NCERT Page Wise MCQs: Evolution

Table of Contents
1. Page No. 110-112 (Origin of Life)
2. Page No. 112-113 (Evolution of Life Forms - A Theory)
3. Page No. 113-116 (What are the Evidences for Evolution?)
4. Page No. 116-118 (What is Adaptive Radiation?)
5. Page No. 118-119 (Biological Evolution)
6. Page No. 119 (Mechanism of Evolution)
7. Page No. 120-121 (Hardy-Weinberg Principle)
8. Page No. 121-124 (A Brief Account of Evolution)
9. Page No. 124-125 (Origin and Evolution of Man)
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Page No. 110-112 (Origin of Life)

Question 1: According to the Big Bang theory, which of the following sequences correctly represents the formation of celestial bodies after the universe expanded?
(a) Galaxies → Stars → Gases condensed under gravitation
(b) Hydrogen and Helium → Gases condensed under gravitation → Galaxies
(c) Stars → Hydrogen and Helium → Galaxies
(d) Gases condensed → Hydrogen and Helium → Stars

Question 2: The early atmosphere of earth consisted of which of the following gases?
(a) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide
(b) Water vapour, Methane, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia
(c) Hydrogen, Helium, Neon
(d) Oxygen, Methane, Hydrogen

Question 3: Match the following regarding early earth conditions:

​(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 4: Who demonstrated through careful experimentation that life comes only from pre-existing life?
(a) Oparin
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Haldane
(d) S.L. Miller

Question 5: S.L. Miller's experiment in 1953 provided evidence for:
(a) Theory of spontaneous generation
(b) Panspermia theory
(c) Chemical evolution
(d) Special creation theory

Question 6: The first cellular forms of life possibly originated about:
(a) 500 million years ago
(b) 1000 million years ago
(c) 2000 million years ago
(d) 4000 million years ago

Page No. 112-113 (Evolution of Life Forms - A Theory)

Question 7: Which theory has three connotations: all species created as such, diversity always the same, and earth is 4000 years old?
(a) Theory of natural selection
(b) Theory of special creation
(c) Theory of chemical evolution
(d) Mutation theory

Question 8: Darwin concluded his theory based on observations made during a sea voyage in which ship?
(a) H.M.S. Victory
(b) H.M.S. Beagle
(c) Endeavour
(d) Santa Maria

Question 9: According to Darwin, fitness ultimately refers to:
(a) Physical strength
(b) Reproductive fitness
(c) Adaptability to climate
(d) Size of the organism

Page No. 113-116 (What are the Evidences for Evolution?)

Question 10: Fossils are best defined as:
(a) Living organisms preserved in museums
(b) Remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks
(c) Ancient species still living today
(d) Extinct animals in zoos

Question 11: The study of fossils in different sedimentary layers to understand geological periods is called:
(a) Embryological evidence
(b) Anatomical evidence
(c) Paleontological evidence
(d) Biochemical evidence

Question 12: Who proposed embryological support for evolution based on observation of vestigial gill slits in vertebrate embryos?
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Heckel
(c) Karl Ernst von Baer
(d) Alfred Wallace

Question 13: The forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and humans showing similar anatomical structure but different functions is an example of:
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Homologous organs
(c) Vestigial organs
(d) Adaptive organs

Question 14: Match the following:

(a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 15: Sweet potato and potato represent which type of structures?
(a) Homologous - both are root modifications
(b) Analogous - root and stem modifications respectively
(c) Homologous - both are stem modifications
(d) Vestigial - non-functional structures

Question 16: In England, before industrialization (1850s), which type of moths were more common?
(a) Dark-winged moths
(b) White-winged moths
(c) Both in equal proportion
(d) Red-winged moths

Question 17: The phenomenon where moths changed their wing color proportion after industrialization due to predation is an example of:
(a) Adaptive radiation
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Natural selection
(d) Mutation theory

Question 18: Lichens can be used as:
(a) Food supplements
(b) Industrial pollution indicators
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Fertilizers

Question 19: The appearance of antibiotic-resistant microbes and herbicide-resistant varieties represents:
(a) Evolution by natural selection over millions of years
(b) Evolution by anthropogenic action
(c) Genetic drift
(d) Founder effect

Page No. 116-118 (What is Adaptive Radiation?)

Question 20: Darwin observed an amazing diversity of small black birds in Galapagos Islands, later called:
(a) Darwin's sparrows
(b) Darwin's finches
(c) Darwin's pigeons
(d) Darwin's crows

Question 21: The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and radiating to other areas is called:
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Parallel evolution

Question 22: Arrange the following in correct sequence of adaptive radiation:
I. Original seed-eating finches
II. Insectivorous finches
III. Vegetarian finches with altered beaks
IV. Evolution on the island
(a) I → IV → II → III
(b) IV → I → II → III
(c) I → II → III → IV
(d) I → IV → III → II

Question 23: Australian marsupials evolved from an ancestral stock into many different forms. This is an example of:
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Adaptive radiation
(c) Genetic drift
(d) Founder effect

Question 24: The phenomenon where placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial appear similar despite different origins represents:
(a) Divergent evolution
(b) Adaptive radiation
(c) Convergent evolution
(d) Homology

Page No. 118-119 (Biological Evolution)

Question 25: According to Darwinian theory, the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to:
(a) Geographical location
(b) Life cycle or life span
(c) Body size
(d) Habitat type

Question 26: A bacterial colony (A) growing on a medium has built-in variation in ability to utilize a feed component. A change in medium composition brings out population (B) that survives. This demonstrates:
(a) Genetic drift
(b) Natural selection based on fitness
(c) Mutation theory
(d) Lamarckism

Question 27: The two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution are:
(a) Mutation and natural selection
(b) Use and disuse of organs and inheritance
(c) Branching descent and natural selection
(d) Genetic drift and gene flow

Question 28: Lamarck's theory of evolution was based on:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Use and disuse of organs
(c) Mutation
(d) Genetic drift

Question 29: Which of the following influenced Darwin's theory of natural selection?
(a) Work of Gregor Mendel on genetics
(b) Work of Thomas Malthus on populations
(c) Work of Hugo de Vries on mutations
(d) Work of Lamarck on inheritance

Page No. 119 (Mechanism of Evolution)

Question 30: Hugo de Vries proposed that evolution is caused by:
(a) Small directional variations
(b) Natural selection of minor variations
(c) Large sudden mutations (saltation)
(d) Use and disuse of organs

Question 31: Compare the following statements:
Statement I: Mutations are random and directionless.
Statement II: Darwinian variations are small and directional.
(a) Both statements are correct
(b) Both statements are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct

Page No. 120-121 (Hardy-Weinberg Principle)

Question 32: The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that:
(a) Allele frequencies change from generation to generation
(b) Allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation
(c) Only dominant alleles survive
(d) Recessive alleles disappear over time

Question 33: In Hardy-Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, the term 2pq represents:
(a) Homozygous dominant individuals
(b) Homozygous recessive individuals
(c) Heterozygous individuals
(d) Total population

Question 34: Match the following factors affecting Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 35: When accidentally a few individuals are dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated population, the effect is called:
(a) Bottle neck effect
(b) Founder effect
(c) Gene flow
(d) Genetic recombination

Page No. 121-124 (A Brief Account of Evolution)

Question 36: Natural selection can lead to which of the following types of changes?
I. Stabilization
II. Directional change
III. Disruption
IV. Random change
(a) I, II, III only
(b) I, II, IV only
(c) II, III, IV only
(d) I, III, IV only

Question 37: The first cellular forms of life appeared on earth about:
(a) 500 million years ago
(b) 1000 million years ago
(c) 2000 million years ago
(d) 4000 million years ago

Question 38: Some early cells had the ability to release O₂. This reaction was similar to:
(a) Dark reaction of photosynthesis
(b) Light reaction of photosynthesis
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Fermentation

Question 39: Arrange the following events in chronological order:
I. Invertebrates became active
II. First cellular forms appeared
III. Jawless fish evolved
IV. Plants invaded land
(a) II → I → III → IV
(b) I → II → IV → III
(c) II → III → I → IV
(d) IV → I → II → III

Question 40: Coelacanth is significant because it represents:
(a) First mammal
(b) Living fossil of lobe-finned fish
(c) First reptile
(d) First amphibian

Question 41: The first organisms that invaded land were:
(a) Amphibians
(b) Reptiles
(c) Plants
(d) Insects

Question 42: Fish with stout and strong fins that could move on land evolved into:
(a) Reptiles
(b) Amphibians
(c) Mammals
(d) Birds

Question 43: The advantage reptiles had over amphibians was:
(a) Better locomotion
(b) Thick-shelled eggs that don't dry up
(c) Larger body size
(d) Better vision

Question 44: Tyrannosaurus rex was characterized by:
(a) Height of 10 feet with small teeth
(b) Height of 20 feet with huge dagger-like teeth
(c) Height of 30 feet with no teeth
(d) Height of 15 feet with grinding teeth

Question 45: The dinosaurs disappeared from earth about:
(a) 165 million years ago
(b) 100 million years ago
(c) 65 million years ago
(d) 30 million years ago

Question 46: The first mammals were characterized by:
(a) Large size like elephants
(b) Small size like shrews
(c) Medium size like dogs
(d) Huge size like dinosaurs

Question 47: Which characteristic gave mammals an advantage over reptiles?
(a) Larger body size
(b) Better camouflage
(c) Viviparous nature and protection of unborn young
(d) Ability to fly

Page No. 124-125 (Origin and Evolution of Man)

Question 48: Pouched mammals of Australia survived due to:
(a) Better adaptation
(b) Continental drift and lack of competition
(c) Larger size
(d) Better reproductive rate

Question 49: Match the following primates with their characteristics:

​(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 50: Arrange the following in chronological order of human evolution:
I. Homo erectus
II. Homo habilis
III. Australopithecines
IV. Neanderthal man
(a) III → II → I → IV
(b) II → III → IV → I
(c) I → II → III → IV
(d) IV → III → II → I

Question 51: The brain capacity of Neanderthal man was:
(a) 900 cc
(b) 1100 cc
(c) 1400 cc
(d) 1600 cc

Question 52: Which human ancestor used hides to protect their body and buried their dead?
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Neanderthal man
(d) Australopithecines

Question 53: Modern Homo sapiens arose during:
(a) Ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago
(b) Warm period 200,000 years ago
(c) Glacial period 500,000 years ago
(d) Tropical period 30,000 years ago

Question 54: Pre-historic cave art developed about:
(a) 50,000 years ago
(b) 30,000 years ago
(c) 18,000 years ago
(d) 5,000 years ago

Question 55: Agriculture and human settlements started around:
(a) 50,000 years back
(b) 30,000 years back
(c) 20,000 years back
(d) 10,000 years back