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IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Banking Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 for Banking Exams 2024 is part of Banking Exams preparation. The IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Banking Exams exam syllabus.The IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for Banking Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 below.
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IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. How is Christopher related to Evelyn?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. How many male members are there?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Hence the correct answer is option C.

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IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. If Jackie is the wife of James then how is Henry related to Jackie?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. How is Ava related to Jacob?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Hence correct answer is option B.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. Who is the father of Evelyn?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Hence the correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Direction: Below in each question are given some statements. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these statements.

I. The standard of living in the Indian setup has seen a sharp rise along with a marked increase in consumer spending over the past few years.

II. The gross domestic income has seen a fluctuation in the past few years which might not bode well for the Indian economy at large.

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
Neither statement has seen any corroboration for why it is happening. Hence, both the statements are the effects of independent causes
IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Direction: Below in each question are given some statements. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these statements.

I. In urban areas, the poor bear the brunt of environmental effects such as water or air pollution.

II. The rapid urban development has outpaced the development of environmental infrastructure in many large cities.

III. Just for the own sake of profit, builders in urban areas are indulge in construction work without tendering about the environment and urban poor, who mostly dies from chronicle diseases.

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
Just because of builders which are indulge in profit business without caring about environment and poor people which suffers most and dies due to chronicle diseases. And development of environment has lack behind due to rapid urban development. Thus, statement III is the cause, I and II are its effect.
IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Ten friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I and J travel to different cities namely Ranchi, Patna, Siwan and Ara on four different dates such as 5,10,15 and 20 of a month but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons travelling the same city travel on the same date. Minimum of two persons travels one city. At least two people travel on the same date.

A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. one people travel between A and C. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. E and F both travel to Patna but none of them travels on 20. J travels on 15 of the month. I travel to Ara either on 10 or 20 of the month. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels on 20. E travels on 15. The one travelling to Siwan leaves on 15 of the month. G travels to Ara. D travels to Siwan. Three people travel to Ranchi.

Q. Which of the following pairs travel to Siwan?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
1. A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. Two people travel between A and C. Therefore C travels on 5. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. If H travels to Ranchi on 5 then C travels to Patna as no two person travel the same place on same date. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels to Ara on 20.

2. E and F both travel to Patna. E travels on 15. Therefore F travels on 10 as neither E nor F travel on 20 and C travels to Patna on 5. I travels to Ara on 10 as G travels to Ara on 20. D travels to Siwan on 15. J travels on 15 to Ranchi as three people travel to Ranchi.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Ten friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I and J travel to different cities namely Ranchi, Patna, Siwan and Ara on four different dates such as 5,10,15 and 20 of a month but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons travelling the same city travel on the same date. Minimum of two persons travels one city. At least two people travel on the same date.

A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. one people travel between A and C. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. E and F both travel to Patna but none of them travels on 20. J travels on 15 of the month. I travel to Ara either on 10 or 20 of the month. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels on 20. E travels on 15. The one travelling to Siwan leaves on 15 of the month. G travels to Ara. D travels to Siwan. Three people travel to Ranchi.

Q. I travels on which date?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
1. A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. Two people travel between A and C. Therefore C travels on 5. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. If H travels to Ranchi on 5 then C travels to Patna as no two person travel the same place on same date. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels to Ara on 20.

2. E and F both travel to Patna. E travels on 15. Therefore F travels on 10 as neither E nor F travel on 20 and C travels to Patna on 5. I travels to Ara on 10 as G travels to Ara on 20. D travels to Siwan on 15. J travels on 15 to Ranchi as three people travel to Ranchi.

Hence correct answer is option B.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Ten friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I and J travel to different cities namely Ranchi, Patna, Siwan and Ara on four different dates such as 5,10,15 and 20 of a month but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons travelling the same city travel on the same date. Minimum of two persons travels one city. At least two people travel on the same date.

A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. one people travel between A and C. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. E and F both travel to Patna but none of them travels on 20. J travels on 15 of the month. I travel to Ara either on 10 or 20 of the month. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels on 20. E travels on 15. The one travelling to Siwan leaves on 15 of the month. G travels to Ara. D travels to Siwan. Three people travel to Ranchi.

Q. How many people travel patna?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 10
1. A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. Two people travel between A and C. Therefore C travels on 5. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. If H travels to Ranchi on 5 then C travels to Patna as no two person travel the same place on same date. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels to Ara on 20.

2. E and F both travel to Patna. E travels on 15. Therefore F travels on 10 as neither E nor F travel on 20 and C travels to Patna on 5. I travels to Ara on 10 as G travels to Ara on 20. D travels to Siwan on 15. J travels on 15 to Ranchi as three people travel to Ranchi.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Ten friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I and J travel to different cities namely Ranchi, Patna, Siwan and Ara on four different dates such as 5,10,15 and 20 of a month but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons travelling the same city travel on the same date. Minimum of two persons travels one city. At least two people travel on the same date.

A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. one people travel between A and C. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. E and F both travel to Patna but none of them travels on 20. J travels on 15 of the month. I travel to Ara either on 10 or 20 of the month. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels on 20. E travels on 15. The one travelling to Siwan leaves on 15 of the month. G travels to Ara. D travels to Siwan. Three people travel to Ranchi.

Q. How many people travel on 5 of the month?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
1. A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. Two people travel between A and C. Therefore C travels on 5. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. If H travels to Ranchi on 5 then C travels to Patna as no two person travel the same place on same date. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels to Ara on 20.

2. E and F both travel to Patna. E travels on 15. Therefore F travels on 10 as neither E nor F travel on 20 and C travels to Patna on 5. I travels to Ara on 10 as G travels to Ara on 20. D travels to Siwan on 15. J travels on 15 to Ranchi as three people travel to Ranchi.

Hence correct answer is option B.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Ten friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I and J travel to different cities namely Ranchi, Patna, Siwan and Ara on four different dates such as 5,10,15 and 20 of a month but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons travelling the same city travel on the same date. Minimum of two persons travels one city. At least two people travel on the same date.

A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. one people travel between A and C. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. E and F both travel to Patna but none of them travels on 20. J travels on 15 of the month. I travel to Ara either on 10 or 20 of the month. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels on 20. E travels on 15. The one travelling to Siwan leaves on 15 of the month. G travels to Ara. D travels to Siwan. Three people travel to Ranchi.

Q. F travels to which city?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
1. A is travelling to Ranchi on 20. Two people travel between A and C. Therefore C travels on 5. C either travels to Patna or Ranchi. H travels to Ranchi on 5. If H travels to Ranchi on 5 then C travels to Patna as no two person travel the same place on same date. B travels to Siwan on 20. G travels to Ara on 20.

2. E and F both travel to Patna. E travels on 15. Therefore F travels on 10 as neither E nor F travel on 20 and C travels to Patna on 5. I travels to Ara on 10 as G travels to Ara on 20. D travels to Siwan on 15. J travels on 15 to Ranchi as three people travel to Ranchi.

Hence correct answer is option A.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Direction: In the following questions, a statement is followed by some courses of action. Assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement:

According to recent reports, more than two-thirds vehicles of a recently launched model of the brand X were recalled due to a major exhaust issue.

Course of Action:

I. Brand X should stop the production temporarily and focus on rectifying the problem.

II. Brand X should ignore the problem and focus on its more popular models in the market

III. Customers of Brand X should be advised to switch to a newer player in the market – Brand Y till the time being.

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
The management of brand X should stop the production and rectify the issue at the earliest and this should be followed by the course of action III. Thus, option 1 is the only logical course of action.
IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Direction: In the following questions, a statement is followed by some courses of action. Assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement:

Recently launched Model X of a popular Smartphone Company has major issues in camera and speaker etc.

Course of Action:

I. The company should refrain from launching new models in the near future.

II. The company should issue an apology to the customers and advise them against using it.

III. The company should discontinue the manufacture of Model X immediately.

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
None of the above courses of action are in the interest of the company and therefore does not follow logically.
IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Few people sit on a straight line and belong to four different countries namely India, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives. Minimum three people belong to same country. Some of them face north while some face south. A and B sit at the extreme end, both face the same direction and belong to the same country. Three people sit between A and Q. Q sits fourth to the left of A and belongs to India. The immediate neighbours of Z face the same direction as Z and belong to the same country as Z. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Five people sit between A and T. Both P and R face north. B faces south and belongs to Maldives. P and R are immediate neighbours of each other. X sits fourth to the right of B and belongs to Bhutan. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V and belongs to Bhutan. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. P is an immediate neighbour of A, who belongs to Maldives. V is an immediate neighbour of B and belongs to Nepal. P belongs to Bhutan. Y belongs to Maldives. Four people belong to Nepal.

Q. How many people face north?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
Since B faces south then A also face south. Q sits fourth to the left of A. V is an immediate neighbour of B. Five people sit between A and T. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Therefore Q is also an immediate neighbour of Z. P is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits fourth to the right of B. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. B, A and Y belong to Maldives. Since immediate neighbour of Z are Q and T therefore all of them belong to India. W, P and X belong to Bhutan. And the rest four people V, R, S and U all belong to Nepal.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Few people sit on a straight line and belong to four different countries namely India, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives. Minimum three people belong to same country. Some of them face north while some face south. A and B sit at the extreme end, both face the same direction and belong to the same country. Three people sit between A and Q. Q sits fourth to the left of A and belongs to India. The immediate neighbours of Z face the same direction as Z and belong to the same country as Z. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Five people sit between A and T. Both P and R face north. B faces south and belongs to Maldives. P and R are immediate neighbours of each other. X sits fourth to the right of B and belongs to Bhutan. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V and belongs to Bhutan. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. P is an immediate neighbour of A, who belongs to Maldives. V is an immediate neighbour of B and belongs to Nepal. P belongs to Bhutan. Y belongs to Maldives. Four people belong to Nepal.

Q. How many persons sit between S and W?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
Since B faces south then A also face south. Q sits fourth to the left of A. V is an immediate neighbour of B. Five people sit between A and T. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Therefore Q is also an immediate neighbour of Z. P is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits fourth to the right of B. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. B, A and Y belong to Maldives. Since immediate neighbour of Z are Q and T therefore all of them belong to India. W, P and X belong to Bhutan. And the rest four people V, R, S and U all belong to Nepal.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Few people sit on a straight line and belong to four different countries namely India, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives. Minimum three people belong to same country. Some of them face north while some face south. A and B sit at the extreme end, both face the same direction and belong to the same country. Three people sit between A and Q. Q sits fourth to the left of A and belongs to India. The immediate neighbours of Z face the same direction as Z and belong to the same country as Z. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Five people sit between A and T. Both P and R face north. B faces south and belongs to Maldives. P and R are immediate neighbours of each other. X sits fourth to the right of B and belongs to Bhutan. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V and belongs to Bhutan. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. P is an immediate neighbour of A, who belongs to Maldives. V is an immediate neighbour of B and belongs to Nepal. P belongs to Bhutan. Y belongs to Maldives. Four people belong to Nepal.

Q. Who sits second right to Q?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
Since B faces south then A also face south. Q sits fourth to the left of A. V is an immediate neighbour of B. Five people sit between A and T. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Therefore Q is also an immediate neighbour of Z. P is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits fourth to the right of B. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. B, A and Y belong to Maldives. Since immediate neighbour of Z are Q and T therefore all of them belong to India. W, P and X belong to Bhutan. And the rest four people V, R, S and U all belong to Nepal.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Few people sit on a straight line and belong to four different countries namely India, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives. Minimum three people belong to same country. Some of them face north while some face south. A and B sit at the extreme end, both face the same direction and belong to the same country. Three people sit between A and Q. Q sits fourth to the left of A and belongs to India. The immediate neighbours of Z face the same direction as Z and belong to the same country as Z. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Five people sit between A and T. Both P and R face north. B faces south and belongs to Maldives. P and R are immediate neighbours of each other. X sits fourth to the right of B and belongs to Bhutan. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V and belongs to Bhutan. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. P is an immediate neighbour of A, who belongs to Maldives. V is an immediate neighbour of B and belongs to Nepal. P belongs to Bhutan. Y belongs to Maldives. Four people belong to Nepal.

Q. Total seats in the row?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
Since B faces south then A also face south. Q sits fourth to the left of A. V is an immediate neighbour of B. Five people sit between A and T. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Therefore Q is also an immediate neighbour of Z. P is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits fourth to the right of B. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. B, A and Y belong to Maldives. Since immediate neighbour of Z are Q and T therefore all of them belong to India. W, P and X belong to Bhutan. And the rest four people V, R, S and U all belong to Nepal.

Hence correct answer is option E.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Few people sit on a straight line and belong to four different countries namely India, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives. Minimum three people belong to same country. Some of them face north while some face south. A and B sit at the extreme end, both face the same direction and belong to the same country. Three people sit between A and Q. Q sits fourth to the left of A and belongs to India. The immediate neighbours of Z face the same direction as Z and belong to the same country as Z. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Five people sit between A and T. Both P and R face north. B faces south and belongs to Maldives. P and R are immediate neighbours of each other. X sits fourth to the right of B and belongs to Bhutan. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V and belongs to Bhutan. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. P is an immediate neighbour of A, who belongs to Maldives. V is an immediate neighbour of B and belongs to Nepal. P belongs to Bhutan. Y belongs to Maldives. Four people belong to Nepal.

Q. How many people face south?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
Since B faces south then A also face south. Q sits fourth to the left of A. V is an immediate neighbour of B. Five people sit between A and T. T is immediate neighbour of Z and faces south. Therefore Q is also an immediate neighbour of Z. P is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits fourth to the right of B. Two people sit between X and S. Y is an immediate neighbour of S and sits to immediate right of S. Two people sit between Y and W. W sits second left to V. W faces south. X sits to immediate right of U. B, A and Y belong to Maldives. Since immediate neighbour of Z are Q and T therefore all of them belong to India. W, P and X belong to Bhutan. And the rest four people V, R, S and U all belong to Nepal.

Hence correct answer is option E.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O. H sits seventh to the left of O. G sits to the right of H. The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P. J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Q. What is the position of F with respect to the person who sits second to left of N ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O.

The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P.

Case 1 is neglected as J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Final arrangement would be:

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O. H sits seventh to the left of O. G sits to the right of H. The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P. J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Q. Which of the following statements is true ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O.

The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P.

Case 1 is neglected as J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Final arrangement would be:

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O. H sits seventh to the left of O. G sits to the right of H. The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P. J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Q. How many people sit between H and J ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
N sits fifth to right of F. Only two persons sit between F and O.

The number of persons sitting between O and N is one less than that between H and G. P sits between O and G. P is not an immediate neighbour of F. J sits seventh to the right of P.

Case 1 is neglected as J sits at an extreme end of the line. As many persons sit between J and N as to the left of H.

Final arrangement would be:

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are different numbers of flats in each floor of an eight-storey building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Area of the floor is 800sqft i.e. which is equal for each floor. Floor 5 has 10 numbers of flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is below the floor that contains 10 flats. Only two flats are between the floor that contains 20 flats and flat which has an area of 400sqft each. The flat which has an area of 32sqft each is either at the lowermost or topmost floor. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats.

Q. How many floors are there between the floor that contains 10 flats and 25 flats?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Floor 5 contains 10 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each means it contains 20 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 20 flats and the floor which contains 2 flats, i.e. floor 4 contains 2 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats, so the lowermost floor contains 25 flats. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats means the topmost floor has 4 flats. Floor 3 has 8 flats whereas floor 2 has 16 flats as the floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are different numbers of flats in each floor of an eight-storey building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Area of the floor is 800sqft i.e. which is equal for each floor. Floor 5 has 10 numbers of flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is below the floor that contains 10 flats. Only two flats are between the floor that contains 20 flats and flat which has an area of 400sqft each. The flat which has an area of 32sqft each is either at the lowermost or topmost floor. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats.

Q. Flat which has an area of 50sqft is on which floor?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
Floor 5 contains 10 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each means it contains 20 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 20 flats and the floor which contains 2 flats, i.e. floor 4 contains 2 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats, so the lowermost floor contains 25 flats. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats means the topmost floor has 4 flats. Floor 3 has 8 flats whereas floor 2 has 16 flats as the floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats.

Hence correct answer is option E.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are different numbers of flats in each floor of an eight-storey building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Area of the floor is 800sqft i.e. which is equal for each floor. Floor 5 has 10 numbers of flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is below the floor that contains 10 flats. Only two flats are between the floor that contains 20 flats and flat which has an area of 400sqft each. The flat which has an area of 32sqft each is either at the lowermost or topmost floor. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats.

Q. How many flats are on the topmost floor?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
Floor 5 contains 10 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40 sqft each means it contains 20 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 20 flats and the floor which contains 2 flats, i.e. floor 4 contains 2 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats, so the lowermost floor contains 25 flats. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats means the topmost floor has 4 flats. Floor 3 has 8 flats whereas floor 2 has 16 flats as the floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats.

Hence correct answer is option D.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are different numbers of flats in each floor of an eight-storey building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Area of the floor is 800sqft i.e. which is equal for each floor. Floor 5 has 10 numbers of flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is below the floor that contains 10 flats. Only two flats are between the floor that contains 20 flats and flat which has an area of 400sqft each. The flat which has an area of 32sqft each is either at the lowermost or topmost floor. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats.

Q. What is the area of the flat at the topmost floor?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
Floor 5 contains 10 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40 sqft each means it contains 20 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 20 flats and the floor which contains 2 flats, i.e. floor 4 contains 2 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats, so the lowermost floor contains 25 flats. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats means the topmost floor has 4 flats. Floor 3 has 8 flats whereas floor 2 has 16 flats as the floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats.

Hence correct answer is option E.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are different numbers of flats in each floor of an eight-storey building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Area of the floor is 800sqft i.e. which is equal for each floor. Floor 5 has 10 numbers of flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is below the floor that contains 10 flats. Only two flats are between the floor that contains 20 flats and flat which has an area of 400sqft each. The flat which has an area of 32sqft each is either at the lowermost or topmost floor. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40sqft each. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats. The floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats.

Q. Flat which has an area of 100sqft is on which floor?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Floor 5 contains 10 flats. Floor 7 contains flat which has an area of 40 sqft each means it contains 20 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 20 flats and the floor which contains 2 flats, i.e. floor 4 contains 2 flats. There are two floors between the floor that contains 2 flats and that contains 25 flats, so the lowermost floor contains 25 flats. Floor 6 contains 5 flats. The floor that contains 4 flats is just above the floor that contains 20 flats means the topmost floor has 4 flats. Floor 3 has 8 flats whereas floor 2 has 16 flats as the floor that contains 8 flats is above the floor that contains 16 flats.

Hence correct answer is option A.

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 Draft 31 Sent 23 Mail 72 Spam

Step I: Draft 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72

Step II: Inbox Draft 24 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72 11

Step III: Mail Inbox Draft 24 Starred 31 Sent 23 Spam 72 11 48

Step IV: Starred Mail Inbox Draft 24 31 Sent Spam 72 11 48 23

Step V: Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 31 Spam 72 11 48 23 24

Step VI: Spam Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 72 11 48 23 24 31

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Q. What is the difference between the element which is sixth from left in Step IV and first from right in Step II?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
For words- One word will be arranged in one step. The word which comes first according to alphabetical series is arranged first from left and then all others words are arranged according to alphabetical series to the leftmost end. If two or more words have same first letter, then they are arranged according to the number of vowels in them, the word having more number of vowels is arranged first then following the less number of vowels. If two or more words have the same first letter and equal number of a vowel, then the words will be arranged according to the alphabetical series.

For numbers- Even Numbers are arranged in odd-numbered step,and odd numbers are arranged in even numbered step. Even numbers are arranged starting from the highest number in 1st step then second highest even number in 3rd step and so on from right end. . Odd numbers are arranged starting from the lowest number in 2nd step then second lowest even number in 4th step and so on from right end.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Step I: Assam35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68

Step II: Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68 35

Step III: Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46

Step IV: Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57

Step V: Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57 22

Step VI: Uttarakhand Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 68 35 46 57 22 79

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 Draft 31 Sent 23 Mail 72 Spam

Step I: Draft 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72

Step II: Inbox Draft 24 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72 11

Step III: Mail Inbox Draft 24 Starred 31 Sent 23 Spam 72 11 48

Step IV: Starred Mail Inbox Draft 24 31 Sent Spam 72 11 48 23

Step V: Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 31 Spam 72 11 48 23 24

Step VI: Spam Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 72 11 48 23 24 31

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Q. In which of the following step the elements “57 79 Uttarakhand” found in the same order?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
For words- One word will be arranged in one step. The word which comes first according to alphabetical series is arranged first from left and then all others words are arranged according to alphabetical series to the leftmost end. If two or more words have same first letter, then they are arranged according to the number of vowels in them, the word having more number of vowels is arranged first then following the less number of vowels. If two or more words have the same first letter and equal number of a vowel, then the words will be arranged according to the alphabetical series.

For numbers- Even Numbers are arranged in odd-numbered step, and odd numbers are arranged in even numbered step. Even numbers are arranged starting from the highest number in 1st step then second highest even number in 3rd step and so on from right end. . Odd numbers are arranged starting from the lowest number in 2nd step then second lowest even number in 4th step and so on from right end.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Step I: Assam35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68

Step II: Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68 35

Step III: Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46

Step IV: Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57

Step V: Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57 22

Step VI: Uttarakhand Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 68 35 46 57 22 79

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 Draft 31 Sent 23 Mail 72 Spam

Step I: Draft 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72

Step II: Inbox Draft 24 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72 11

Step III: Mail Inbox Draft 24 Starred 31 Sent 23 Spam 72 11 48

Step IV: Starred Mail Inbox Draft 24 31 Sent Spam 72 11 48 23

Step V: Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 31 Spam 72 11 48 23 24

Step VI: Spam Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 72 11 48 23 24 31

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Q. Which element is 6th to the right of the one which is 4th to the left element in step I ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS PO Mains Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
For words- One word will be arranged in one step. The word which comes first according to alphabetical series is arranged first from left and then all others words are arranged according to alphabetical series to the leftmost end. If two or more words have same first letter, then they are arranged according to the number of vowels in them, the word having more number of vowels is arranged first then following the less number of vowels. If two or more words have the same first letter and equal number of a vowel, then the words will be arranged according to the alphabetical series.

For numbers- Even Numbers are arranged in odd-numbered step,and odd numbers are arranged in even numbered step. Even numbers are arranged starting from the highest number in 1st step then second highest even number in 3rd step and so on from right end. . Odd numbers are arranged starting from the lowest number in 2nd step then second lowest even number in 4th step and so on from right end.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Step I: Assam35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68

Step II: Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68 35

Step III: Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46

Step IV: Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57

Step V: Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57 22

Step VI: Uttarakhand Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 68 35 46 57 22 79

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