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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - CLAT MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test - Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 1

With reference to the Collective Security Treaty, consider the following statements:

1. It is an intergovernmental military alliance of post-Soviet states.

2. It is referred to as the Tashkent Pact.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 1
  • It is an intergovernmental military alliance (six countries) that came into effect in 2002.
  • It is an intergovernmental military alliance that was signed on 15th May 1992.
  • In 1992, six post-Soviet states belonging to the Commonwealth of Independent States—Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan—signed the Collective Security Treaty. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This is also referred to as the “Tashkent Pact” or “Tashkent Treaty”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Gharials:

1. They are only found in Chambal river in India.

2. Population of Gharials is a good indicator of clean river water.

3. They are categorised as critically endangered by IUCN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 2
  • Chambal river is the primary habitat of Gharials but they are found in many other parts in the freshwater of northern India eg. Ghagra, Gandak river, Girwa river (Uttar Pradesh), the Ramganga river (Uttarakhand) and the Sone river (Bihar). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Population of Gharials is a good indicator of clean river water. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • India has three species of Crocodilians namely:
    • Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus): IUCN Red List- Critically Endangered. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Mugger crocodile (Crocodylus palustris): IUCN- Vulnerable.
    • Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus): IUCN- Least Concern
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 3

Consider the following statements the 'Sweet revolution':

1. The initiative aims to promote sugarcane production in North-eastern states of India.

2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 3
  • National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM) aims for the overall promotion & development of scientific beekeeping in the country to achieve the goal of ‘Sweet Revolution’ which is being implemented through National Bee Board (NBB). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • The National Bee Board under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare), will be a National Level Nodal Agency for overall holistic development and promotion of the beekeeping sector at National level under NBHM for implementation of activities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Recently, the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has launched the country’s first Mobile Honey Processing Van at Village in Uttar Pradesh.
    • Mobile Honey Processing Van that will process beekeepers’ honey at their doorsteps and thus save them the hassle and the cost of taking the honey to processing plants in far off cities for processing.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 4

With reference to the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, consider the following statements:

1. The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS).

2. The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 4

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) expects to deliver all Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas in the Final Operational Clearance (FOC) variant to the Indian Air Force (IAF) in 2022 while the LCA MK-1A, with specific enhancements, will take flight by middle of this year, said R. Madhavan, Chief Managing Director, HAL.

  • Last February the Defence Ministry had signed a ₹48,000 crore deal with HAL to supply 83 LCA MK-1A to the IAF. HAL will be delivering the first three aircraft in 2024 and 16 aircraft per year for subsequent five years, the Defence Ministry had stated earlier.
  • The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS), which is being integrated for the first time.
  • Heavy stand off weapons will also be integrated on the MK-2.
  • The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants with the aircraft 1350mm longer, featuring canards and can carry a payload of 6,500 kg compared to 3,500 kg by the LCA.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 5

With reference to the eligibility norms for entities tapping into data from credit information companies (CICs), consider the following statements:

1. According to rules a company must be owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens to become a specified user with a credit bureau.

2. In order to be eligible as a ‘specified user’ under the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations, 2021, an entity must be a company incorporated in India or a statutory corporation established in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 5

The Reserve Bank of India, RBI has laid down eligibility norms for entities tapping into data from credit information companies (CICs), or credit bureaus.

  • The rules said that a company must be owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens to become a specified user with a credit bureau, amid reports of lending apps with Chinese links operating in India.
  • In order to be eligible as a ‘specified user’ under the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations, 2021, an entity must be a company incorporated in India or a statutory corporation established in India.
  • The norms said that the governing statute of the statutory corporation or memorandum of association of the company should allow the business or activity of processing of information for the support or benefit of credit institutions.
  • It added that in the case of a company, it should have a net worth of not less than 2 crore rupees as per the latest audited balance sheet, and shall meet the requirement on a continuing basis.
  • The ownership of the company shall be well diversified. It also stated that the company shall have at least three years of experience in running the business or activity of processing information for the support or benefit of credit institutions and shall have a clean track record.
  • It further said that the company, its promoters or directors should not have at any time in the past been convicted of any offence involving moral turpitude or any economic offence.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 6

With reference to the cyber violence against women, consider the following statements:

1. Section 153A of IPC pertains to the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony.

2. Section 67 of the IT Act prescribes punishment of life imprisonment for violation of privacy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 6

Taking cognisance of multiple complaints that photographs of Muslim women had been posted on one “Bulli Bai” mobile app for fake auctions, the police in Delhi and Mumbai have registered separate cases.

What are the legal provisions invoked?

  • The police have invoked Sections 153A, 153B, 295A, 354D, 500 and 509 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Section 67 of the Information Technology Act.
  • Section 153A pertains to the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony; while Section 153B relates to imputations, assertions prejudicial to national-integration.
  • Section 295A provides punishment for deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings.
  • Section 354D provides that any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, email or any other form of electronic communication with malintent, commits the offence of stalking.
  • Under this provision, the punishment may extend to five years of imprisonment with fine, in the case of second or subsequent conviction.
  • While Section 500 defines the punishment for defamation, Section 509 of the IPC addresses the offence of word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman.
  • Section 67 of the IT Act lays down the punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form.
  • The first conviction attracts imprisonment up to three years and fine up to ₹5 lakh and the second or subsequent conviction may lead to imprisonment up to five years and fine that may extend to ₹10 lakh.

What are the other provisions related to cybercrimes?

  • Section 66E of the IT Act prescribes punishment for violation of privacy.
  • Also, sections 354A (sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment) and 354C (voyeurism) of the IPC, which were introduced along with sections 354B and 354D in 2013, may also be applied in conjunction with the relevant IT Act provisions, based on the nature of the offence.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 7

With reference to the “2 Vs 2 Agri market access”, consider the following statements:

1. Recently the Department of Agriculture and farmer’s welfare (DAC&FW) and US Department of Agriculture (USDA) have signed a framework agreement for implementing the 2 Vs 2 Agri market access issues.

2. 2 Vs 2 Agri market access issues involves inspection / oversight transfer for Indian mangoes & pomegranate and market access for pomegranate arils from India and market access for US cherries and U.S Alfalfa hay.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 7

In pursuant to the 12th India – USA TPF meeting held on 23 Nov, 2021 Department of Agriculture and farmer’s welfare (DAC&FW) and US Department of Agriculture (USDA) have signed a framework agreement for implementing the 2 Vs 2 Agri market access issues.

  • 2 Vs 2 Agri market access issues involves inspection / oversight transfer for Indian mangoes & pomegranate and market access for pomegranate arils from India and market access for US cherries and U.S Alfalfa hay.
  • Mango and pomegranate exports will start from Jan – Feb 2022 and pomegranate aril exports from Apr 2022. Exports of Alfalfa hay and cherries from USA will begin in Apr 2022.
  • In addition, based on the ministerial discussions, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) also conveyed its readiness to provide market access for U.S pork and requested the U.S side to share a signed copy of final sanitary certificate for finalizing the same.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 8

With reference to the fighter jets, consider the following statements:

1. Both the Rafale-M and F/A-18 are originally designed to operate from carriers with a catapult launch mechanism.

2. A new indigenous Twin Engine Carrier Based Deck Fighter (TEBDF) being designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 8

Beginning January 10, 2022, French aircraft maker Dassault Aviation will fly its Rafale-M fighter jet from the Indian Navy’s Shore Based Test Facility (SBTF) in Goa to demonstrate compatibility and suitability to operate from the Indigenous Aircraft Carrier Vikrant’s deck.

  • The Rafale-M arrived in Goa recently and the demonstration is expected to go up to February 1.
  • Boeing will also demonstrate the compatibility of its F/A-18 Super Hornet on the SBTF likely in March, it has been learnt.
  • These trials are part of demonstrations by aircraft manufacturers to showcase the compatibility of their aircraft to fly from Indian Navy’s aircraft carriers which use a ski-jump to launch aircraft.
  • Both the Rafale-M and F/A-18 are originally designed to operate from carriers with a catapult launch mechanism.
  • The carrier would thus require minor modifications to operate the aircraft, officials said. A government-to-government agreement could be signed based on the aircraft selected to speed up the process, an official said.
  • Boeing has taken a lead in the race having already demonstrated the ability of F/A-18 to take off from a similar shore based facility at Naval Air Station Patuxent river in Maryland, U.S. in December 2020.
  • However, each fighter brings certain advantages while having some limitations.
  • For instance, Rafale-M does not have a twin seater while its acquisition would mean commonality with the Indian Air Force which will soon complete inducting the 36 Rafale jets contracted in 2016.
  • On the other hand, the F/A-18 is a much widely employed platform with a twin seater trainer and also has an electronic warfare version which might be of interest to the Navy.
  • In 2017, the Navy had floated Request For Information (RFI) to procure 57 twin-engine carrier fighters which is now set to downsized to around 26, including few twin-seater trainer variants.
  • The revision is in the backdrop of a new indigenous Twin Engine Carrier Based Deck Fighter (TEBDF) being designed and developed by the DRDO and Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA).

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 9

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The CAA provides citizenship on the basis of religion to six undocumented non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Myanmar and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.

2. It exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 9

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) did not notify the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 rules, the third extended deadline after the Act was passed.

  • January 9 was the last day of an extension it sought from the two parliamentary committees in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to frame the rules.
  • It was not imminently clear if the Ministry had sought more time from the committee on subordinate legislation in the two Houses of Parliament to notify rules that will govern the CAA. Without rules, the Act cannot be implemented.
  • As per the Manual on Parliamentary Work, in case the ministries/departments are not able to frame the rules within the prescribed period of six months after legislation is passed, “they should seek extension of time from the committee stating reasons” which cannot be more than for a period of three months at a time.
  • The CAA was passed by Parliament on December 11, 2019 and the Act was notified within 24 hours on December 12. In January 2020, the Ministry notified that the Act will come into force from January 10, 2020.
  • The CAA provides citizenship on the basis of religion to six undocumented non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
  • It exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920. The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 10

With reference to the 'Surya Namaskar', consider the following statements:

1. The Surya Namaskar is a set of 8 Asanas performed in 12 steps with coordination of the body and mind.

2. Exposure to the Sun provides the human body with Vitamin A and C only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 11, 2022 - Question 10

The Ministry of AYUSH is organizing a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme on 14 January 2022 for 75 lakh people globally (on the day of Makar Sakranti to commemorate the journey of the sun to the Northern Hemisphere).

  • On this day, the 'Surya Namaskar' is offered as a salutation to the Sun to exhibit one’s gratitude for each of its rays as it nurtures all living beings.
  • This occasion commemorates thanksgiving to 'Mother Nature' for bestowing health, wealth and happiness. Further, the event will underline the importance of Makar Sakranti in our cultural and spiritual heritage.
  • The Surya Namaskar is a set of 8 Asanas performed in 12 steps with coordination of the body and mind. It is preferably performed in the early morning.
  • Scientifically, the Surya Namaskar has been known to develop immunity and improve vitality, which is significant to our health during pandemic conditions.
  • Exposure to the Sun further provides the human body with Vitamin D, which has been widely recommended in all medical branches around the world.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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