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Test: Polity- 7 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test - Test: Polity- 7

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Test: Polity- 7 - Question 1

The Indian constitution is a written one unlike in some of the other democracies. What does it imply?

  1. The form of government in India has been codified in the constitution to reduce political and administrative conflicts.
  2. All the laws made by Parliament are to be written down as a part of the constitution.
  3. Only because of a written constitution, citizens are able to enjoy fundamental rights.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 1

Constitution specifies the structure, organisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. Thus, it avoids the misunderstandings and disagreements between the two. All the laws made in India are codified separate from the constitution and maintained in a law book. They need not be a part of the constitution. Even in the UK where there is no written constitution, people enjoy several fundamental rights. However, only because our fundamental rights are written in the constitution, it is difficult to amend and change them as per the wishes of the political executive.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about Speaker Pro Tem

  1. The President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem.
  2. The constitution mentions no oath to the office of Speaker Pro Tem.
  3. The Speaker Pro Tem has limited powers to that of the Speaker.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 2
  • As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. (Statement 1)
  • The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. (Statement 2)
  • The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. (Statement 3)
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Test: Polity- 7 - Question 3

Which of the following are devices of direct democracy?

  1. Citizen’s Initiative
  2. Referendum
  3. Recall
  4. Plebiscite

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 3
  • Democracy is of two types—direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland.
  • There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite. In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds—parliamentary and presidential.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 4

Consider the following statements.

  1. Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes.
  2. President alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the Scheduled Castes (SC) list.
  3. There is provision for the reservation of Scheduled Castes both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 4

Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes.
Under the provision of Article 341, first list of SCs in relation to a states/UT is to be issued by a notified Order of the President after consulting concerned state Government.
But the clause (2) of Article 341 envisages that, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Castes can be effected through an Act of Parliament.
Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the SC list under Article 341 of the Constitution.
Statement 3: Reservation is there only in the Lok Sabha.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Star campaigner.

  1. Only a recognised political party can have a Star campaigner.
  2. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.
  3. Only President can remove the leaders from the political party’s list of star campaigners.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 5

The Election Commission removed BJP leaders Anurag Thakur and Parvesh Sahib Singh from the party’s list of star campaigners.

Who is a star campaigner?
A recognised political party can have 40 star campaigners and an unrecognised (but registered) political party can have 20. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.
The expenditure incurred on campaigning by such notified star campaigners is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate. However, this only applies when a star campaigner limits herself to a general campaign for the political party she represents.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 6

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Judicial Review?

  1. Indian Constitution confers the power of judicial review to Supreme Court only.
  2. The purpose of the judicial review is to review constitutional amendments only.
  3. Judicial review is not a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 6

In India the Constitution confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Further, the Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment.
Judicial review can be classified into the following three categories:

  • Judicial review of constitutional amendments.
  • Judicial review of legislation of the Parliament and State Legislatures and subordinate legislations.
  • Judicial review of administrative action of the Union and State and authorities under the state.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 7

The committees which examined the Centre-State Relations are:

  1. Sarkaria Commission
  2. L M Singhvi Committee
  3. Rajamannar Committee
  4. M M Punchhi Commission

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 7

In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 8

Match these schedules of Constitution to what they contain.

  1. First Schedule – List of names of All States and Union Territories
  2. Second Schedule – Powers of President, Governor and Judges
  3. Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
  4. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between Legislative, Executive and Judiciary

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 8
  • First Schedule — Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction; Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
  • Second Schedule — Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of President, Governor, Judges etc.
  • Third Schedule — Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for MPs, Ministers, Constitutional functionaries etc.
  • Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
  • Fifth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
  • Sixth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
  • Eighth Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution.
  • Ninth schedule – Acts & regulation of states dealing with the land reforms & abolition of zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
  • Tenth schedule – Anti-defection provisions
  • Eleventh schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayat
  • Twelfth schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding North Eastern Council (NEC).

  1. NEC established by an Act of Parliament is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region.
  2. Minister of Development of NER is the ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council.
  3. Initially Sikkim was not the part of North Eastern Council and was added to the council in the year 2002.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 9

North Eastern Council (NEC) was constituted as a statutory advisory body under the NEC Act 1971 and came into being on the 7th November, 1972 at Shillong. The eight States of Northeast India viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, are members of the council, with their respective Chief Ministers and Governors representing them.
Sikkim was added to the council in the year 2002.
In June 2018, the chairmanship of NEC was transferred by Union Cabinet to Home Minister from Minister of Development of NER.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the role and functions of a Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

  1. Speaker is a quasi-judicial body
  2. Ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House.
  3. Sole representative of the House in the international arena.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 10
  • The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an “arbiter” or a “quasi-judicial body” should not be limited exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.
  • She is the ‘ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House. Her decisions are final and binding and ordinarily cannot be easily challenged. She decides the duration of debates, can discipline members and even override decisions by committees. She represents the collective voice of the House and is the sole representative of the House in the international arena’.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 11

Which Act enabled the Governor General to associate representatives of the Indian People with the work of legislation by nominating them to his expanded council?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 11
  • Indian Councils Act, 1861, made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council.
  • In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for Impeachment of President of India.

  1. The President in India can be removed on grounds of treason, bribery, high crimes or misdemeanour.
  2. The charges of impeachment can be initiated in either house of the Parliament.
  3. Till now the impeachment proceeding has been passed only once by the parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 12

The president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India. The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling the charges against the president. The charges are contained in a notice that has to be signed by at least one-quarter of the total members of that house. The notice is sent up to the president and 14 days later, it is taken up for consideration.
A resolution to impeach the president has to be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of the originating house. It is then sent to the other house. The other house investigates the charges that have been made. During this process, the president has the right to defend oneself through an authorised counsel. If the second house also approves the charges made by special majority again, the president stands impeached and is deemed to have vacated their office from the date when such a resolution stands passed. No president has faced impeachment proceedings so the above provisions have never been used.
The US Constitution states that the President can be removed on grounds of treason, bribery, high crimes or misdemeanour.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding 9th schedule of the Indian constitution.

  1. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951.
  2. The Supreme court in IR Coelho case upheld the authority of judiciary to review any law including those put in 9th schedule.
  3. The Supreme Court laid down dual test to examine the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule, i.e; Whether it violates any fundamental right and if yes whether the violation also damages or destroys the basic structure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 13

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951.
In IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, various laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were challenged on the ground that any law violating fundamental rights should be struck down as “unconstitutional” and that the court’s power of judicial review cannot be taken away. A nine-judge constitution bench delivered its verdict on the issue in January 2007.
What did the SC constitution bench say?

  • The SC upheld the Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule. But it said laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy a blanket protection.
  • Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwananda Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge.
  • It laid down dual test to examine the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule. Whether it violates any fundamental right and if yes whether the violation also damages or destroys the basic structure. If the answer to both the questions is in the affirmative, then only a law placed in the Ninth Schedule can be declared unconstitutional.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Defection Law

  1. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in The Constitution (Forty-second amendment) Act, 1976.
  2. A legislator defying the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House.
  3. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 14

The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 15

Which of the following ensures that the principle of federalism is upheld in the Indian polity?

  1. Any change to the constitution that affects the power of the states must be ratified by a majority of state assemblies.
  2. The Judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation and amendment of constitutional provisions.
  3. Union Territories (UTs) are administered by the Centre.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 15

There are some units of the Indian Union which enjoy very little power. These are areas which are too small to become an independent State but which could not be merged with any of the existing States. These areas, like Chandigarh, or Lakshadweep or the capital city of Delhi, are called Union Territories. These territories do not have the powers of a State. The Central Government has special powers in running these areas. Therefore, option 3 has no connection with the Principle of federalism.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 16

Consider the following statements with regard to the President of India.

  1. The President does not exercise his/her discretion on the advice given by the Council of Ministers.
  2. All members of the Legislative Assemblies and both the Houses of the Parliament take part in electing the President.
  3. The President’s ordinance making power is not a discretionary power.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 16
  • The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision. Although, the Council can still send back the same advice and the President would then be bound by that advice, such a request by the President to reconsider the decision, would naturally carry a lot of weight. So, this is one way in which the president can act in his own discretion.
  • Whenever the office becomes vacant, the new president is chosen by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of parliament (M.P.s), the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha) of all States and the elected members of the legislative assemblies (MLAs) of union territories with legislatures, i.e., National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, and Puducherry.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Defection Law.

  1. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least one-third of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
  2. The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
  3. Courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter of disqualification.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 17
  • Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
  • The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
  • The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion.

  1. Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can effectively discharge their functions.
  2. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.
  3. The leader of the house is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 18
  • Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.
  • A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
  • The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 19

Which of the following schedules of the Constitution have a bearing on the governance of tribals in India?

  1. Fifth schedule
  2. Sixth Schedule
  3. Seventh Schedule
  4. Tenth Schedule

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 19
  • 5th and 6th schedule directly concern themselves with tribal governance as all the special provisions made under the constitution fall under it. For e.g. constituting a tribal advisory council; giving tribals control over land and forests etc.
  • 7th schedule is concerned with the division of legislative power between Centre and States. It concerns with forests; welfare; mining and minerals which have a direct bearing on the tribal community in India. 10th schedule is about anti-defection.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 20

Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble of the Constitution?

  1. Taking inspiration from the American model, India has chosen to begin its constitution with a preamble.
  2. Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
  3. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution.
  4. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 20
  • Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They guide all the articles of the Indian Constitution.
  • Taking inspiration from American model, most countries in the contemporary world have chosen to begin their constitutions with a preamble.
  • It contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI).

  1. OCI Scheme was introduced by The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1955.
  2. OCI cardholders have no right to vote, no right to hold constitutional offices, and no right to buy agricultural properties.
  3. Recently the Government held that OCI card holders enjoy fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, including the right to freedom of speech and expression.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 21
  • The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) is an immigration status permitting a foreign citizen of Indian origin to live and work in the Republic of India indefinitely.
  • It was introduced by The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005 in August 2005.
  • The Constitution of India prevents Indian citizens from holding dual citizenship. As such the OCI is not actual citizenship of India according to Indian law as it has many limitations such as no right to vote, no right to hold constitutional offices, and no right to buy agricultural properties.
  • Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card holders do not enjoy fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, including the right to freedom of speech and expression, the government told the Delhi High Court.
  • The government’s response came in a plea filed by former Ranbaxy executive Dinesh Thakur seeking the right to seek information under the RTI Act.
  • “OCI card holders have merely been granted statutory rights under the Citizenship Act, 1955,” the government said in an affidavit filed by the Ministry of External Affairs.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 22

According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the term ‘State’ denotes

  1. Government and Parliament of India
  2. Government and the Legislature of each of the States
  3. All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
  4. United Nations

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 22
  • The Delhi High Court has ruled that the United Nations is not a State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India and is not amenable to its jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution.
  • According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India the State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 23

Which of the following does not find mention in the Preamble of India’s Constitution?

  1. Social justice
  2. Liberty of worship
  3. Equality of status
  4. Liberty of religion

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 23

These are the opening words of the preamble of the Indian Constitution “ WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

Test: Polity- 7 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. National emergency can be declared even if security of India is not in threat, but there is a case of imminent danger.
  2. The operation of National Emergency always applies to the whole of Indian Territory.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 24
  • Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
  • A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.
Test: Polity- 7 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code.

  1. A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption.
  2. Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that it shall be the obligation of the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 7 - Question 25
  • A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc. Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
  • Article 44 is one of the directive principles. These, as defined in Article 37, are not justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance. Fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law. While Article 44 uses the words “state shall endeavour”, other Articles in the ‘Directive Principles’ chapter use words such as “in particular strive”; “shall in particular direct its policy”; “shall be obligation of the state” etc. Article 43 mentions “state shall endeavour by suitable legislation” while the phrase “by suitable legislation” is absent in Article 44. All this implies that the duty of the state is greater in other directive principles than in Article 44.
  • All Hindus of the country are not governed by one law, nor are all Muslims or all Christians. Not only British legal traditions, even those of the Portuguese and the French remain operative in some parts.
  • In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. The Constitution itself protects local customs in Nagaland. Similar protections are enjoyed by Meghalaya and Mizoram.
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