Test: Verbal Reasoning (Level 700) - 2 - GMAT MCQ

The passage primarily discusses the pronghorn's exceptional speed and the hypothesis that this speed evolved as an adaptation to evade predators that have been extinct for thousands of years. It then provides evidence and examples supporting the concept of relict behavior, including observations of other animals. Therefore, option (A) accurately captures the main point of the passage.

 The term "principal component" in line 21 refers to the crucial factor that is missing, making it difficult to test hypotheses about relict behaviors. In this context, the "principal component" is the environmental conditions (such as the presence of now-extinct predators) that originally led to the development of the behavior. Thus, option (D) is the most appropriate answer.

The last paragraph provides examples of animals that exhibit relict behaviors long after the environmental conditions that originally prompted those behaviors have disappeared. However, it also mentions that such behaviors do not persist indefinitely, as evidenced by the Arctic ground squirrels that no longer recognize the threat of rattlesnakes after being free of them for about 3 million years. This supports the idea that behaviors adapted to certain conditions may eventually disappear if those conditions no longer exist. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

Lines 29–34 describe the herding behavior, and the only benefits cited are that it “allows more eyes to watch for predators and diminishes the chances of any particular animal being attacked.” The latter is correct choice (D). Although herding might plausibly intimidate predators (A), protect the young (B), render sustenance easier to find (C), and shelter the defenseless in the herd’s midst (E), none of those factors is ever mentioned.

The passage explores various viewpoints on the involvement of physicians in capital punishment and euthanasia. It presents arguments for and against physician participation, discusses the idea of "designated killers," and examines the ethical implications of these practices. The author aims to present a balanced view of the different arguments rather than promoting a single perspective, making Option C the most accurate choice.

The passage mentions that some physicians favor the idea of designated killer technicians to keep themselves "free from the taint of killing, keeping their image pure and their hands clean." This indicates that these physicians prefer to maintain a distance from the act of killing, supporting Option B.

Those in favor of euthanasia but against the use of designated killers may argue that this approach disrupts the continuity of patient care, as the physician-patient relationship is crucial in end-of-life care. This perspective aligns with Option A.

The passage implies that those in favor of designated killers assume that most physicians are reluctant to personally administer euthanasia due to ethical conflicts. By creating a separate role for designated killers, they acknowledge that very few physicians would take on the task themselves. Therefore, Option B is the best answer.

The passage mentions that "the timing of reproduction is crucial to the short-lived vole in an environment in which the onset of vegetative growth may be considerably delayed." This explains why the timing of reproductive efforts is important for voles, making Option B correct.
Option A: The passage does discuss other factors affecting rodent population size (like phytochemicals), but it doesn't provide a comprehensive answer to this question.
Option C: The passage does not address whether phytochemical reactions are unique to northern environments.
Option D: The passage mentions that 6-MBOA stimulates reproductive behavior but does not detail the mechanism of how it triggers this activity.
Option E: The passage states that the hare population swells every ten years but does not explain why this occurs.

The passage states that the formation of 6-MBOA in young grass in response to vole browsing triggers reproductive behavior in voles. This adaptation is significant because it allows the voles to time their reproduction with the availability of food resources, thus supporting their survival during periods when food supply might fluctuate.
Option A: The passage does not indicate that 6-MBOA limits reproductive behavior in times of food scarcity.
Option B: There's no information about 6-MBOA prompting the voles to seek new food sources.
Option D: The passage does not mention the effect of 6-MBOA on the number of offspring in individual litters.
Option E: The passage does not discuss territorial competition among voles in relation to 6-MBOA.

The passage describes that trees produce young shoots high in terpene and phenolic resins, which discourage hare browsing, indicating these resins serve as a natural defense (I) and are unappetizing to hares (III).
Option I: This is supported by the passage since it mentions that the production of resins discourages hare browsing.
Option II: The passage does not explicitly state that the growth of resinous shoots is stimulated by increases in the hare population, although it implies that trees develop these defenses in response to overbrowsing. However, without explicit information, this cannot be inferred with certainty.
Option III: This is supported by the passage, as it mentions that hare samples with resins were untouched, indicating they are unappetizing to hares.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D, which includes statements I and III only.

Critics of New Urbanists argue that people migrate to suburbs to enjoy the mobility and lifestyle enabled by the automobile. If it is true that people live in sprawling suburbs because housing in more accessible neighborhoods is more expensive, it implies that economic factors, not just lifestyle preferences, drive suburban living. This weakens the critics' position by showing that the choice to live in suburbs is influenced by affordability rather than a pure preference for automobile-dependent living.

Duany and his colleagues advocate for suburban communities with mixed housing and amenities within walking distance, such as grocery stores and schools. If their recommendations were implemented, there would likely be more local amenities available in suburban areas, leading to an increase in the per capita number of these facilities.

The second paragraph criticizes suburban housing subdivisions for economic segregation and implies that economic diversity is preferable. This suggests that New Urbanists assume people living in economically uniform suburbs could afford more diverse neighborhoods. Therefore, they assume that most people who buy houses in sprawling suburbs do not pay drastically less than they can afford, supporting Option A.

The author's conclusion is that wage and price controls, although they may avoid a recession in the short term, eventually lead to distortions and damage to the economy's long-term growth prospects. Option (A) states that countries that repeatedly use wage and price controls tend to have lower long-term economic growth rates than other countries. This information directly supports the author's argument by highlighting the negative impact of wage and price controls on long-term economic growth.

(A) The presence of organic matter in rock varnish is not relevant to determining the age. Additionally, if the varnish contains organic matter, it suggests that the organic matter was formed 1000 years ago, reinforcing the argument. This answer is incorrect.
(B) It was common to reuse ancient trimmed stones in the Andes before and after 1492. This is significant because it implies that the monument could have been constructed at a later time by using previously trimmed stones, predating the arrival of Europeans. This addresses a serious flaw in the argument and is therefore the correct answer.
(C) The Andean monument shares a remarkable resemblance with monuments found in ancient sites in western Asia. However, this information does not contribute significantly to the discussion.
(D) The earliest written reference to the Andean monuments dates back to 1778. However, this does not imply that they did not exist before that time.
(E) The formation of rock varnish on trimmed stones stored in dry, sheltered locations is slow or nonexistent. This information is entirely irrelevant to the current discussion, as the process of varnish formation does not affect the argument.

This statement undermines the assumption that teaching elementary school students to compose music will lead to the desired result of them recognizing the artistic intention of composers. It suggests that traditional education, which includes considerable instruction in visual art, does not effectively teach individuals to recognize the artistic intentions of visual artists. Therefore, it implies that similar instruction in music may not necessarily lead to the desired outcome of recognizing the artistic intention of composers.

B. A need for an item cannot lessen any feelings of regret that may arise about the purchase.

This assumption is necessary for the argument because it suggests that even if the consumer had a genuine need for the car at the time of purchase, it does not diminish the possibility of experiencing buyer's remorse due to the significant price decrease. It assumes that the need for the item does not override the potential regret caused by realizing that the same item could have been purchased at a much lower price. Therefore, option B is the correct assumption for the argument.

B. Diana devotes over 20 hours a week to playing golf, as do most professional golfers. It is difficult to become a professional golfer playing any less than 20 hours a week. So Diana is probably a professional golfer.

In both cases, the argument follows a pattern of stating a characteristic or behavior that is commonly associated with a particular group (starting figure skating at a young age for world-class figure skaters, and devoting over 20 hours a week to playing golf for professional golfers), and then drawing a conclusion based on the presence of that characteristic or behavior (Juliette is likely a world-class figure skater, Diana is probably a professional golfer).

B: Kenton School, which has fewer than 100 students and a legitimate child-to-caregiver ratio of 6:1, provides approximately equal-sized classes for each year up to age 6, though the classes for those over 3 have a child-to-caregiver ratio more than double that of the other classes.

This option provides a counterexample to Happy Smiles Daycare's claim. It states that Kenton School, another daycare facility, has a legitimate child-to-caregiver ratio of 6:1, which is slightly higher than the ratio claimed by Happy Smiles Daycare. Moreover, it mentions that Kenton School provides approximately equal-sized classes for each year up to age 6, indicating that the ratio does not significantly vary based on the age of the children. This suggests that Happy Smiles Daycare's claim of having the lowest child-to-caregiver ratio for children aged 1-3 is inaccurate, as Kenton School offers a similar or lower ratio for children within that age range.

(D) A high proportion of patients at Kalemic Hospital are older, and older patients are more vulnerable to infections that can accompany IVs.

This option suggests that the age of the patients at Kalemic Hospital could be a contributing factor to the high rate of health complications despite the correction of the IV solution levels. Older patients tend to have a higher vulnerability to infections, which can be a potential cause of the ongoing health complications. Therefore, even after addressing the issue with the sodium and potassium levels in the IV solutions, the age-related vulnerability to infections might still be leading to the complications experienced by the patients.

A. to return a book he had taken from my shelf.
This option uses the past perfect tense "had taken," indicating that the man took the book from the speaker's shelf before a specific past point in time. However, this option does not maintain the logical connection with the rest of the sentence. The verb "to forgive" and "to return" are both in the infinitive form, and the past perfect tense is not needed here.

B. returning a book he had taken from my shelf.
This option changes the structure of the sentence and replaces the infinitive form "to return" with the gerund form "returning." It also uses the past perfect tense "had taken." While the tense is correct, the change in structure alters the meaning slightly. Instead of expressing the speaker's inability to forgive, it simply states that the action of returning the book is associated with the man who had taken it.

C. to return a book he had taken out from my shelf.
Similar to option A, this option also uses the past perfect tense "had taken." Additionally, it adds "out" after "taken," which changes the meaning slightly. The phrase "taken out from my shelf" suggests that the man not only took the book but also physically removed it from the shelf. However, the original sentence does not specify that the book was physically taken out from the shelf.

D. to return a book he has taken from my shelf.
This option uses the present perfect tense "has taken," which indicates that the man took the book in the past and still possesses it. The present perfect tense establishes a connection to the present moment, making it appropriate to convey the idea that the man still has not returned the book. This option maintains the logical connection with the rest of the sentence, as "fails" in the non-underlined portion requires the present tense.

E. to return a book he took from my shelf.
This option uses the simple past tense "took," indicating that the man took the book from the speaker's shelf at a specific point in the past. However, the use of the simple past tense does not maintain the logical connection with the rest of the sentence. The non-underlined portion uses the word "fails," which requires the present tense to establish a clear connection with the man's failure to return the book.

(A) Comfort Airlines had more flights last year than the year before. This option is irrelevant to explaining the disproportionate increase in customer complaints. While it provides information about the number of flights, it does not directly address the higher number of complaints.

(B) Last year a single period of unusually bad weather caused a large number of flights to be delayed. This option suggests that a specific event, such as bad weather, resulted in a higher number of delayed flights. However, it does not directly explain the disproportionate increase in customer complaints, as it does not account for the threefold increase in complaints.

(C) Some of the improvements that Comfort Airlines made in its service were required by new government regulations. This option provides information about improvements made by Comfort Airlines, but it does not directly explain the disproportionate increase in complaints. While it suggests that the airline made efforts to improve its service, it does not account for the higher number of complaints.

(D) The average length of a flight delay was greater last year than it was the year before. This option is the correct choice. It states that the average length of a flight delay increased last year compared to the previous year. This could explain the disproportionate increase in customer complaints, as longer delays can lead to increased dissatisfaction and more complaints from passengers.

(E) The average number of passengers per flight was no higher last year than the year before. This option suggests that there was no significant change in the average number of passengers per flight. However, it does not directly address the higher number of complaints and does not provide a clear explanation for the disproportionate increase.

In summary, option (D) is the most suitable choice as it provides a plausible explanation for the disproportionate increase in customer complaints by indicating that the average length of flight delays was greater last year. This aligns with the argument's statement of a threefold increase in complaints related to delayed flights.