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CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 (100 Questions)

You can boost your CISF 2026 exam preparation with this CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of CISF 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: General Intelligence, Arithmetic, General English, General Awareness

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CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Read the passage below and solve the questions based on it.

1. In a joint family of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G, there are two married couples.
2. G is a housewife and her husband is a lawyer. ‘C’ is the wife of ‘B’, ‘A’ is an engineer and is granddaughter of ‘G’. ‘D’ is the father-in-law of ‘C’, a doctor, and father of ‘E’, a Professor. ‘F’ is A’s brother and B’s son.

Who is a lawyer?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

  • C is the wife of B, B has a son F and a daughter A
  • As A is the granddaughter of G. So, G is the mother of B.
  • As D is the father-in-law of C, hence D is the husband of G and D is the father of B and E.
  • Also, E is a professor, D is a lawyer (G’s husband is a lawyer), G is a housewife, A is an engineer & C is a doctor.
  • So D is the lawyer.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

In this following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one out.

Detailed Solution: Question 2

All except Whales lay eggs
 

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

1, 20, 58, 134, 286, ?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

1 * 2 + 18 = 20
20 * 2 + 18 = 58
58 * 2 + 18 = 134
134 * 2 + 18 = 286

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Question -

LKJ : pon :: ? : hgf

Detailed Solution: Question 4

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Two matrices are shown in the figure below. Their rows and columns are labelled as (0,1,2,3,4) and (5,6,7,8,9) in the manner shown. Find the correct row-column pairs out of the following matrices that decode to the word - CAGE

Detailed Solution: Question 5

C occurs at: 03 ;23 ;24 ;33 ;42 ;
A occurs at: 02 ;04 ;10 ;31 ;41 ;
G occurs at: 58 ;65 ;66 ;68 ;85 ;
E occurs at: 69 ;77 ;78 ;86 ;97 ;

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statements: The manager humiliated Sachin in the presence of his colleagues.

Conclusions:

  1. The manager did not like Sachin.
  2. Sachin was not popular with his colleagues.

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The manager might have humiliated Sachin not because of his dislike but on account of certain negligence or mistake on his part. So, I does not follow. Also, nothing about Sachin's rapport with his colleagues can be deduced from the statement. So, II also does not follow.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Direction : Study the following question carefully and choose the right answer.

Q: If ‘COUNSEL’ is to ‘BITIRAK’ so also ‘GUIDANCE’ is to

Detailed Solution: Question 7


C    O    U    N    S    E    L
↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓
–1    –6    –1    –5    –1    –4    –1
↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓
B    I    T    I    R    A    K
Similarly;
 
G    U    I    D    A    N    C    E
↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓
–1    –6    –1    –5    –1    –4    –1    –3
↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓    ↓
F    O    H    Y    Z    J    B    B

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point N is 15 m to the north of P and W is 20m to the east of point P, which is to the north S. R is to the west of P and 15m to the north of Q, which is 18m to the west of S.

Q. Point W is in which direction with respect to point Q?

Detailed Solution: Question 8


We can clearly observe from the figure that W is in the North-East of point Q.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The average price of a share is the average of 5 readings taken at regular intervals in a day. The index price is taken by a weighted arithmetic average price of a class A and class B stock. The respective weights are 1.1 and 0.9 for the two kinds of stocks. If the five readings of a class A stock were 19, 26, 31, 35, 39 and for a class B stock the readings were 7, 8, 17, 20, 23 then what was the index price that day?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

What is the rate of simple interest for the first 4 years if the sum of Rs. 360 becomes Rs. 540 in 9 years and the rate of interest for the last 5 years is 6%?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

For the last 5 years, the interest earned would be: 30% of 360 = 108. Thus, interest earned in the first 4 years would be Rs. 72 → Rs. 18 every year on an amount of Rs. 360- which means that the rate of interest is 5%

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Vinod makes a deposit of Rs. 100,000 in Syndicate Bank for a period of 2 years. If the rate of interest be 12% per annum compounded half-yearly, what amount will he get after 2 years?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Find the last number which when divided by 6, 8, 15 and 30 leaves remainder 2, 4, 11 and 26 respectively?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

LCM (6, 8, 15, 30) – 4 = 120 – 4 = 116

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Vijay bought some pens for Rs. 540. He lost 2 pens on his way back to the shop. Then, he sold the rest of the pens at Rs. 6 more (per pen) than what he paid for them. On the whole transaction, Vijay gained 10% on his outlay. How many pens did Vijay buy?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Let the total number of pens bought be x.
Total CP = Rs. 540

On simplifying, we get
6x2 - 66x - 1080 = 0
(x - 20)(x + 9) = 0
 x = 20 or x = -9
Therefore, 20 pens were bought.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

A rectangular reservoir has dimensions 54 meters × 44 meters × 10 meters. An outlet pipe of circular cross-section has a radius of 3 centimeters and the water runs through the pipe at a rate of 20 meters/second. What is the time taken by the outlet pipe to empty the reservoir full of water?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Volume of water in the reservoir = Area of cross-section of pipe × Empty rate × Empty time
Let the empty time be t.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Out of the four sectors given, how many sectors showed a consistent trend(increase or decrease) in percentage in the allocation between the fourth plan and the seventh plan

Detailed Solution: Question 15

By simple observation, we can see that none of the given sectors has shown a consistent trend in allocation. 
 
Hence, Option A is correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Find out the Synonym of the following word:

ADVERSITY

Detailed Solution: Question 16

  • Meaning of Adversity: A difficult or unpleasant situation.
  • Meaning of Failure: Lack of success
  • Meaning of Helplessness: Inability to defend oneself
  • Meaning of Content: In a state of peaceful happiness 

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution: Question 17

show a mind fully alert to

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution: Question 18

You can get

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Directions: Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.

1. Officials of the Russian-American Company reasoned that a permanent settlement along the more temperate shores of California could serve both as a source of food and a base for exploiting the abundant sea otters in the region.
2. The Russians had begun their expansion into the North American continent in 1741 with a massive scientific expedition to Alaska.
3. By the early 19th century, the semi-governmental Russian-American Company was actively competing with British and American fur-trading interests as far south as the shores of Spanish-controlled California.
4. As a growing empire with a long Pacific coastline, Russia was in many ways well positioned to play a leading role in the settlement and development of the West.
5. Returning with news of abundant sea otters, the explorers inspired Russian investment in the Alaskan fur trade and some permanent settlement.
6. Russia's Alaskan colonists found it difficult to produce their own food because of the short growing season of the far north.

Q. Which of following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

The context is about Russian attempt to expand their region. Sentence 4 is the leading sentence. It introduces Russia - 'as a growing empire'. The words 'begun their expansion' in 2 link with 'as a growing empire' in sentence 4. The word 'explorers' in 5 links with 'expedition' in 2. 'Fur-trading interests' in 3 refer to 'fur trade' in 5. So, 3 follows 5. The sequence becomes: 4-2-5-3. The explorers had excited the Russians for fur trade in Alaska but there was conflict of interest. Russians also found it difficult to produce food there (sentence 6) and the alternative is provided in sentence 1 (reasoned that ... California could serve both as a source of food). So, the final sequence becomes: 4-2-5-3-6-1.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Development is about expanding the capabilities of the disadvantaged, thereby improving their overall quality of life. Based on this understanding, Maharashtra, one of India’s richest States, is a classic case of a lack of development which is seen in its unacceptably high level of malnutrition among children in the tribal belts. While the State’s per capita income has doubled since 2004, its nutritional status has not made commensurate progress.

Poor nutrition security disproportionately affects the poorest segment of the population. According to NFHS 2015-16, every second tribal child suffers from growth restricting malnutrition due to chronic hunger. In 2005, child malnutrition claimed as many as 718 lives in Maharashtra’s Palghar district alone. Even after a decade of double digit economic growth (2004-05 to 2014-15), Palghar’s malnutrition status has barely improved.

In September 2016, the National Human Rights Commission issued notice to the Maharashtra government over reports of 600 children dying due to malnutrition in Palghar. The government responded, promising to properly implement schemes such as Jaccha Baccha and Integrated Child Development Services to check malnutrition. Our independent survey conducted in Vikramgad block of the district last year found that 57%, 21% and 53% of children in this block were stunted, wasted and underweight, respectively; 27% were severely stunted. Our data challenges what Maharashtra’s Women and Child Development Minister said in the Legislative Council in March — that “malnutrition in Palghar had come down in the past few months, owing to various interventions made by the government.”

Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days. We calculated a 24-hour dietary diversity score by counting the number of food groups the child received in the last 24 hours. The eight food groups include: cereals, roots and tubers; legumes and nuts; dairy products; flesh foods; eggs; fish; dark green leafy vegetables; and other fruits and vegetables.

In most households it was rice and dal which was cooked most often and eaten thrice a day. These were even served at teatime to the children if they felt hungry. There was no milk, milk product or fruit in their daily diets. Even the adults drank black tea as milk was unaffordable. Only 17% of the children achieved a minimum level of diet diversity — they received four or more of the eight food groups. This low dietary diversity is a proxy indicator for the household’s food security too as the children ate the same food cooked for adult members.

Q. As per the passage, which of the following is/are needed for an adequate meal?
I. Macro and micro nutrients
II. Multiple food groups
III. High level of  Intermittent fasting

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Refer to:
‘Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days.’

As per the highlighted points, I and II are correct while III has not been mentioned in the passage.

Hence, option C is correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Development is about expanding the capabilities of the disadvantaged, thereby improving their overall quality of life. Based on this understanding, Maharashtra, one of India’s richest States, is a classic case of a lack of development which is seen in its unacceptably high level of malnutrition among children in the tribal belts. While the State’s per capita income has doubled since 2004, its nutritional status has not made commensurate progress.

Poor nutrition security disproportionately affects the poorest segment of the population. According to NFHS 2015-16, every second tribal child suffers from growth restricting malnutrition due to chronic hunger. In 2005, child malnutrition claimed as many as 718 lives in Maharashtra’s Palghar district alone. Even after a decade of double digit economic growth (2004-05 to 2014-15), Palghar’s malnutrition status has barely improved.

In September 2016, the National Human Rights Commission issued notice to the Maharashtra government over reports of 600 children dying due to malnutrition in Palghar. The government responded, promising to properly implement schemes such as Jaccha Baccha and Integrated Child Development Services to check malnutrition. Our independent survey conducted in Vikramgad block of the district last year found that 57%, 21% and 53% of children in this block were stunted, wasted and underweight, respectively; 27% were severely stunted. Our data challenges what Maharashtra’s Women and Child Development Minister said in the Legislative Council in March — that “malnutrition in Palghar had come down in the past few months, owing to various interventions made by the government.”

Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days. We calculated a 24-hour dietary diversity score by counting the number of food groups the child received in the last 24 hours. The eight food groups include: cereals, roots and tubers; legumes and nuts; dairy products; flesh foods; eggs; fish; dark green leafy vegetables; and other fruits and vegetables.

In most households it was rice and dal which was cooked most often and eaten thrice a day. These were even served at teatime to the children if they felt hungry. There was no milk, milk product or fruit in their daily diets. Even the adults drank black tea as milk was unaffordable. Only 17% of the children achieved a minimum level of diet diversity — they received four or more of the eight food groups. This low dietary diversity is a proxy indicator for the household’s food security too as the children ate the same food cooked for adult members.

Q. What could possibly be a/some possible reason/s for such extreme food insecurity among tribal households as has been shown in the passage?
I. Loss of their traditional dependence on forest livelihood.
II. Weak implementation of public nutrition schemes.
III. A worsening agriculture situation.

Detailed Solution: Question 21

All the statements are valid as all give probable reasons for the prevailing condition of food insecurity.

Hence, option D is correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Development is about expanding the capabilities of the disadvantaged, thereby improving their overall quality of life. Based on this understanding, Maharashtra, one of India’s richest States, is a classic case of a lack of development which is seen in its unacceptably high level of malnutrition among children in the tribal belts. While the State’s per capita income has doubled since 2004, its nutritional status has not made commensurate progress.

Poor nutrition security disproportionately affects the poorest segment of the population. According to NFHS 2015-16, every second tribal child suffers from growth restricting malnutrition due to chronic hunger. In 2005, child malnutrition claimed as many as 718 lives in Maharashtra’s Palghar district alone. Even after a decade of double digit economic growth (2004-05 to 2014-15), Palghar’s malnutrition status has barely improved.

In September 2016, the National Human Rights Commission issued notice to the Maharashtra government over reports of 600 children dying due to malnutrition in Palghar. The government responded, promising to properly implement schemes such as Jaccha Baccha and Integrated Child Development Services to check malnutrition. Our independent survey conducted in Vikramgad block of the district last year found that 57%, 21% and 53% of children in this block were stunted, wasted and underweight, respectively; 27% were severely stunted. Our data challenges what Maharashtra’s Women and Child Development Minister said in the Legislative Council in March — that “malnutrition in Palghar had come down in the past few months, owing to various interventions made by the government.”

Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days. We calculated a 24-hour dietary diversity score by counting the number of food groups the child received in the last 24 hours. The eight food groups include: cereals, roots and tubers; legumes and nuts; dairy products; flesh foods; eggs; fish; dark green leafy vegetables; and other fruits and vegetables.

In most households it was rice and dal which was cooked most often and eaten thrice a day. These were even served at teatime to the children if they felt hungry. There was no milk, milk product or fruit in their daily diets. Even the adults drank black tea as milk was unaffordable. Only 17% of the children achieved a minimum level of diet diversity — they received four or more of the eight food groups. This low dietary diversity is a proxy indicator for the household’s food security too as the children ate the same food cooked for adult members.

Q. Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
I. India’s situation is worse than in some of the world’s poorest countries — Bangladesh, Afghanistan or Mozambique.
II. Development is more than just economic growth.
III. On an average, the nutrition expenditure as a percentage of the Budget has drastically declined from 1.68% in 2012-13 to 0.94% in 2018-19.

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Statements I and III have not been mentioned in the passage and are incorrect.

Statement II is correct as can be seen from the first paragraph of the passage.

Hence, option A is correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Directions: Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

That which cannot be avoided:

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The one word substitution is Inevitable.

Irreparable : impossible to rectify or repair.
Incomparable : without an equal in quality or extent, matchless.
Indisputable : unable to be challenged or denied.
Inevitable : certain to happen, unavoidable.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

The MLAs belong to the ruling party will elect their leader who will become the

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is A as The MLAs belong to the ruling party will elect their leader who will become the Chief Minister

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

Answer: c

Exp: The Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817–1818) was the final and decisive conflict between the British East India Company and the Maratha Empire in India. The troops were led by the Governor General Hastings and he was supported by a force under General Thomas Hislop. It resulted in the formal end of the Maratha Empire and firm establishment of the British East India Company in entire India.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

During whose Governor Generalship the Maratha confederacy ended?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

During whose Governor Generalship the Maratha confederacy ended?

  • Lord Hastings: Lord Hastings was the Governor General of India from 1813 to 1823. During his tenure, he played a significant role in the end of the Maratha confederacy.

  • Maratha confederacy: The Maratha confederacy was a dominant power in India during the 18th century. However, by the early 19th century, internal conflicts and external pressures weakened the confederacy.

  • End of Maratha confederacy: Lord Hastings took advantage of the internal divisions within the Maratha confederacy and through diplomatic negotiations, military actions, and alliances with other Indian rulers, he was able to bring about the end of the Maratha confederacy.


Therefore, it was during Lord Hastings' Governor Generalship that the Maratha confederacy ended.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

In the history of Indian population, which duration period is referred to as 'A great leap forward'?  

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The year 1921 marked the start of consistent population growth as revealed by the census. It was preceded by a decadal decline in growth rate during 1911-1921 which saw a net decrease of 0.3 per cent for the century as a whole. The year 1921 turned out to be demographic divide as in the post-1921 period; the population began to show signs of steady increase.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

With reference to 'Equalisation Levy 2.0', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It covers online sales of all goods and services.
2. It is applied to only non-resident companies.
3. India is the only G20 nation to have implemented such a tax.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

  • Recently, several European nations like France and Italy have asked tech giants like Google, Apple, Facebook, and Amazon (GAFA) to pay Digital service tax.
  • Digital service tax covers online sales of goods and services. It includes policies that specifically target businesses that provide products or services through digital means. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • India was the first country to introduce a digital tax called ‘Equalisation Levy’ in 2016 at the rate of 6%. EL 1.0 was payable by Indian residents on online advertisement services purchased from nonresident companies.
  • From 1 April 2020, the scope of equalization levy has been expanded to include a 2% levy on all online sales of goods or services into India by non-resident e-commerce operators (‘EL 2.0’). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Recognizing the need to reform international tax rules for taxing digital companies such that countries get their fair share of taxes, the OECD has been working on proposals for new rules but so far has not arrived at a consensus on the final scope and manner of taxation.
  • Meanwhile, many countries such as France (3% levy), Italy, Turkey, Austria, UK, Malaysia, Spain etc. have either proposed or implemented a unilateral digital tax applicable to digital companies, called as the ‘Digital Services Tax’ (‘DST’). Hence statement 3 is not correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Consider the following:
1. SAARC
2. ASEAN
3. G 20
4. BRICS

India entered into a complete open sky agreement with which of the given above regional groups?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

  • An open sky air service agreement allows for airlines from the two countries to have an unlimited number of flights as well as seats to each other’s jurisdictions. The National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, allows the government to enter into an ‘open sky’ air services agreement on a reciprocal basis with SAARC nations as well as countries beyond a 5,000-kilometer radius from New Delhi.
  • India entered into a complete open sky service agreement with the USA, Greece, Jamaica, Guyana, Finland, Spain and Sri Lanka.
    1. A nearly open sky service agreement has also been signed with the UK.
    2. A partial open sky was adopted for SAARC and ASEAN countries under which the designated airlines of these countries have been permitted to operate the unlimited number of services with third/fourth freedom traffic rights to 18 destinations in India. Hence options 1 and 2 are not correct.
  • India has not entered any open sky agreement with G20 and BRICS group.
  • Hence options 3 and 4 are not correct.

CISF Head Constable Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Who is hosting the seventh edition of the Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2023 (JIMEX 23)?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The seventh edition of the Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2023 (JIMEX 23) is being hosted by the Indian Navy. The exercise is taking place at/off Visakhapatnam from 5th to 10th July 2023. JIMEX 23 marks the 11th anniversary of the exercise since its inception in 2012. The Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF) units, under the command of RAdm Nishiyama Takahiro, and Indian Naval ships, under the command of RAdm Gurcharan Singh, are participating in the exercise. This joint exercise aims to enhance the naval cooperation and interoperability between the two countries.

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