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31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 Free MCQ Practice


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: 31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 (25 Questions)

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Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 23 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 25

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31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 1

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:      [NEET 2025]
A. A mass of proliferating cell 
B. Rapid growth of cells 
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue 
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 1

  • Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to the properties of cells that are involved in the formation of neoplasms or tumors.
  • Neoplastic or tumor cells grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues. As these cells actively divide and grow they also starve the normal cells by competing for vital nutrients.
  • Cells sloughed from such tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever they get lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there.
    • A. A mass of proliferating cells: Neoplastic cells form abnormal masses due to their unregulated growth and proliferation.
    • B. Rapid growth of cells: Neoplastic cells exhibit rapid and uncontrolled growth, which is one of the hallmarks of cancer.
    • C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue: Neoplastic cells often have the ability to invade and damage surrounding tissues, leading to metastasis.
    • D. Those confined to original location: This characteristic refers to benign tumors, which are not usually invasive and remain localized. However, this is not a defining characteristic of all neoplastic cells, particularly malignant ones.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 2

Which are correct:       [NEET 2025]
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. 
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. 
C. α interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. 
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. 
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 2

  • Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) detect cancers of internal organs (A): CT and MRI are advanced imaging technologies used to visualize internal structures of the body. They are highly effective in detecting tumors and abnormalities within internal organs.
  • α-interferon activates the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the tumor (C): α-interferon is a type of cytokine that boosts the immune system, enabling it to better target and destroy cancer cells.

Incorrect statements:

  • Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells): Incorrect because chemotherapeutic drugs are designed to target and kill rapidly dividing cancer cells, although they can sometimes affect non-cancerous cells as well.
  • Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers: Incorrect because biological response modifiers are different types of therapies like α-interferon, used to enhance the body's immune response, not chemotherapeutic drugs.
  • In the case of leukemia, blood cell counts are decreased: Incorrect because in leukemia, there is generally an abnormal increase in white blood cell counts, not a decrease.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 3

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:      [NEET 2025]
A. thymus 
B. bone marrow 
C. spleen 
D. lymph nodes 
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 3

  • Spleen (C): The spleen filters blood and is a site where lymphocytes interact with blood-borne antigens. It plays a crucial role in immune responses to pathogens circulating in the bloodstream.
  • Lymph Nodes (D): Lymph nodes are distributed throughout the body and filter lymph. They trap antigens from lymphatic fluid and allow interaction between lymphocytes and antigens, activating adaptive immune responses.
  • Peyer’s Patches (E): Peyer’s patches are specialized mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues in the small intestine. They monitor intestinal contents for antigens and are essential for immune responses in the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).

Incorrect Options:

  • Thymus (A): The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ responsible for the maturation of T cells. 
  • Bone Marrow (B): The bone marrow is another primary lymphoid organ responsible for the development and maturation of B cells.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 4

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?      []NEET 2025]

Detailed Solution: Question 4

  • Immunity refers to the ability of the body to resist harmful microorganisms or toxins and protect against diseases.
  • There are two main types of immunity in the human body: innate immunity and acquired immunity.
    • Innate immunity is present from birth and provides non-specific defense mechanisms against pathogens.
    • Acquired immunity develops during an individual's lifetime and is specific to particular pathogens.
  • Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against infections and is present at the time of birth.
  • It does not target specific pathogens; instead, it provides a general defense against all harmful microorganisms.
  • Components:
    • Physical barriers such as skin and mucous membranes prevent the entry of pathogens.
    • Physiological barriers include acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent microbial growth.
    • Cellular components such as certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes and natural killer (type of lymphocytes) in the blood as well as macrophages in tissues can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
    • Cytokine barriers: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection. 

Other Options:

  • Acquired Immunity:
    • This type of immunity develops after exposure to specific pathogens.
    • It involves the production of antibodies and memory cells, making it pathogen-specific.
    • It is characterised by memory.
  • Cell-Mediated Immunity:
    • This is a type of acquired immunity where T-cells (a type of white blood cell) play a central role in defending against intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and some bacteria.
  • Humoral Immunity:
    • This is another type of acquired immunity where B-cells produce antibodies to target specific pathogens. Like cell-mediated immunity, it is specific and develops after exposure to pathogens

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 5

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.       [NEET 2025]

Detailed Solution: Question 5

  • Option 1: "Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains" is correct. Each antibody molecule comprises two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.
  • Option 2: "The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds" is correct. Disulfide bonds between the chains provide structural integrity to the antibody molecule.
  • Option 3: "Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules" is incorrect. The antigen binding site is located at the N-terminal region where the variable regions are present.
  • Option 4: "Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules" is correct. The constant regions are situated at the C-terminal ends and are involved in effector functions of antibodies.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 6

Match List I with List II :       (NEET 2024)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Detailed Solution: Question 6

To correctly match the items in List I with List II, we need to understand each term and its relationship:
Common Cold is primarily caused by Rhinoviruses. Hence, A is linked with III.
Haemozoin is a byproduct of the digestion of blood by parasites such as Plasmodium (which causes malaria). Therefore, B corresponds with I.
Widal test is a diagnostic test for Typhoid fever, caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi. Thus, C matches with II.
Allergy can be triggered by many allergens, including Dust Mites, which are a common cause of respiratory and dermatological allergies. Consequently, D aligns with IV.
Based on this, the matching should be:
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Therefore, the correct answer is: Option C: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 7

Match List I with List II :       (NEET 2024)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Detailed Solution: Question 7

To solve this matching problem, we need to identify which plant or application each substance in List I is correctly associated with in List II.

List I (Substances) and List II (their sources or uses):
Cocaine - Cocaine is derived from the coca plant, known scientifically as Erythroxylum. This matches with III in List II.
Heroin - Heroin is derived from the opium poppy, Papaver somniferum. This corresponds to IV in List II.
Morphine - Like heroin, Morphine is also derived from the opium poppy, Papaver somniferum. However, morphine is also directly associated with its use as a sedative in surgery, making I a valid association for its usage.
Marijuana - Marijuana is derived from Cannabis sativa, which corresponds to II in List II.

With this information:

A (Cocaine) matches with III (from Erythroxylum).
B (Heroin) matches with IV (Papaver somniferum).
C (Morphine) as an effective sedative in surgery matches with I.
D (Marijuana) matches with II (Cannabis sativa).

The correct matching based on the provided options is: Option D: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
This option correctly matches the substance with their respective sources or primary uses.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 8

Given below are two statements : 

Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. 

Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (NEET 2024)

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ responsible for producing all blood cells, including lymphocytes. The thymus, located near the heart and beneath the breastbone, is essential for the development of T-lymphocytes. Here are some key points regarding these organs:

  • The bone marrow produces all types of blood cells.
  • The thymus is larger at birth but shrinks with age.
  • Both organs create micro-environments for T-lymphocyte maturation.

Additionally, the spleen and lymph nodes play significant roles:

  • The spleen filters blood and stores lymphocytes and phagocytes.
  • Lymph nodes trap microorganisms and activate lymphocytes for immune responses.

In summary, both statements about the bone marrow and thymus are correct, as they are crucial for the production and maturation of lymphocytes.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 9

Match List I with List II:     (NEET 2024)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

Detailed Solution: Question 9

To correctly match List I (Diseases) with List II (Pathogen Types), we need to understand the causative agents for each disease listed in List I.

Details for each disease:

Typhoid: This is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi. Hence, it matches with "Bacteria".
Leishmaniasis: This disease is caused by parasitic protozoans of the genus Leishmania. Therefore, it corresponds to "Protozoa".
Ringworm: Despite its name, ringworm is not caused by a worm. It’s a fungal infection on the skin, caused by various types of fungi. So, Ringworm should be associated with "Fungus".
Filariasis: Also known as lymphatic filariasis, this condition is caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea. Thus, it matches with "Nematode".

With this understanding:
A should be paired with IV (Bacteria).
B should be paired with III (Protozoa).
C should be paired with I (Fungus).
D should be paired with II (Nematode).

Corresponding to the options provided:

Option A: A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV - Incorrect
Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II - Correct!
Option C: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II - Incorrect
Option D: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I - Incorrect

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 10

Match List I with List II.      (NEET 2023)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Option (a) is the correct answer because: 

  • Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails.It is caused by various species of dermatophyte fungi, including Trichophyton, Microsporum and  Epidermophyton.
  • Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by several species of thread-like nematode worms (filarial worms). The most common filarial worms causing the disease include Wuchereria bancrofti. It is a  causative agent of lymphatic filariasis, a type of filariasis that affects the lymphatic system.
  • Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease caused by Plasmodium parasites.
  • Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, and it can be caused by various infectious agents, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microorganisms. Haemophilus influenzae is indeed one of the bacteria that can cause pneumonia, especially in certain populations, like children and older adults.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 11

Match List I with List II.      (NEET 2023)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 11

  • Heroin belongs to the category of opioids and it is a depressant that slows down body functions.
  • Marijuana is known for its effect on the cardiovascular system of the body.
  • Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
  • Morphine is used is a sedative and painkiller.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 12

 In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?       (NEET 2023)

Detailed Solution: Question 12

HIV, or the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, primarily infects CD4+ T cells, which are a type of T cell. In the context of the options given, TH cells, or T helper cells, are a subset of CD4+ T cells.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 13

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.     (NEET 2022)

Detailed Solution: Question 13

There are two main types of immunity in human body:
1. Innate immunity is the non-specific immunity present at the time of birth. This works on physical, physiological, cytological and chemical barriers.
2. Acquired immunity is the adaptive or specific immunity which a person develops during his/her lifetime. This works by B-cell and T-cells of the body.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 14

Given below are two statements:     (NEET 2022)

Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognises its own cells as foreign bodies. 

Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

Detailed Solution: Question 14

  • Option (c) is the correct answer as autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognises its own cells as foreign bodies. Sometimes, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self cells.
  • Rheumatoid arthritis is an example where. This statement is incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the joints (attacks self cells ,synovial membrane), which are part of the body's own tissues. So, the body is indeed attacking its own cells in the case of RA.

So Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 15

Which of the following reasons is mainly responsible for graft rejection in transplantation of organs?  (NEET 2022 Phase 2)

Detailed Solution: Question 15

  • Option (1) is the correct answer as the body is able to differentiate between ‘self’ and ‘non-self’ and the cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
  • Option (2) is incorrect as body of higher vertebrates have the ability to differentiate foreign organisms from self cells.
  • Option (4) is incorrect as the autoimmune response occur when the body’s immune system fails to recognize ‘self’ from ‘non-self’ and starts destroying the body’s own cells.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 16

Match List - I with List - II :    (NEET 2022 Phase 2)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Detailed Solution: Question 16

  • Option (a) is the correct answer because cellular barriers include NK cells, macrophages (monocytes) and neutrophils (PMNL).
  • Cytokine barriers include interferons.
  • Physical barriers include mucus membranes and skin.
  • Physiological barriers include HCl in gastric juice, saliva and tears etc.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 17

Match List-I with List-II     [2021]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 17

  • Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs.
  • Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large intestine of humans which causes amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery).
  • Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease is called elephantiasis or filariasis.
  • Many fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for ringworms which is one of the most common infectious diseases in man, appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp are the main symptoms of the disease.

Hence, the correct option is D.

NCERT Reference: Topic “8.1 COMMON DISEASES IN HUMANS” of chapter 8 of NCERT.

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 18

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity:  [2020]

Detailed Solution: Question 18

  • Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
  • Foetus receiving some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta during pregnancy is an example of passive immunity.
  • Active immunity is the immunity in which when a  host is exposed to antigens either living or dead, antibodies are produced in the host body.
  • In passive immunity, readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents.

Hence, the correct option is A.

Topic in NCERT: Active and Passive Immunity

Line in NCERT: "Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 19

The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the human body is:              (2020)

Detailed Solution: Question 19

  • The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is sporozoites that are formed as a result of sexual reproduction in the gut of the vector female Anopheles mosquito.
  • These sporozoites then migrate to the salivary glands of the insect to infect the next human host.

Hence, the correct option is D.
NCERT Reference: Page no. 147 of topic “8.1 COMMON DISEASES IN HUMANS” of chapter 8.

Topic in NCERT: Life Cycle of Plasmodium

Line in NCERT: "Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 20

Which of the following immune response is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?   [2019]

Detailed Solution: Question 20

  • Transplantation of tissue/organ often fails due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body therefore, tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graft/transplant.
  • When the immune system recognises the protein in the transplanted tissue or organ as foreign, it initiates cellular immunity. As a result of this, there is a rejection of transplanted organs.
  • Graft rejection is due to a cell-mediated immune response. Cell-mediated immunity enables the body to differentiate between self and non-self.
  • To suppress the immune response during transplantation, histocompatibility antigen and immunosuppressants play an important role.

Hence, the correct option is A.

Topic in NCERT: Cell-mediated immune response or cell-mediated immunity (CMI)

Line in NCERT: "The body is able to differentiate 'self' and 'nonself and the cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 21

Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and confirmatory test for typhoid.    (2019)

Detailed Solution: Question 21

  • Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi. It is a Gram-negative bacterium.
  • Typhoid fever can be confirmed by the Widal test, which is based on an antigen-antibody reaction.
  • Plasmodium vivax causes malaria and Streptococcus pneumoniae is the causative agent of pneumonia. 
  • Anthrone test is used for carbohydrate quantification.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Topic in NCERT: PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS AND DISEASES

Line in NCERT: "Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human beings." "Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 22

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish between self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to _________. [2016]

Detailed Solution: Question 22

  • Autoimmunity is a disorder of the body’s defence mechanism in which an immune response is elicited against its own tissues, which are thereby damaged or destroyed.
  • Autoimmunity may be caused due to genetic or environmental factors.

Hence, the correct option is C.
NCERT Reference: Page no. 153 of topic “8.2.6 Auto Immunity” of chapter 8 of NCERT.

Topic in NCERT: Auto Immunity

Line in NCERT: "due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells. This results in damage to the body and is called auto-immune disease."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 23

HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying: [2015 RS]

Detailed Solution: Question 23

  • After infection, HIV starts to destroy the T cells (T-helper lymphocytes). T cells are very important for the immune system.
  • In the early stage of infection, a decline in numbers of T cells is observed.
  • When the virus enters the host cell, reverse transcriptase, which is virally encoded, converts the RNA into DNA.
  • The DNA of the virus is integrated into the DNA of cells with the help of integrase, and thus replication begins. This is identified by a reduction in the amount of helper T cells compared to normal helper T cells.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Topic in NCERT: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

Line in NCERT: "Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (T), replicates and produce progeny viruses."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 24

Which one of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk? [2015 RS]

Detailed Solution: Question 24

  • IgA is found in the body’s external secretion, such as milk and colostrum.
  • Colostrum contains high levels of lgA, which gives passive immunity to the child.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Topic in NCERT: Active and Passive Immunity

Line in NCERT: "The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant."

31 Years NEET Previous Year Questions: Health & Disease - 1 - Question 25

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below? [2014]
I need help with Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from  the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

  • The given image shows the flowers of the Datura plant. Datura is a psychedelic plant. It contains tropane alkaloids which can cause hallucinations.
  • The drug obtained from Datura is hallucinogenic which produces a dream-like state and can even cause psychosis, a condition of loss of contact with external reality.

Hence, the correct option is A.
NCERT Reference: Page no. 159 of topic “8.5 DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE” of chapter 8 of NCERT

Topic in NCERT: DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE

Line in NCERT: "Several plants, fruits and seeds having hallucinogenic properties have been used for hundreds of years in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies and rituals all over the globe."

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