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BPSC Practice Test- 1 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - BPSC Practice Test- 1

BPSC Practice Test- 1 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC (Bihar) preparation. The BPSC Practice Test- 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Practice Test- 1 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Practice Test- 1 below.
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BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 1

The candle flame is yellow and luminous due to

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 1
The candle flame is yellow and luminous due to incomplete combustion of wax vapour.

The wax vapours undergo incomplete combustion because of insufficient air. This incomplete combustion of wax vapour produces carbon particles. These unburnt carbon particles get heated up and start glowing. These glowing carbon particles make the flame bright yellow and luminous.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 2

Which of the following particulates cause bronchitis?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 2
Particles of dust, cement, and carbon particles in smoke may cause bronchitis.
  • Particles of lead oxide in automobile exhaust can cause brain damage in children.

  • Particles of mercury cause a disease called Minamata; which can lead to brain damage, mental retardation, and paralysis.

  • Sulphur dioxide causes respiratory problems or lung damage.

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BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 3

Urea is a nitrogen-release fertilizer. It contains

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 3
Urea contains 46% nitrogen.

IMPORTANT POINTS

  • Urea, also known as carbamide.

  • It is an organic compound with the chemical formula CO(NH2)2.

  • This amide has two –NH2 groups joined by a carbonyl (C=O) functional group.

  • It is a colorless, odorless solid, highly soluble in water

  • Dissolved in water, it is neither acidic nor alkaline.

  • The liver forms it by combining two ammonia molecules (NH3) with a carbon dioxide (CO2) molecule in the urea cycle.

  • Urea is widely used in fertilizers as a source of nitrogen (N) and is an important raw material for the chemical industry.

USES OF UREA

  • Urea is highly soluble in water and is therefore also very suitable for use in fertilizer solutions and as animal feed.

  • For the manufacture of plastics specifically, urea-formaldehyde resin(Plywood adhesive Fevicol)

  • For the manufacture of various glues (urea formaldehyde or urea-melamine-formaldehyde). The latter is waterproof and is used for marine plywood

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 4

When a molecule of lead nitrate is heated, then:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 4
2― moles of NO2 gas are produced.

Important Facts

  • Pb(NO3)2 is the molecular formula for lead nitrate.

  • 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2

  • On heating, lead nitrate decomposes into lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen, as shown in the reaction. Decomposition of lead nitrate produces lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.

  • When one mole of 2 Pb(NO3)2 is heated gives 2 moles of NO2

  • Here to balancing the equation, it shows - 4 moles of NO2

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 5

A permanent magnet repels only

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 5
A permanent magnet repels diamagnetic substances only.

Diamagnetic Substances

  • Diamagnetic substances are those which have a tendency to move from stronger to the weaker part of the external magnetic field.

  • In other words, unlike the way a magnet attracts metals like iron, it would repel a diamagnetic substance.

  • Example: Bismuth, Copper, Lead, Silicon, Nitrogen (at STP), Water, and Sodium Chloride.

  • The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism in superconductors is called the Meissner effect.

Option Explanation

Ferromagnetic Substances

  • Ferromagnetic substances are those which get strongly magnetised when placed in an external magnetic field.

  • They have a strong tendency to move from a region of the weak magnetic field to strong magnetic field, i.e., they get strongly attracted to a magnet.

  • Example: Iron, Cobalt, Nickel, Gadolinium, etc

Paramagnetic Substances

  • Paramagnetic substances are those which get weakly magnetized when placed in an external magnetic field. They have a tendency to move from a region of weak magnetic field to a strong magnetic field, i.e., they get weakly attracted to a magnet.

  • Example: Aluminium, Sodium, Calcium, Oxygen (at STP), and Copper Chloride.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 6

What is the maximum number of different electrical combinations possible with three equal resistances?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 6
4 different electrical combinations are possible with three equal resistances.
  • All in series

  • All in parallel

  • Two parallel resistances are in series with one resistance

  • Two resistances in the series are in parallel combination with the third resistance

Important Points

Series Combination

  • If different resistances are joined with each other such that there is only one path for the flow of electric current then the combination is called Series Combination.
  • In series combination current through each resistor is constant.
  • In series combination Potential difference across each resistor is different depending upon the value of resistance.
  • If one component is fused, then the other components of the circuit will not function.

Parallel Combination

  • If there is more than one path for the flow of current in a circuit then the combination of resistances is called Parallel Combination.
  • In parallel combination current through each resistor is different.
  • The potential difference across each resistor is constant.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 7

If the earth stops rotating, the apparent value of g on the earth surface will

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 7
The effect of rotation of the earth on gravitational acceleration g, appears everywhere but is negligible on poles.

If the earth stops rotating the value of g will remain the same at the poles and increase at other places.

Important Points:

Acceleration due to gravity (g)

Object receiving an acceleration due to the force of gravity acting on it is called gravitational acceleration.

The SI unit for the ‘g’ is m/s2

Its standard value is 9.8 m/s2 on the surface of the earth at sea level.

Acceleration due to gravity is defined as

g = GM/R2

Where,

G = Universal gravitational constant

M = Mass of the earth

R = Radius of earth

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 8

If the potential difference between the end of a wire of fixed resistance is doubled, by how much does the electric power increase?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 8
Electric power is defined as -

P=V2/R

Where, V = Potential difference

R = resistance

It is given that,

R is fixed and V becomes double

V ' = 2 V

Now, P' = (2V)2/R = 4 V2/R

P' = 4 (P)

So, the electric power becomes four times its previous value.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 9

Biofuel production is a conversion process of-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 9
The common method for converting biomass into ethanol is called fermentation. During fermentation, microorganisms (e.g., bacteria and yeast) metabolize plant sugars and produce ethanol.

Options explanation

Chemical process is a method or means of somehow changing one or more chemicals or chemical compounds. Such a chemical process can occur by itself or be caused by an outside force and involves a chemical reaction of some sort.

Physical change - Changes in the size or form of matter are examples of physical change

Biological processes are those processes that are vital for an organism to live, and that shape its capacities for interacting with its environment.

Confusing points

Any hydrocarbon fuel that is produced from an organic matter (living or once-living material) in a short period of time (days, weeks, or even months) is considered a biofuel.

Biofuels may be solid, liquid, or gaseous in nature.

Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and manure

Liquid: Bioethanol and Biodiesel

Gaseous: Biogas

Important points

Classification of Biofuels:

1st generation biofuels are also called conventional biofuels. They are made from things like sugar, starch, or vegetable oil. Note that these are all food products. Any biofuel made from a feedstock that can also be consumed as human food is considered a first-generation biofuel.

2nd generation biofuels are produced from sustainable feedstock. The sustainability of a feedstock is defined by its availability, its impact on greenhouse gas emissions, its impact on land use, and by its potential to threaten the food supply. No second-generation biofuel is also a food crop, though certain food products can become second-generation fuels when they are no longer useful for consumption. Second-generation biofuels are often called “advanced biofuels.”

3rd generation biofuels are biofuels derived from algae. These biofuels are given their own separate class because of their unique production mechanism and their potential to mitigate most of the drawbacks of 1st and 2nd generation biofuels.

4th generation biofuels: In the production of these fuels, crops that are genetically engineered to take in high amounts of carbon are grown and harvested as biomass. The crops are then converted into fuel using second-generation techniques.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 10

Which factor is responsible for the initiation of replication in DNA?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 10
The chromosome contains a specific DNA sequence called the origin of replication, which is responsible for initiating replication. In a chromosome, a specific DNA sequence called the origin of replication is responsible for initiating replication.

Options explanation

DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme, a ligase, that facilitates the joining of DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond. It plays a role in repairing single-strand breaks in duplex DNA in living organisms, but some forms may specifically repair double-strand breaks.

Histone is a protein that provides structural support to a chromosome. In order for very long DNA molecules to fit into the cell nucleus, they wrap around complexes of histone proteins, giving the chromosome a more compact shape. Some variants of histones are associated with the regulation of gene expression

Confusing points

DNA Replication

This is a complex process that takes place during cell division, (interphase, S phase) whereby DNA makes copies (duplicates) before the cell divides through mitosis and meiosis.

DNA replication is a semiconservative process where a parental strand (template) is used to synthesize a new complementary daughter strand using several protein elements which include enzymes and RNA molecules.

DNA replication process uses DNA polymerase as the main enzyme for catalyzing the joining of deoxyribonucleoside 5′-triphosphates (dNTPs) forming a growing chain of DNA.

Other proteins are also involved for initiation of the process and copying of DNA, along with proofreading capabilities to ensure the replication process takes place accurately.

Therefore DNA replication is a process that produces identical helices of DNA from a single strand of the DNA molecule.

DNA replication is an essential mechanism in enhancing cell growth, repair, and reproduction of an organism.

Important points

DNA replication takes place in three major steps.

Opening of the double-stranded helical structure of DNA and separation of the strands

Priming of the template strands

Assembly of the newly formed DNA segments.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 11

Who among the following discovered ATP ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 11
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) was discovered by Karl Lohmann in 1929 from the muscles.

Options explanation

  • William Harvey was an English physician who made influential contributions in anatomy and physiology.

  • Marie Salomea Skłodowska Curie was a Polish and naturalized-French physicist and chemist who conducted pioneering research on radioactivity.

  • Sir James Chadwick, CH, FRS was a British physicist who was awarded the 1935 Nobel Prize in Physics for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.

Confusing points

Function

ATP hydrolysis provides the energy needed for many essential processes in organisms and cells. These include intracellular signaling, DNA and RNA synthesis, Purinergic signaling, synaptic signaling, active transport, and muscle contraction. These topics are not an exhaustive list but include some of the vital roles ATP performs.

DNA/RNA Synthesis

DNA and RNA synthesis require ATP. ATP is one of four nucleotide-triphosphate monomers that is necessary during RNA synthesis. DNA synthesis uses a similar mechanism, except in DNA synthesis, the ATP first becomes transformed by removing an oxygen atom from the sugar to yield deoxyribonucleotide, ATP.

Important points-

The body is a complex organism, and as such, it takes energy to maintain proper functioning. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the source of energy for use and storage at the cellular level. The structure of ATP is a nucleoside triphosphate, consisting of a nitrogenous base (adenine), a ribose sugar, and three serially bonded phosphate groups.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 12

Who discovered the process of photosynthesis?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 12
Dutch-born British physician and scientist Jan Ingenhousz van Helmont discovered that light is necessary for photosynthesis.

Options explanation

  • William Harvey was an English physician who made influential contributions in anatomy and physiology.

  • Severo Ochoa de Albornoz was a Spanish physician and biochemist, and joint winner of the 1959 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine with Arthur Kornberg.

  • Sir Godfrey Newbold Hounsfield was an English electrical engineer who shared the 1979 Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine with Allan MacLeod Cormack for his part in developing the diagnostic technique of X-ray computed tomography.

Confusing points

  • Photosynthesis is critical for the existence of the vast majority of life on Earth. It is the way in which virtually all energy in the biosphere becomes available to living things.

  • As primary producers, photosynthetic organisms form the base of Earth’s food webs and are consumed directly or indirectly by all higher life forms.

  • Additionally, almost all the oxygen in the atmosphere is due to the process of photosynthesis. If photosynthesis ceased, there would soon be little food or other organic matter on Earth, most organisms would disappear, and Earth’s atmosphere would eventually become nearly devoid of gaseous oxygen.

Important points

photosynthesis, the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 13

Which of the studies of protozoa or unicellular organisms?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 13
The study of protozoa or unicellular organisms is called Protozoology.

Options explanation

  • Protozoology- Study of protozoa or the unicellular organisms

  • Ichthyology- Study of Fishes

  • Zoography (Descriptive Zoology)- Study of animals and their respective habitats

Confusing points

The difference between unicellular and multicellular organisms is majorly due to the difference in the composition, function, and arrangement of the cells. The unicellular organisms contain a single cell whereas the multicellular organisms contain multiple cells.

Important points

  • Protozoans exhibit mainly two forms of life; free-living (aquatic, freshwater, seawater) and parasitic (ectoparasites or endoparasites). They are also commensal in habitat.

  • They are small, usually microscopic, not visualize without a microscope.

  • They are the simplest and primitive of all animals.

  • They have a simple body organization. i.e. with a protoplasmic grade of organization.

  • The body is unicellular (without tissue and organs).

  • They have one or more nuclei which are monomorphic or dimorphic.

  • Body naked or bounded by a pellicle, but in some forms may be covered with shells and often provided with an internal skeleton.

  • They are solitary (existing alone/single) or colonial (individuals are alike and independent).

  • Body shape variables may be spherical, oval, elongated or flattened.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 14

In which of the following states the meridian line of Indian Standard Time does not pass through?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 14
Standard Time
  • Generally, the local time on the longitude line passing through the central part of the country is considered as the standard time of the whole country. The local time of 82̊30̍East longitude passing near Naini in Allahabad in India is considered as Indian Standard Time.

  • The local time of places located at different longitudes is different.

  • Due to this, there is a big difference in the time between places from one corner to another in a huge country.

  • To overcome this problem, the local time of a single longitude line is taken as the standard time of the whole country.

  • The standard time of each country is determined by a multiplier of half an hour from Greenwich Meantime.

  • The Mean Standard Time (IST) in India is 82.5° East longitude, which passes through Naini in Allahabad, 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich meridian.

  • The Standard Line of India (IST) passes through five states of India (Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh).

  • Most nations follow the agreement of the International Meridian Conference held in Washington in 1884 AD in the matter of standard time scheduling.

International Date Line

  • After the Treaty of Washington in 1884 AD, an imaginary line about 180° meridian was determined.

  • It is called the International Date Line.

  • Crossing the International Date Line in the west will decrease one day and crossing the date line in the east will increase one day.

  • The International Date Line has been bent at four places (e.g. due east at 75° north latitude) because this would result in the same date on the same landmass or island.

  • The islands of Samoa and Tokelau have shifted their position to the west of the International Date Line on 30 December 2011.

  • The International Date Line passes through the Arctic Sea, the Bering Strait and the Pacific Ocean.

  • The world is divided into 24 time zones.

  • The same time zone is found in China and India, while there are 7 time zones in America, 11 in Russia and 3 time zones in Australia.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 15

On whose death anniversary is Kisan Diwas celebrated in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 15
  • The 'Kisan Diwas' or National Farmers Day is observed across the country on 23rd December to celebrate the birth anniversary of Chaudhary Charan Singh, the former Prime Minister of India.

  • It is celebrated to promote awareness among the citizens to understand the importance of the contributions of the farmers to the society and overall economic and social development of a country.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 16

Which of the following treaty was signed between Hyder Ali and the East India Company?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 16
The Treaty of Madras was signed between Hyder Ali and the East India Company in 1769.

There were some conditions in the Treaty of Madras (1769).

  • returned each other's conquered territories

  • Haider Ali released the English prisoners

  • The British paid the war compensation to Hyder Ali

  • other important treaties

Treaty between Maratha and East India Company

  • Treaty of Surat 1775

  • Treaty of Salbai 1782

  • Treaty of Basin1802

Treaty between Dilip Singh and East India Company

  • Treaty of Lahore 1846

  • Treaty of Bhairowal 1846

IMPORTANT FACT

  • War of Plassey

  • The Battle of Plassey took place on 23 June 1757 between the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, and the East India Company.

  • The company was headed by Robert Clive.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 17

Where did the first student movement of independent India take place?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 17
  • In 1955, the first student movement of independent India took place in Patna, the capital of Bihar.

  • In Bihar in 1967, 35 students died in anti-government protests or the number of students was officially reported as 9.

  • This incident took place near Gandhi Maidan in Patna.

  • Mahamaya Prasad called them (The students who were died during the protest ) as beloved students .

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 18

Bihar has signed an MoU with which Organisation for climate resilience and low carbon development strategy formulation ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 18
On February 12, 2021, Bihar state pollution control board signed a memorandum of Understanding the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to develop a framework for achieving climate resilience and low carbon development in the state by 2040
  • Bihar became the first Indian state to sign such an agreement.

  • As part of the agreement UNEP will assist Bihar:-

  • To prepare a Greenhouse gas inventory and Carbon Footprint Analyses.

  • To develop Climate Impact Vulnerability Assessments.

  • Increase the capacity of Bihar’s Government Departments to deal with climate-related issues.

  • Revising Bihar’s state Action plans on climate change (SAPCC) to align with India’s National Action Plan on climate change under Paris Agreement.

  • The agreement was signed by Atul Bagai, UNEP India head, and S Chandrashekhar, Member Secretary of BSPCB.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 19

When was the first non-Congress government formed in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 19
  • In the year 1967, the fourth assembly elections were held in Bihar (United Bihar). For the first time, Congress could not get a majority in this election.

  • In the three elections before this, the performance of the Congress had gradually decreased, but each time it was successful in getting a majority. But due to a lack of majority in the subsequent elections, a non-Congress government was formed in Bihar for the first time after independence.

  • The atmosphere of political instability in Bihar first came in 1967.

  • On March 5, 1967, a non-Congress government was formed in the state for the first time.

  • Jan Kranti Dal leader Mahamaya Prasad Sinha became the Chief Minister. Although the Sanyukt Socialist Party (SANSOPA) had the largest number of MLAs after the Congress at that time, SANSOPA agreed to this condition to keep the Congress out of power. Sansa leader Karpoori Thakur became the Deputy Chief Minister.

  • This government fell on 28 January 1968. The Congress again succeeded in forming the government in Bihar and Satish Prasad Singh became the Chief Minister. However, even then the government did not last long and within just two years, in 1969, the people of Bihar had to face elections again.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 20

Which movement of Bihar was called the second war of independence?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 20
  • Jayaprakash Narayan, the leader of the entire revolution, was called the second great mother.

  • This was the biggest movement of independent India.

  • Total Revolution started in 1974 in Patna The name of the student movement in Bihar was given by Jai Prakash Narayan.

  • Current leaders Lalu Prasad Yadav, Nitish Kumar, Ravi Shankar Prasad, Shushil Modi, etc. were related to the entire revolutionary movement.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 21

Which of the following are the main sources of authentic history of the musical tradition of Mithila of Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 21

The main source of authentic history of Mithila's musical tradition is RajTarangini.

other key pointsJ

  •  

    The tradition of Gitinatya was being formed in the courts of Mithila, which is called 'Kirtaniya Natak'.

  •  

    Kirtaniya plays often began with the chanting of the character of Shiva or Krishna. But they were not religious plays.

  •  

    Kirtaniya was performed at night and had its own special music called naadi.

 

Important centers of Dhrupad song in Bihar

  •  

    Amta (Darbhanga)

  •  

    Dumraon (Buxar)

  •  

    Bettiah (West Champaran)

 

Note:- Gaya is the main center of Thumri in Bihar.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 22

Which of the following is the most important festival of Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 22
  • Chhath Puja is a regional festival of Bihar. On this occasion, the sun god is worshiped.

  • People in Bihar celebrate many festivals to worship God as they are spiritually inclined.

  • Chhath Puja is the only Vedic festival dedicated to the Sun God.

  • This festival is celebrated twice a year in the month of Chaitra (March) and in the month of Kartik (November).

  • It is the 4th day of festivities where people fast and offer prayers during the sunset gathering on the banks of the river.

  • They also sing folk songs and dance in praise of the Sun God and Chhatti Maiyya.

  • People in Bihar have immense faith in this festival and they maintain purity and purity in their homes. It is believed that through this festival many negative energies from around are destroyed.

Note:- Madhushravani festival is specially celebrated in Mithilanchal of Bihar.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 23

What is the correct decreasing sequence of districts of Bihar, have the highest percentage of forests?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 23
  • The total geographical area of Bihar - 94,163 Sq.km.

  • Total forest area - 7288 sq. km.

  • The districts with the maximum forest area in Bihar are Kaimur, West Champaran, Gaya and Nawada.

  • The districts with the minimum forest area in Bihar are Sheohar and Sheikhpura.

Kaimur district -:

  • In Kaimur district, 33 percent of the total area is forest area.

  • The total area of the Kaimur district is 3300 square kilometer.

  • Out of which, 1134 square kilometer of land comes under forest area.

  • Kaimur has the largest land area in terms of forest area in Bihar.

  • About 16 percent of the entire Bihar's land is in Kaimur only.

Some important facts related to forests in Bihar-:

  • State total forest area -7288 sq. km.

  • Percentage of forests in the state's area -7.1

  • Districts with maximum forest area in Bihar - Kaimur and West Champaran

  • District with least forest area - Sheohar

  • District with highest forest percentage - Kaimur

  • District with lowest forest percentage - Sheikhpura

  • National Park - 1, Valmikinagar

  • Wildlife Sanctuary - 11

  • Types of Forests in Bihar – Two (Wet Deciduous and Dry Deciduous Forests)

  • Wet deciduous forests are found in areas where annual rainfall exceeds 120 cm.

  • Dry Deciduous Forests found in areas where annual rainfall is less than 120 cm. In these forests mainly shrubs, grasses and small plants are found.

  • Trees of wet deciduous forest - Shisham, Shelam, Shawl, Khair

  • Trees of dry deciduous forest - Mahua, Mango, Jackfruit, Jamun

  • In Bihar, forests are mainly found in Champaran, Rohtas, Kaimur, Aurangabad, Gaya, Jehanabad, Nalanda, Nawada, Banka, Jamui and Munger districts.

  • In terms of percentage increase in forest cover to total geographical area of the country, Mizoram (85.41%) Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%) (75.31%) . Top five states.

States with highest forest cover in the country by area:

  • Madhya Pradesh – 77,552 sq km

  • Arunachal Pradesh – 67,321 sq km

  • Chhattisgarh – 55,621 sq km

  • Maharashtra – 50,632 sq km

  • Orissa – 50,347 sq km

For the protection of forests in Bihar, they are divided into 3 classes-:

  • Reserve Forest,

  • Protected Forest,

  • Unclassified Forest

Reserve Forest-:

Under the protected forest, grazing of animals and cutting and gathering of wood is not allowed, and they are kept under government protection.

Protected Forest-:

Under the reserved forest, permission is given by the government to graze the animals and cut and collect a limited amount of wood.

Unclassified Forest-:

There is no restriction imposed by the government for grazing animals and cutting wood in unclassified forest, but a fee is charged for it.

Forest Survey of India (FSI)-:

  • The headquarters of the Forest Survey of India is in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.

  • It was established in 1981

  • The FSI replaces the "Pre-Investment Survey of Forest Resources" (PISFR), a project initiated by the Government of India in 1965 with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.

  • The National Commission for Agriculture (1976) in its report had recommended setting up of FSI for a regular, periodic and comprehensive forest resource survey of the country.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 24

The President of India does not have the right to-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 24
  • A judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the president in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Article 124(4) mentions Removal regulations of the Supreme court judge.

  • The President has the judicial power of pardon etc. and in some cases the suspension, remission, or commutation of sentence (Article 72).

  • If the President of India feels that the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, the President can issue a declaration of emergency (Article 352) for the whole or any part of India.

  • The President of India has the power to issue ordinances( Article 123). It can be issued when both Houses of Parliament or either House is not in session. Its effect is similar to a law made by the Parliament. The President can withdraw an ordinance at any time.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 25

Who among the following had been the Governor of Bihar among the former Presidents of India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 25
  • Dr. Zakir Hussain was Governor of Bihar from July 6, 1957 to May 11, 1962, Vice President of India from May 13, 1962 to May 12, 1967 and President of India from May 13, 1967 to May 3, 1969 (when he died) .

  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of India for three consecutive terms (1950–1952, 1952–1957 and 1957–1962), out of which he became the President of India on January 26, 1950, being the President of the Constituent Assembly in 1952 and 1957. He was elected president in the first and second presidential elections respectively.

  • Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma was the ninth President of India. His tenure was from 25 July 1992 to 25 July 1997.

  • V.V. Giri was the fourth President of India (1969–1974 AD). He was associated with the trade union movement. He was also the President of All India Trade Union Congress twice.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 26

Which statement is false?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 26
  • The Vice-President is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

  • The qualification for the post of Vice President is that he should be a citizen of India, has completed 35 years of age and is eligible to be elected as a member of Rajya Sabha.

  • The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

  • First President of India Dr. Rajendra Prasad was originally from the state of Bihar. He was born on December 3, 1884 in Siwan district of Bihar. He was the President of India from 26 January 1950 to 13 May 1962.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 27

Which one of the following is presided over by a person who is not its member?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 27
  • The Rajya Sabha is presided over by the Vice-President, but he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President is elected by the elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

  • A member from amongst themselves is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

  • A member from amongst themselves is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly as the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.

  • The cabinet consists of cabinet level ministers, while the council of ministers consists of all (cabinet, state, deputy ministers) ministers.

BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 28

The first finance minister of independent India was-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 28
The first Finance Minister of independent India was R.K. Shanmukham Chetty, who held this post from August 15, 1947 to August 17, 1948. He presented the first Union Budget of independent India on 26 November 1947.
BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 29

Which of the following official documents is related to India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 29
In India, a detailed and official statement on a subject is issued by the government or any of its ministries in the form of a white paper.
BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 30

Under whose supervision does the Lok Sabha Secretariat work directly?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 1 - Question 30
The Lok Sabha Secretariat functions under the direction and control of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He has supreme authority over the staff of the Secretariat, the premises of the House and the Parliament House estate. He exercises this authority with the help of the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha.
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