|1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you?|
The time taken by a particle performing SHM on a straight line to pass from point A to B where it's velocities are same is 2 seconds. After another 2 seconds it returns to B. The time period of oscillation is (in seconds):
From the given information it can be concluded that points A and B are equidistant from mean position.Hence from diagram it is clear that time period of oscillation is= 2 + 2 x 2 + 2 = 8 second.
For a particle in S.H.M., if the amplitude of displacement is ‘a’ and the amplitude of velocity is ‘v’ the amplitude of acceleration is :
Maximum velocity v = ω a
Maximum acceleeration f = ω2 a ⇒
A body performs SHM along the straight line segment ABCDE with C as the mid point of segment AE (A and E are the extreme position for the SHM). Its kinetic energies at B and D are each one fourth of its maximum value. If length of segment AE is 2R, then the distance between B and D is :
When the particle crosses D, its speed is half the maximum speed.
A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will be :
Both the spring are in series
∴ mx1 = mx2 ⇒ x1 = x2
force equation for first block ;
Put x1 = x2 ⇒
Two light strings, each of length l, are fixed at points A and B on a fixed horizontal rod xy. A small bob is tied by both strings and in equilibrium, the strings are making angle 45° with the rod. If the bob is slightly displaced normal to the plane of the strings and released then period of the resulting small oscillation will be :
Resulting torque on the bob =
MI of bob about axis
For small angle θ
A metre stick swinging in vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its one end undergoes small oscillation of frequency f0 as shown in figure. If the bottom half of the stick were cut off, then its new frequency of small oscillation would become:
where, ℓ is distance between point of suspension and centre of mass of the body. Thus, for the stick of length L and mass m :
when bottom half of the stick is cut off
A 25 kg uniform solid sphere with a 20 cm radius is suspended by a vertical wire such that the point of suspension is vertically above the centre of the sphere. A torque of 0.10 N-m is required to rotate the sphere through an angle of 1.0 rad and then maintain the orientation. If the sphere is then released, its time period of the oscillation will be:
τ = -kθ
0.1 = -k(1.0), where k is torsional constant of the wire.
k = 1/10
= 4π second
A rod of length l is in motion such that its ends A and B are moving along x-axis and y-axis respectively. It is given that rad/s always. P is a fixed point on the rod as shown in figure. Let M be the projection of P on x-axis. For the time interval in which q changes from 0 to π/2 ,
choose the correct statement :
∴ θ = 2t
Let BP = a ∴ x = OM = a sin θ = a sin (2t)
Hence M executes SHM with in the given time period and its acceleration is opposite to 'x' that means towards left
Which of the following is greatest in SHM ? (assuming potential energy = 0 at mean position)
Average kinetic energy with respect to position
Average potential energy with respect to position
Average kinetic energy with respect to time
Average potential energy with respect to time
m1 & m2 are connected with a light inextensible string with m1 lying on smooth table and m2 hanging as shown in figure. m1 is also connected to a light spring which is initially unstretched and the system is released from rest :
After the system is released, m2 moves down.
The extention in the spring becomes :
which is the new equilibrium position of the system.
For small 'x' : restoring force on the system is F = kx
⇒ (For (m1 + m2 + spring) systeem)
⇒ Angular frequency
F.B.D. of m1 and m2 just after the system is released :
m1 moves towards right till the total kinetic energy acquired does not converted to potential energy.Hence (D) is also incorrect.Hence (B) is the answer
The potential energy of a particle executing SHM changes from maximum to minimum in 5 sec. Then the time period of SHM is :
P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.
Time to go from extreme position to mean position is, t = T/4 ; where T is time period of SHM
5 s = T/4 ⇒ T = 20 s.
A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement x from mean position, its potential energy is E1 and at a displacement y from mean position, its potential energy is E2. The potential energy E at a displacement (x + y) from mean position is (the potential energy is zero at mean position) :
In the figure shown a block of mass m is attached at ends of two springs. The other ends of the spring are fixed. The mass m is released in the vertical plane when the spring are relaxed. The velocity of the block is maximum when:
Speed of block is maximum at mean position. At mean position upper string is extended and lower spring is compressed.
Figure shows the kinetic energy K of a simple pendulum versus its angle θ from the vertical. The pendulum bob has mass 0.2 kg. The length of the pendulum is equal to (g = 10 m/s2) :
The equation of a wave is given by (all quantity expressed in S.I. units) Y = 5 sin10π (t – 0.01x) along the x-axis. The magnitude of phase difference between the points separated by a distance of 10 m along x- axis is :
The magnitude of phase difference between the points separated by distance 10 metres.
= k x 10 = [10π x 0.01] x 10
A certain transverse sinusoidal wave of wavelength 20 cm is moving in the positive x direction. The transverse velocity of the particle at x = 0 as a function of time is shown. The amplitude of the motion is:
Two vibrating strings of same material stretched under same tension and vibrating with same frequency in the same overtone have radii 2r and r. Then the ratio of their lengths is :
v1 = v2
A chord attached about an end to a vibrating fork divides it into 6 loops, when its tension is 36 N. The tension at which it will vibrate in 4 loops is:
For waves along a string
Now, for 6 loops : 3λ1 = L ⇒ λ1 = L/3
& for 4 loops : 2λ2 = L ⇒ λ2 = L/2
Sinusoidal waves 5.00 cm in amplitude are to be transmitted along a string having a linear mass density equal to 4.00 × 10–2 kg/m. If the source can deliver a maximum power of 90 W and the string is under a tension of 100 N, then the highest frequency at which the source can operate is (take π2 = 10) :
using data f = 30 Hz.
What is the percentage change in the tension necessary in a sonometer of fixed length to produce a note one octave lower (half of original frequency) than before :`
(Wave length constant for fixed length)
Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of the displacement function S(x,t) of three sound waves 1,2 and 3 as marked on the curves that travel along x–axis through air. If P1,P2 and P3 represent their pressure amplitudes respectively, then correct relation between them is :
Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, In which of the following gases the velocity of sound will be largest :
The speed of sound in air is
of H2 is maximum, hence speed of sound in H2 shall be maximum.
In a sound wave, to increase the intensity by a factor of 10, pressure amplitude must be changed by a factor of :
The two pipes are submerged in sea water, arranged as shown in figure. Pipe A with length LA = 1.5 m and one open end, contains a small sound source that sets up the standing wave with the second lowest resonant frequency of that pipe. Sound from pipe A sets up resonance in pipe B, which has both ends open. The resonance is at the second lowest resonant frequency of pipe B. The length of the pipe B is :
For pipe A, second resonant frequency is third harmonic thus
For pipe B, second resonant frequency is second harmonic thus
A source of sound of frequency 256 Hz is moving rapidly towards a wall with a velocity of 5 m/sec. If sound travels at a speed of 330 m/sec, then number of beats per second heard by an observer between the wall and the source is:
For a stationary observer between wall and source, frequency from direct source
frequency from reflected sound
So no beats will be heard.
A stationary observer receives sonic oscillations from two tuning forks, one of which approaches and the other recedes with same speed. As this takes place the observer hears the beat frequency of 2 Hz. Find the speed of each tuning fork, if their oscillation frequency is 680 Hz and the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s:
A source of frequency f is stationary and an observer starts moving towards it at t = 0 with constant small acceleration. Then the variation of observed frequency f ' registered by the observer with time is best represented as :
After a time t, velocity of observer V0 = at
Which is a straight line graph of positive slope.
Two persons A and B each carrying a source of frequency 596 Hz and 600 Hz respectively are standing at rest a few metres apart. A starts moving towards B with a velocity of 2 m/s. If the speed of sound is 300 m/s. Which of the following statement is true?
Beats heard per second by A is 8 and B is zero.
In a horizontal spring–mass system, mass m is released after being displaced towards right by some distance at t = 0 on a frictionless surface. The phase angle of the motion in radian when it is first time passing through the equilibrium position is equal to :
Using x = A sin (ωt + φ) and V = Aω cos(ωt + φ) for conditions at t = 0 → x = A and V = 0 then φ = π/2
When it passes equilibrium position for the first time t = T/4
A 75 cm string fixed at both ends produces resonant frequencies 384 Hz and 288 Hz without there being any other resonant frequency between these two. Wave speed for the string is :
Δv = 384 - 288 = 96
Thus 288 and 384 (96 x 3; 96 x 4) are third and fourth harmonics.
For fundamental mode:
λ/2 = 0.75 λ = 1.5 m
η = 96
⇒ v = 96 x 1.5 = 144 m/s.
A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from its mean position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude :
A horizontal rod of mass m and length L is pivoted smoothly at one end. The rod ’s other end is supported by a spring of force constant k. The rod is rotated (in vertical plane) by a small angle q from its horizontal equilibrium position and released. The angular frequency of the
subsequent simple harmonic motion is :
Restoring rorque :
τ = ky L = KL2θ (Since y ≌ Lθ from figure)
⇒ (torque due to mg was already balanced so it is not taken in calculation)
A traveling wave y = A sin (kx - ωt + θ) passes from a heavier string to a lighter string. The reflected wave has amplitude 0.5 A. The junction of the strings is at x = 0. The equation of the reflected wave is:
As wave has been reflected from a rarer medium,therefore there is no change in phase.Hence equation for the opposite direction can be written as:
y = 0.5A sin (-kx - ωt + θ) = -0.5A sin (kx + ωt - θ)
A string of length 1.5 m with its two ends clamped is vibrating in fundamental mode. Amplitude at the centre of the string is 4 mm. Minimum distance between the two points having amplitude 2 mm is:
λ = 2ℓ = 3m
Equation of standing wave y = 2A sin kx cos ωt y = A as amplitude is 2A.
A = 2A sin kx
and ⇒ x2 = 1.25 m ⇒ x2 - x1 = 1m
The average density of Earth’s crust 10 km beneath the surface is 2.7 gm/cm3. The speed of longitudnal seismic waves at that depth is 5.4 km/s. The bulk modulus of Earth’s crust considering its behavior as fluid at that depth, is :
⇒ B = V2ρ
= (5.40 x 103 m/s)2 (2.7 x 103) = 7.9 x 1010 Pa.
The second overtone of an open pipe A and a closed pipe B have the same frequencies at a given temperature. Both pipes contain air. The ratio of fundamental frequency of A to the fundamental frequency of B is:
Second overtone of open pipe
second overtone of closed pipe
Since, ratio of frequency are same ∴
Now, the ratio of fundamental frequencies :
A thin uniform rod is suspended in vertical plane as a physical pendulum about point A. The time period of oscillation is T0. Not counting the point A, the number 'n' of other points of suspension on rod such that the time period of oscillation (in vertical plane) is again T0. Then the value of n is : (Since the rod is thin, consider one point for each transverse cross section of rod)
When the point of suspension is at a distance x from centre of length of rod, the time period of oscillation is where I is length of the rod.
The time period of oscillation will be same (T0) if the point of suspension is a distance x = λ/2 or x = λ/6 from centre of the rod. Thus there will be three additional points.
Two radio station that are 250m apart emit radio waves of wavelength 100m. Point A is 400m from both station. Point B is 450m from both station. Point C is 400m from one station and 450 m from the other. The radio station emit radio waves in phase. Which of the following statement is true ?
At points A and B, path difference between the waves coming from two radio stations is zero. Hence there will be constructive interference at A and B,
For point C, path difference between the waves is 50 metre i.e. λ/2 so
destructive interference takes places at point C.
A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude 'a'. The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance a/2 from the extreme position is :
The magnitude of displacement in the given time interval = a/2
Time taken by the particle to cover a distance a/2 starting from rest = T/6
Hence the magnitude of average velocity over given time interval is
A simple pendulum 50 cm long is suspended from the roof of a cart accelerating in the horizontal direction with constant acceleration √3 g m/s2. The period of small oscillations of the pendulum about its equilibrium position is (g = π2 m/s2) :
With respect to the cart, equilibrium position of the pendulum is shown. If displaced by small angle θ from this position, then it will execute SHM about this equilibrium position, time period of which is given by :
⇒ geff = 2g ⇒ T = 1.0 second
A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y directions according to, x = 3 sin 100 πt; y = 4 sin 100 πt :
x = 3 sin 100 πt
y = 4 sin 100 πt
Equation of path is
which is equation of a straight line having slope = 4/3
Equation of resulting motion is
When a wave pulse traveling in a string is reflected from a rigid wall to which string is tied as shown in figure. For this situation two statements are given below :
(1) The reflected pulse will be in same orientation of incident pulse due to a phase change of p radians
(2) During reflection the wall exert a force on string in upward direction
For the above given two statements choose the correct option given below :
Reflected pulse will be inverted as it is reflected by a denser medium. The wall exerts force in downward direction.
The equation of displacement due to a sound wave is s = s0 sin2 (ωt - kx). If the bulk modulus of the medium is B, then the equation of pressure variation due to that sound is :
The equation of pressure variation due to sound is
A point source of power 50π watts is producing sound waves of frequency 1875Hz. The velocity of sound is 330m/s, atmospheric pressure is 1.0 x 105 Nm-2, density of air is 1.0 kgm-3. Then pressure amplitude at r = m from the point source is (using π = 22/7) :
where P, P0 , V are power, pressure amplitude and velocity respectively.
An organ pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at other end. The wavelengths of the three lowest resonating frequencies that can be produced by this pipe are :
has correct IUPAC named as :
when attached to a ring, it is named as carboxamide.
has higher priority than – C ≡ N
(3) – C ≡ N has perfix cyano
The homologue of Ethyl propanoate is :
Geometrical isomerism is not shown by
Conditions for geometrical isomerism is not fulfilled in C.
Identify the option of correct isomeric relation.
I & II have change in position of π-bond.
II & III have different geometrical orientations.
I & III also have change in position of π-bond.
'm' monochloro structural isomeric products
The value of m and n are respectively :
'm' no. of products
'n' no. of products
reacts with carbonyls (Aldehyde/ketones) to give yellow ppt.
A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde is heated with 2,4 DNP. How many fractions of organic products will obtained after fractional distillation of product mixture.
Benzaldehyde is unsymmetrical, gives 2 product but formaldehyde is symmetrical ,gives only one product.
Compare the physical properties (μ, b.p, m.p, &stability) in the geometrical isomers CH3 - CH = CH - CNChoose from the following options:
In trans isomer there is linear addition of bond dipoles hence μ isgreater and its B.P will be more. Packing in trans is better hence m.p is more.
An organic compound X(C5H10) on ozonolysis gives Y & Z. The product mixture Y and Z on reaction with NH2 – OH gives four oximes. The structure of X is
Which is least acidic.
-I group increases acidic strength and I effects depend upon distance.
Which of the following structures are superimposable (identical) :
Both in (I) & (III) configuration at lower chiral carbon is 'R' and upper chiral carbon is 'S'.
If optical rotation is produced by is + 36o then that is produced by
Rotation of the compound in question is zero because it is a meso compound.
The major product (ester) of the following reaction is
The most stable conformation of 3-fluorobutan-2-ol is :
(Stable due to intramolecular H bonding)
Arrange in decreasing order of e-density in Benzene ring-
Electron donating ability of group order :
-NH2 > -N(CH3)2 > - NH - CHO > -NH2
A Natural Drug was having [a] = 40.3º in polarimeter experiment in clockwise direction what can be the structure of this drug.
is optically active compound so it rotate the plane of ppl.
Acetaldehyde and acetylene can not be distinguished by :
Lucas reagent can not be used to distinguished Acetaldehyde and acetylene.
Which is the most stable resonating structure.
Negative charge on more electronegative atom is more stable.
In which delocalisation of positive charge is possible
In all other cases positive charge is not in conjugation.
Which of the following pairs of structures do not represent resonating structures ?
Structures given in option(A) are tautomers.
Catalytic hydrogenation of which of the following, gives a product that gives two monophotochlorination products (considering structural isomers only)?
Stability of following alkenes in the increasing order is:
No of hyperconjugation structures in I ,III ,IV and II are respectively 3,6,6 and 6.Trans is more stable than cis isomer.
Which of the following can not give H2 gas with sodium metal ?
Ketones do not give H2 gas with sodium metal.
Select the structure with correct numbering for IUPAC name of the compound.
OH is senior than SH.
Find the acid strength order:
(I) O2N - CH2 - COOH
(II) F - CH2 - COOH
(III) H3CO - CH2 - COOH
(IV) CH3 - CH2 - COOH
(Acidity ∝ -I strength of groups attached)
-I strength is in order -NO2 > -F> -OCH3 & -CH2CH3 is +I group
Mark the strongest acid in following questions
-NO2 at para position increases acidity at the maximum extent due to its strong -m and -I effect.
Consider the set of three compounds, which is true about basicity of these compounds in water ?
(2) Me2NH and
In RNH2, R2NH, R3N ; the order of base strength is 2° > 1° > 3° when R = Me and the order is 2° > 3° > 1° when R = Et.
A saturated hydrocarbon 'X' having molecular formula (C6H12) will form only one monochloro product on reaction with Cl2 in presence of ultravoilet light. Calculate the number of dichloroproducts (structural only) of the same compound 'X'.
Which resonating structure is more contributor to the actual structure ?
The structures with the least separation of formal charges are more stable. In structure C the charges are closer together making it more stable.
The correct structure of tautomer of the following compound can be:
The corresponding anion
because negative charges is stablised by two -m groups.
∴ The enolate ion is easily formed
Acidic strength of marked hydrogen of following compound in decreasing order is
The correct IUPAC name of following compound is
is parent chain and (2- hydroxybutyl) group is substituent.
A hydrocarbon (P) on ozonolysis in presence of zinc gives only one dicarbonyl compound, which gives both Tollen’s and iodoform test. Identify the structure of (P).
Product gives both tollen's & iodoform test.
Consider the true/false of the following statements:
S1: The most stable resonating structure of p-nitrophenol (not having aromatic ring) is .
S2 : In all C–O bonds are of equal length.
S3 : CH3COONa is more resonance stabilised than the protonated acid CH3COOH.
S4 : Benzene ring is more electron dense in phenol than phenoxide.
S1 : Most stable resonating structure is
group has greater +m effect, so it makes phenoxide ion more electron dense.
Choose the strongest base among the following :
Only in (D) the l.p of N atom is not involved in resonance with benzene ring.
A hydrocarbon ‘X’ C7H10 is catalytically hydrogenated to C7H14 ‘Y’. 'Y' gives six monochloro products after photochemical chlorination. The structure of 'X' is -
C7H10 DU = 3
six monochloro products
The feasible reaction is :
Salicylic acid is more acidic than p-hydroxy benzoic acid.
The incorrect information about the given reaction is :
The compound (I) does not racemise during enolisation, because the carbon atom with α-H is not asysmmetric carbon atom.
For the given reaction the correct reactivity order of H-atoms is :
Reactivity depends upon stability of free radicals generated at y,zx and w respectively.
In the given sequence of reactions which of the following is the correct structure of compound A.
Which of the following is not correctly ordered for resonance stability
Follow the rules for stability of resonating structures (structure with more number of p-bonds is more stable).
Amongst the following compounds select the strongest acid.
In acid (C), the group at ortho position is a –M group.
Amongst the following compounds select the strongest acid.
Sulphonic acid will be strongest acid.
Amongst the following compounds select the correct acidic strength order
–M effect increases acidic strength more as compare to –I effect.
Arrange the following carbocations in increasing order of stability:
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
The human body possesses four types of tissues, namely muscle, epithelial, connective and nervous. Connective tissue is further divided into six types, blood, lymph, bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, tendons and ligaments.
Few features are given-
(I) hypodermal sclerenchyma
(II) Conjoint Vascular bundle
(III ) unequal size Vascular bundle
(IV) parenchymatous endodermis
(V) presence of protoxylem in vascular bundle
How many features can belong to dicot stem-
Dicot stem have conjoint vascular bundle and endodermis is made up of parenchyma and also protoxylem present in primary xylem
Which of the following option have all cell/tissue is present as a ground tissue in plant organ-
Transverse section – epidernmis – vascular bundle = ground tissue
Which of the following feature belong to meristimatic cells-
Meristematic cells are: thin walled, dense cytoplasm, in an active state of division, conspicuous nuclei, small size, isodiametric or polyhedral in shape, possess only primary cell wall, no lignin/suberin deposition, plasmodesmata present.
Which of the following is not parenchymatous in nature-
pericycle of dicot stem- sclerenchyma and hypodermis of monocot stem sclerenchyma
Age of tree can be calculated by counting number of –
Secondary xylem is the type of xylem formed fromsecondary growth. In comparison, the primary xylemforms during primary growth. Because of this, thesecondary xylem is associated with lateral growth rather than vertical growth as in the primary xylem.
Which of the following group of feature belong to Dicot stem-
The presence of interfasicular cambium and Vascular bundle is shown in the diagrammatic representation of dicotyledonous stem above.
Which of the following is not present in Monocot stem-
Mark the incorrectly matched-
Spring wood have less amount of xylem fibres that are present in secondary xylem and due to this reason density of spring wood is less.
Which of the following is not product of redifferentiation-
Cork cambium is product of dedifferentiation
Which of the following not undergo dedifferentiation-
Interfasicular cambium is product of dedifferentiation.
Mark the correctly matched about monocot-
The sclerenchymatous hypodermis is present in a monocotyledonous stem. The hypodermis is two to three-layered thick and lies below the epidermis. It is made up of thick-walled lignified sclerenchyma fibers.
Lenticels and collenchymatous hypodermis both can be present in-
Lenticels are present in dicot stem and dicot root.
In Given, how many are present in monocot plant – Lenticels, stomata, phloem parenchyma, phloem fibre , cuticle, endodermis, root hair, phellogen ,secondary medullary rays
lenticels, secondary medullary rays are product of secondary growth Phloem fibre and phloem parenchyma absent in monocot and phellogen also absent in monocot.
Which of the following is not role of parenchyma-
The functions of parenchyma tissues are storage, photosynthesis, and to help the plant float on water. Collenchyma- Are similar to parenchyma cells with thicker cell walls. They are meant to provide mechanical support to the plant structure in parts such as petiole of the leaf.
Which of the following have thickest wall –
Sclereids are a reduced form of sclerenchyma cells with highly thickened, lignified cellular walls that form small bundles of durable layers of tissue in most plants. The presence of numerous sclereids form the cores of apples and produce the gritty texture of guavas.
In Given Examples, how many are triploblastic-
Echinus, Cucumaria, pleurobranchia , Ctenoplana , Gorgonia , Ascidia and Salpa
Mark the correctly matched –
Clarias batrachus, a benthic species, has both a suprabranchial chamber (SC) and a Weberian apparatus-linked, encapsulated gas bladder (WGB).
Consider the following statements, mark the incorrect-
In mosses, as in liverworts and hornworts, the leafy shoots belong to the gametophytic phase and produce sex organs when they mature. The leafy shoots (often called gametophores, because they bear the sex organs) arise from a preliminary phase called the protonema, the direct product of spore germination.
Consider the following statements, mark the incorrect-
The fucus has a diplontic life cycle. Both the male and female fuse in the ostiole of the bump.
Consider the following statement-
(a) Marchantia have dioceious sporophyte
(b) homosporus Pteridophye have both sporophye and gametophyte freeliving
(c) gemmae cup develop on thallus produce sexual bud
Mark the correct option-
Consider the following statement-
(a) Zygote of algae always undergo reduction division except in diplontic and haplo-diplontic algae
(b) Both algae and bryophyte is homosporus
How many statements are correct -
Consider the following statements and mark the incorrect-
Red algae is non motile.
Match the following-
Which is/are correctly matched-
(1) Heterosporus - selaginella and salvinia
(2) Gymnosperm female gametophyte - archegonia and embryo sac
(3) Air pollinated - Cedrus, ficus, pinus
(4) Prothallus - Dryopteris and Pteridium
How many are the correct -
Gymnosperm lack embryosac and prothallus is present in homosporus pteridophyte like fern.
Which of following features matched with most of the bryophytes-
(1) spore stage undergo mitosis.
(2) diploid stage is multicellular and undergo meiosis
(3) diploid stage is represented by one cell stage
(4) no free living sporophyte
How many are the correct -
Diploid sporophyte is multicellular in bryophyte which is dependent and show meiosis.
Consider the following statements -
(1) In cycas male sporangia and female sporangia are borne on different tree
(2) branched stem is present in pinus and cedrus
(3) In cycas corraloid root is present
(4) In gymnosperm ovule are exposed both before and after fertilization
How many are the correct –
Cycas show coralloid root, and exposed ovule is present before fertilization and after fertilization it form seed.
Non motile spores are present in –
Polysiphonia and porphyra is red algae and non motile.
Which of the following is non-motile anisogamous-
Spirogyra is non-motile anisogamou , gelidium and porphyra is non-motile but oogamous.
Which of the following are oogamous and non-motile male gamets-
Bryophyte and pteridophyte have motile male gamete and gymnosperm and angiosperm have non-motile gamets.
Which of the following have sporophyte with vascular bundle-
Pteridophyte, gymnosperm and angiosperm have vascular sporophyte.
Consdier the following feature-
Internal fertilization, open circulatory system, malphigian tubule, triploblastic, nephridia, organ system-
How many feature are common in annelida and arthropoda-
Annelida and arthropoda share dissimilarities on the mode of fertilisation, circulatory system and organ system.
Which of the following not correct about mollusca-
Sensory tentacle located on anterior head region.
Mark the correctly matched-
Mark the incorrect statement –
The body of amphibians is divisible into head and trunk.
Mesoglea layer may be present in-
Mesoglea layer present in diploblastic organism.
Which of the following show asexual reproduction-
Sponges and Coelentrata reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Which of the following is not dioceious-
Echinodermata and Aschehelminthes are mostly dioceious.
Which of the following feature not match with Osteichthyes-
The mouth of Osteichthyes is apical in position.
Consider the following statements-
(1) acoelomates organism can be triploblastic
(2) some acoelomate organism also show organ system level of organization
How many statement are correct-
Platyhelminthes are acoelomate and triploblastic but Achehelminthes show organ system but are pseudocoelomate.
Internal fertilization present in –
Organ system level of organization absent in –
Flat worm (taenia) lack organ system level of organization.
Water vascular system present in all except-
Dentallium is an example of phylum mollusca and Asterias, Ophiura, Antedon are examples of phylum echinodermata which posses water vascular system.
Water vascular system is present in all except one of the function
Internal fertilization is present in –
Most reptiles reproduce sexually and have internal fertilisation. Calotes are an example of internal fertilisation.
Mark the incorrect –
Birds have direct development.
Which of the following is not hypogynous –
All four families –fabaceae, solanaceae,liiaceae and brassicaceae are hypogynous along with mustard, chilli and brinjal.
Which of the following is not tap root modification-
Asparagus is fibrous root modification and pneumatophore develop from prop root
Mark the correctly matched-
Modified stems or leaves known as tendrils are seen in Vitis and passiflora. These tendrils develop from either the axillary bud or the terminal bud of the stem. Specifically, In Passiflora, the tendrils develop from the axillary bud.
Which region in root is responsible for Growth of root in length-
Length increase by only zone of elongation
Mark the wrongly matched-
In Australian Accacia plant, leaves are small and long lived.
Which is correct statement-
The seed coat is thin membranous in groundnut, gram and maize seeds.
Few Examples are given-
Pea, bean, belladonna, Aloe, Asparagus, mustard, indigofera, Gloriosa, groundnut and makoi
How many have zygomophic flower
Examples of fabaceae are zygomorphic
Few features are given-
Endospermous, Actinomorphic, basal leaf, epipetalous, bicarpellary, superior ovary, reticulate venation and glabrous
How many belong to liliaceae-
Epipetalous, bicarpellary, reticulate venation and glabrous are feature of solanaceae
Among given feature-
Axile placentation, apocarpous, diadelphous, twisted aestivation, monodelphous, alternate phyllotaxy
How many belong to china rose-
China rose given separately in example of axile placentation, monodelphous, alternate phyllotaxy and twisted aestivation
Monocarpellary ovary absent in-
petunia is bicarpellary as it belong to solanaceae
Which is not correct-
Papilionaceous corolla has five free petals which resemble the butterfly. The posterior superior petal is larger than the others, two anterior inferior petals are more or less united forming a boat-shaped structure and are called carina or keel, two lateral petals called wings are present.
Which of the following example is non-endospermous except
In non- endospermic seeds like orchid, pea, lupin, the endosperm is completely consumed by the embryo.
Which is incorrect about solanaceae-
In Solanaceae, the gynoecium is bicarpellary and the seeds are endospermic. Flowers of Solanaceae family are called as hypogynous flower as the sepals, petals, stamens are successively and freely inserted below the ovary and ovary is termed as superior.
Consider the following statement-
(1) Cassia and gulmohur have imbricate aestivation
(2) Superior ovary present in soyabean
How many are correct?
All are example of epigynous except
In epigynous flower, the thalamus grows around the ovary, fusing with its wall. The other floral parts are present above the ovary. Hence the ovary is said to be inferior. So, peach is not epigynous.
Which is incorrect about liliaceae-
Formed from six tepals arranged into two separate whorls of three parts each,Superior ovary, syncarpous, with three connate (fused) carpels and is trilocular or unilocular, actinomorphic (radially symmetric) or slightly zygomorphic (bilaterally symmetric), generally large and showy but may be inconspicuous.
Consider the following example-
Diatom, euglenoids, dinoflagellate, Trypanosoma, Agaricus, Ustilago, Albugo
How many can have motile asexual stage-
euglenoids, dinoflagellates, trypanosome and Albugo can have motile stage
Mark the wrongly matched –
Dikaryon not visible in phycomycetes.
Few structure are given –
Basidiocarp, ascocarp, conidiophores, prothallus, sporangium, Asci,
Zygospore and conidia
How many are diploid-
Conidiophore, prothallus and conidia are haploid.
Which of the following group of structure are genetically identical-
Hence, conidia and conidiophores are genetically identical.
Consider the following statement -
a) bacteria is chemosynthetic, photoautotrophic and heterotrophic
b) mostly bacteria is heterotrophic
c) bacteria show most variation in their metabolic diversity
Mark the correct option-
Which is true about viroids, how many are correct-
1) high molecular weight RNA molecule
2) have protein coat
3) cause potato spindle tuber disease
Mark the correct option-
Exogenously produced sexual spores are present in -
Sexual spores are mainly produced by fungi. Agaricus and puccinia belong to the kingdom fungi.
Which of the following example have endogenously produced asexual spores-
Mark the correct statements-
1) basidiomycetes lack asexual spores
2) basidiomycetes lack sex organs
3) basidiomycetes have rust and smut fungi
Mark the correct statements-
In basidiomycetes, asexual reproduction by asexual spores is absent except in rusts and smut. In basidiomycetes, sex organs are absent because secular reproduction is by somatogamy.
Which of the following not give much help in correct identification –
Zoological park is for keeping animal in human care.