support overall development goals such as economic growth, environmental protection and social welfare.

Resource planning is essential for sustainable development.

Section E 

Case-Based Questions

Q34. Read the text on 'Resource Definitions' and answer:

Resources are not simply things found in nature. A resource is anything in our environment that can satisfy human needs, but only when people have the technology, money, and cultural acceptance to use it. For example, coal was not a resource until humans discovered machines that could use it as fuel.

So, the process of converting natural substances into resources involves interaction between nature, human beings, technology and institutions. Nature provides raw material, technology helps in using it, and institutions organise its production and distribution.

Earlier, resources were thought to be free gifts of nature, but now we understand that humans play an important role in identifying, developing and managing resources.

However, the indiscriminate and careless use of resources - such as over-mining, deforestation and industrial pollution - has resulted in serious global problems like global warming, ozone depletion, land degradation and environmental pollution. This has created a global ecological crisis, reminding us that resources must be used wisely and sustainably.

(i) What does the process of transformation of things in nature involve? (1 Mark)

(ii) Why are resources not considered 'free gifts of nature'? (1 Mark)

(iii) Why has indiscriminate use of resources led to a global crisis? (2)

Ans:
(i) An interactive relationship between nature, technology, and institutions.
(ii) Because they are a function of human activities; humans transform available material into resources and use them.
(iii) It has led to global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution, and land degradation, threatening the future of our planet.

Q35. Read the case of 'Sri Lanka' and answer the questions:

Sri Lanka became an independent nation in 1948. The majority community in the country were the Sinhalese, who mainly followed Buddhism. The Tamil-speaking people formed a minority group, including Sri Lankan Tamils (living there for centuries) and Indian Tamils (brought by the British as plantation workers).

The Sinhalese political leaders wanted to assert dominance in government, using their majority. In 1956, they passed laws declaring Sinhala as the only official language, and promoted Buddhism as the state religion.

These policies denied equal status to Tamil people in language, education and jobs. The Tamil community began to feel alienated and discriminated against. Their peaceful demands for equality and power-sharing were ignored.

Gradually, tension increased and led to violent conflicts and a long civil war, which lasted for many years. This example shows how ignoring the rights of minorities can threaten national unity and democracy.

(i) Which language was recognized as the only official language of Sri Lanka in 1956? (1 Mark)

(ii) What was the result of the government's majoritarian policies? (1 Mark)

(iii) What were the main demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils? (2 Marks)

Ans:
(i) Sinhala.
(ii) It increased the feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils and eventually led to a civil war.
(iii) They demanded recognition of Tamil as an official language, regional autonomy, and equal opportunities in education and jobs.

Q36. Read the text on the 'Gudem Hills Movement' and answer:

In the early 1920s, a strong tribal movement developed in the Gudem Hills region of Andhra Pradesh. The local tribal people depended on forests for grazing cattle, collecting fuelwood, hunting and small farming.

The British colonial government passed forest laws that restricted these rights. Large forest areas were declared reserved, and tribals were banned from using forest land. This badly affected their livelihood and angered them.

During this time, Alluri Sitaram Raju, a charismatic young leader, emerged. The tribal people believed he possessed spiritual and magical powers, such as predicting the future and being invincible. He travelled widely across tribal villages, explaining to people the meaning of the Non-Cooperation Movement started by Gandhiji.

Raju admired Gandhi and encouraged people to wear khadi and give up alcohol, but he did not agree with Gandhi's idea of non-violence. He believed that the British could only be driven out through armed struggle. Therefore, the Gudem rebels attacked police stations and carried out guerrilla warfare against the colonial government.

This movement became an important tribal resistance against British rule.

(i) Why were the hill people of Gudem enraged with the colonial government? (1 Mark)

(ii) Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju and what unique claim did he make? (1 Mark)

(iii) How did Raju relate to Mahatma Gandhi's principles? (2 Marks)

Ans:
(i) Because the government closed large forest areas, preventing them from grazing cattle or collecting fuelwood and fruits.
(ii) He was a tribal leader who claimed to have special powers like making correct astrological predictions and surviving bullet shots.
(iii) He was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking, but he disagreed with non-violence, asserting force was needed for liberation.

Section F

Map Skill-Based Question

Q37. (i) History: On the given political map of India, locate and label: (2 Marks)

(a) The state where the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre occurred (Amritsar, Punjab).
(b) The place where Gandhiji organized a satyagraha for cotton mill workers (Ahmedabad, Gujarat).

(ii) Geography: On the same map, locate and label: (3 Marks)

(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam (Punjab/Himachal).
(b) A major region showing Laterite soil (Kerala/Karnataka).
(c) A major region showing Red and Yellow soil (Odisha/Chhattisgarh).

Ans:
(i) (a) Punjab (Amritsar)
(b) Gujarat (Ahmedabad)
(ii) (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam - Punjab/Himachal Pradesh
(b) Laterite soil - Kerala/Karnataka
(c) Red and Yellow soil - Odisha/Chhattisgarh
The document Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers (Solutions) Set- 2 is a part of the Class 10 Course Half Yearly and Final Exam Papers for Class 10.
All you need of Class 10 at this link: Class 10

FAQs on Class 10 Social Studies: Half Yearly Exam Papers (Solutions) Set- 2

1. What topics are generally covered in the Class 10 Social Studies Half Yearly Exam Papers?
Ans. The Class 10 Social Studies Half Yearly Exam Papers typically cover a variety of topics including history, geography, political science, and economics. Key themes often include significant historical events, geographical features and their implications, the structure of government, and basic economic principles.
2. How can students effectively prepare for the Half Yearly Exam in Social Studies?
Ans. Students can effectively prepare by reviewing their class notes, studying textbooks, and practising previous years' exam papers. Creating a study schedule that allocates time for each subject area, participating in group discussions, and making use of flashcards for key terms can also enhance understanding and retention of material.
3. What type of questions can students expect in the Class 10 Social Studies Half Yearly Exam?
Ans. Students can expect a mix of question types including multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, and essay-type questions. These questions will test their understanding of concepts, ability to analyse historical events, and their knowledge of geographical and political contexts.
4. Are there any specific skills that students should focus on developing for the exam?
Ans. Students should focus on developing critical thinking and analytical skills, as these are essential for interpreting historical events and geographical data. Additionally, improving writing skills for structured answers and essays is important, as well as the ability to summarise key points from their studies effectively.
5. How important is time management during the examination?
Ans. Time management is crucial during examinations, as it helps students allocate appropriate time to each question based on its marks. Practicing under timed conditions can help students become more efficient in answering questions and ensure they can complete the exam within the allotted time.
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