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MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 (10 Questions)

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Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 12 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 10

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Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 1

In the context of the Energy Conservation Building Code of India, evaluate the following statements:

  1. The Energy Conservation Building Code has been formulated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
  2. The code is applicable to both government and private buildings.
  3. The code addresses water efficiency along with the energy efficiency of the buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct answer is Option C - 2 only

The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) was developed and published by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, which functions under the Ministry of Power; the first version was released in 2007.

The code is designed to set minimum energy efficiency standards for commercial buildings and therefore applies to buildings in both the public and private sectors that meet the applicability thresholds, typically a connected load of 100 kW or a contract demand of 120 kVA or greater.

The ECBC's technical scope covers building elements and systems affecting energy use-for example, the building envelope, HVAC systems, lighting, and other electrical systems-with the primary objective of reducing energy consumption.

The ECBC does not establish comprehensive requirements for water efficiency; water-conservation measures are addressed under other codes and guidelines rather than as a central part of the ECBC.

Because the code is prepared by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency under the Ministry of Power, applies to both government and private commercial buildings meeting the stated thresholds, and focuses on energy efficiency rather than water efficiency, only the second statement is correct.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 2

Examine the following pairings:

1CRZ I : Inter-tidal areas
2CRZ II : Eco-sensitive areas
3CRZ III : Tidal-influenced waterbodies

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Correct Option - A

The correct answer is Option A - Only one pair

CRZ-I correctly corresponds to the inter-tidal zone; it includes ecologically sensitive areas such as mangroves, coral reefs, sand dunes, mudflats, salt marshes, turtle nesting sites and legally protected areas.

CRZ-II is the category for already developed/urban areas close to the shoreline where infrastructure and buildings exist; it does not denote eco-sensitive areas, so the second pairing is incorrect.

CRZ-III covers relatively undisturbed/rural coastal areas where development is regulated and limited; it does not refer to tidal-influenced water bodies, so the third pairing is incorrect.

CRZ-IV denotes the water area seaward of the Low Tide Line (LTL) up to the territorial waters (commonly cited as 12 nautical miles) and includes tidal-influenced water bodies such as creeks, estuaries and backwaters.

For jurisdictional distances, the coastal regulation zone is defined landward up to 500 metres from the High Tide Line (HTL) and, along tidal-influenced water bodies, up to 100 metres; these numerical limits support the correct classification above.

Since only the first pairing is correct and the other two are misassigned, the number of correctly matched pairs is one.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 3

Arrange the following stages of the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India in the correct chronological order: 1. Public consultation 2. Screening of the project 3. Appraisal by the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) 4. Preparation of EIA report and Environmental Management Plan (EMP) 5. Grant of Environmental Clearance (EC) Select the correct answer using the code below.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Correct Option - A

The correct answer is Option A - 2 - 4 -1 - 3 - 5

Screening of the project: Determine whether a full EIA is required and assign the project to the appropriate category (for example, Category A or Category B); decide if Terms of Reference (ToR) or scoping are needed.

Preparation of EIA report and Environmental Management Plan (EMP): Carry out baseline studies and impact assessment as per the ToR, and prepare the draft EIA report together with the draft EMP describing mitigation, monitoring and institutional measures.

Public consultation: Publicly disclose the draft EIA report and hold public hearings/consultations to collect comments, concerns and local inputs; record and address the comments in the final EIA as required.

Appraisal by the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC): The relevant appraisal body (central EAC for Category A, or state-level SEAC for Category B) reviews the final EIA, checks compliance with public consultation and proposed mitigation, and makes recommendations to the competent authority.

Grant of Environmental Clearance (EC): Based on the appraisal and recommendations, the competent authority issues the Environmental Clearance (EC) with specific conditions and monitoring requirements, or requests revisions/declines the application.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 4

Which processes constitute the Environmental Impact Assessment process in India?

  1. Screening
  2. Scoping
  3. Baseline data collection
  4. Impact prediction

Choose the correct option using the code provided below.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct answer is Option D - 1, 2, 3 and 4

Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a systematic process used to identify, predict and evaluate the likely environmental effects of a proposed project and to design measures to mitigate adverse impacts; an Environmental Management Plan (EMP) is prepared as part of this process to specify mitigation, monitoring and management actions.

Screening determines whether a proposed project requires a full EIA or only a simplified assessment; it classifies projects by potential risk and regulatory thresholds so resources are focused where impacts are likely to be significant.

Scoping identifies the key environmental issues, geographic and temporal boundaries, and the specific terms of reference for detailed study; it ensures that the EIA concentrates on the most important impacts and alternatives.

Baseline data collection involves gathering factual information on existing environmental conditions - for example, air quality, water resources, soil, ecology and socio-economic features - which provides the reference against which predicted impacts are assessed.

Impact prediction estimates the nature, magnitude, extent and duration of likely changes to the environment caused by the project, and forms the basis for evaluating significance and proposing mitigation measures.

Since Screening, Scoping, Baseline data collection and Impact prediction are all core and sequential components of the EIA procedure, the option stating that all four processes are included is correct.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 5

Refer to the Environmental Impact Assessment and determine which of the statements below are correct:

  1. Environmental Clearance (EC) is required for new projects or modernization under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
  2. All industries must comply with Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) requirements regardless of the investment value of their projects.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The correct answer is Option D - Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect because the statutory basis for requiring prior environmental clearance is the EIA Notification, 1994 issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 governs consent for control of air pollution and related permits through the central and state pollution control boards, but it is not the source of the mandatory environmental clearance regime under the EIA Notification.

Statement 2 is incorrect because applicability of the EIA/EC regime is not unconditional or universal; it applies to projects and activities listed in Schedule 1 of the EIA Notification, 1994 and its amendments, which classify projects into Category A (central clearance) and Category B (state-level appraisal), with a further subcategory B2 for certain small/low-impact projects that are exempt from mandatory clearance. Therefore, not all industries require EIA/EC irrespective of investment or size.

Because both individual statements are factually incorrect, the correct choice is the option stating that neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 6

Review the following statements about the Atal Bhujal Yojana:

  1. It is a central sector scheme to improve groundwater management.
  2. It covers the water-scarce central and eastern states.
  3. Central Ground Water Board is the nodal implementing agency for the scheme.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The correct answer is Option B - Only two

Statement 1 - Correct.Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Jal Shakti designed to promote sustainable, community-led groundwater management in priority water-stressed areas through activities such as preparation of water security plans, capacity building and community participation.

Statement 2 - Incorrect. The scheme is implemented in seven priority states: Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh; these states are largely in western, central, northern and southern parts of the country and do not collectively constitute the eastern region, so the statement that it covers the central and eastern states is incorrect.

Statement 3 - Correct. The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) functions as the central nodal technical agency for the scheme, providing technical guidance, monitoring and coordination with state governments and local institutions for implementation.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect, making Only two the correct choice.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 7

Evaluate the following set of pairings:

Coastal AreaCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
Developed land areas in MunicipalitiesCRZ-I
Sea Grass bedsCRZ-II
Sea bed area beyond Low Tide LineCRZ-III

How many of the above pairings are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The correct answer is Option D - None

Pairing 1 is incorrect because developed, already built-up urban areas within municipal limits are classified as CRZ-II, whereas CRZ-I denotes ecologically sensitive and critical coastal features such as mangroves, coral reefs, mudflats and certain portions of the intertidal zone.

Pairing 2 is incorrect because sea grass beds are ecologically sensitive marine habitats and are covered under CRZ-I, not CRZ-II.

Pairing 3 is incorrect because the sea bed area beyond Low Tide Line is part of CRZ-IV (water areas, including seabed beyond the low tide line), while CRZ-III refers to relatively undisturbed rural coastal land areas.

Therefore, None of the three pairings is correct.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 8

Examine these statements about the Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) rating framework in India:

  1. The GRIHA rating system has been developed by the International Renewable Energy Agency.
  2. It has been adopted as the national rating system for green buildings by the Government of India.

Identify which of the statements above are correct.

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The correct answer is Option B - 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. The GRIHA rating system was developed by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in collaboration with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy; it was not developed by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA).

Statement 2 is correct. In 2007 the Government of India adopted GRIHA as the national rating system for green buildings; it is an indigenous assessment tool that evaluates building performance on energy, water, waste, site and materials parameters and is endorsed by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 9

Evaluate the following statements about the Atal Bhujal Yojana:

  1. It is a central sector scheme to improve groundwater management.
  2. It covers the water-scarce central and eastern states.
  3. Central Ground Water Board is the nodal implementing agency for the scheme.

How many of the statements above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is Option B - Only two

Statement 1 is correct. Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched with support from the World Bank to strengthen sustainable management of groundwater resources in identified priority areas.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is implemented in 7 priority states - Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh - and does not specifically cover the eastern states as a whole.

Statement 3 is correct. The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) serves as the central-level nodal agency providing technical guidance and implementation support under the scheme.

Therefore, 2 statements are correct, so Option B is the right choice.

Shankar IAS Test: Environmental Impact Assessment - 1 - Question 10

Consider the following activities:

  1. Mining project involving atomic minerals
  2. Modernisation of Irrigation projects
  3. Construction of Townships

How many of the above activities are exempt from public consultation under Environment Impact Assessment?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is Option C - All three

Under the EIA Notification, 2006, public consultation (public hearing) is a part of the environmental clearance process and is normally required for projects classified as Category A and Category B1.

The competent authority for organising the public hearing is the State Pollution Control Board/UT environmental authority or its designated agency, and the proceedings and representations from stakeholders form part of the appraisal record used by the statutory appraisal committees.

Certain projects have been exempted from the public consultation requirement by specific notifications/clarifications issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

One clear exemption is for mining projects involving atomic minerals, because such activities fall under the administrative domain of the Department of Atomic Energy and are treated differently on grounds of security and specialised regulation.

Similarly, certain modernisation of irrigation projects (for example, upgrades or renovation of existing irrigation infrastructure that do not expand command area or significantly alter environmental footprint) have been treated as exempt from fresh public consultation under the notified clarifications, since they are rehabilitative/modernisation works rather than new projects.

Likewise, certain cases of construction of townships (notably those covered by specific central/state scheme approvals or built on already developed/approved sites where no additional environmental impacts are identified) have been exempted from public consultation by the notified relaxations.

Because the MoEFCC notifications/clarifications explicitly exempt these classes in the manner described above, all three listed activities are treated as exempt from the public consultation requirement under the applicable EIA rules; hence the explanation supports the option stated above.

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