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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 for SSC CGL 2024 is part of SSC CGL preparation. The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 below.
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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 1

Directions: Study the pie-chart and table given below and answer the questions.
Details of the percentage of employees working in various departments in an organization and number of males among them.
Total number of employees = 800.

Q. The percentage of the number of male employees working in marketing department to the total number of employees in marketing department is:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 1

Number of employees in marketing department

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 2

Directions: Study the pie-chart and table given below and answer the questions.
Details of the percentage of employees working in various departments in an organization and number of males among them.
Total number of employees = 800.

Q. The ratio of number of males in marketing department to the number of females working in that department is:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 2

Total employees in Marketing department = 192
Males = 165
Females = 192 - 165 = 27
∴ Required ratio
= 165 : 27
= 55 : 9

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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

A group of investigators took a fair sample of 1972 children from the general population and found that there are 1000 boys and 972 girls. If the investigators claim that their research is so accurate that the sex of a new bom child can be predicted based on the ratio of the sample of the population, then what is the expectation in terms of the probability that a new child bom will be a girl?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

972/1972 = 243/ 493.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

If 'sin α' and 'cos α' are the roots of thr equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then b2 =

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 5

The constant that must be added and subtracted to solve the quadratic equation   by the method of completing the square is

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 5

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 6

Which of the following has two distinct roots?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 6

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 7

11111.10 ÷ 989.88×88.88÷0.798 = ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 7

10000 ÷ 1000 = 10
88÷0.8 = 110
10*110 = 1100

So option C is correct

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 8

If a pipe A can fill a tank 3 times faster than pipe B. If both the pipes can fill the tank in 32 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 8

Time is taken by pipe A = x
Time is taken by pipe B = x/3
1/x + 3/x = 1/32
x = 128 minutes

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 9

What is the code of ‘7’ in a certain code?
I. ‘734’ stands for ‘DH%’ and ‘348’ stands for ‘D*%’ in that code.
II. ‘127’ stands for ‘H*$’ and ‘375’ stands for ‘&@H’ in that code.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 9

Explanation: From I : code for ‘7’ is %
From II : code for ‘7’ is %
So it can be predicted from both alone.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 10

Last year, the ratio between the salaries of A and B was 3 : 4. But, the ratios of their individual salaries between the last year and this year were 4 : 5 and 2 : 3, respectively. If the sum of their present salaries is Rs. 4160, then how much is the salary of A now?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 10

Let salary of A last year be Rs. 3s.
Salary of B last year = Rs. 4s
Let present salary of A be Rs. A and that of B be Rs. B.
So, 3s/A = 4/5 or A = 15s/4
4s/B = 2/3 or B = 6s
So, adding up the present salaries, we get (15s/4) + 6s = 4160
Or, s = 426.667
Present salary of A = Rs. A = Rs. (15/4)s = Rs. (15/4) × 426.667 = Rs. 1600
Thus, answer option (2) is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

Directions: Study the information below carefully.
​​​​​​​A number arrangement machine, when fed with an input, rearranges the numbers following a particular rule.

The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input: 25010 7650 432 909 850 70 100 612
Step I: 432 25010 7650 909 850 70 100 612
Step II: 432 612 25010 7650 909 850 70 100
Step III: 432 612 70 25010 7650 909 850 100
Step IV: 432 612 70 850 25010 7650 909 100
Step V: 432 612 70 850 909 25010 7650 100
Step VI: 432 612 70 850 909 7650 25010 100
Step VII: 432 612 70 850 909 7650 100 25010
Step (VII) is the last step of the rearrangement.
Based on the above illustration, answer the questions regarding the given input:
Input: 78050 1650 266 1001 80 701 600 121

121 266 80 701 1650 78050 600 1001
Q. Which step of the arrangement yields the given output?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

Input: 78050 1650 266 1001 80 701 600 121
Step (I): 121 78050 1650 266 1001 80 701 600
Step (II): 121 266 78050 1650 1001 80 701 600
Step (III): 121 266 80 78050 1650 1001 701 600
Step (IV): 121 266 80 701 78050 1650 1001 600
Step (V): 121 266 80 701 1650 78050 1001 600
Step (VI): 121 266 80 701 1650 600 78050 1001
Step (VII): 121 266 80 701 1650 600 1001 78050

Numbers are arranged according to increasing number of zeroes. If two numbers have the same number of zeroes, then they are arranged in ascending order.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 12

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:
Nine persons – Chaya, Dimple, Beena, Ajit, Jaya, Fatima, Gagan, Hemant and Kaushal – are sitting in a straight line facing north, but not necessarily in the same order.
Beena is fourth to the left of Gagan; Fatima is fourth to the right of Chaya and second to the left of Kaushal, who is fifth to the right of Ajit. Dimple is not an immediate neighbour of either Kaushal or Beena. There are only three persons between Jaya and Ajit. Gagan is second to the right of Chaya.

Q. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends of the line?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 12

Kaushal and Beena are sitting at the extreme ends of line.
Option C, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:
Reference:
Fatima is fourth to the right of Chaya and second to the left of Kaushal, who is fifth to the right of Ajit.
Gagan is second to the right of Chaya.
Beena is fourth to the left of Gagan.
Inference:

Reference:
There are only three persons between Jaya and Ajit.
Inference:

Reference:
Dimple is not an immediate neighbour of either Kaushal or Beena.
Inference:

Final image:

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 13

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: How many children are there in the row of children facing North?
Statements:
I. Vishakha who is fifth from the left end is eighth to the left of Ashish who is twelfth from the right end.
II. Rohit is fifth to the left of Nisha who is seventh from the right end and eighteenth from the left end.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 13

Since 8th to the left of 12th from the right is 20th from the right, so from I, we know that Vishakha is 5th from left and 20th from right i.e. there are 4 children to the left and 19 to the right of Vishakha. So, there are (4 + 1 + 19) i.e. 24 children in the row.

From II, Nisha is 7th from right and 18th from left end of the row.

So, there are (6 + 1 + 17) = 24 children in the row.

So Option C is correct

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 14

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: How many doctors are practising in this town ?
Statements:
I.There is one doctor per seven hundred residents.
II.There are 16 wards with each ward having as many doctors as the number of wards.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 14

From I, total number of doctors in town = (1/700 x N) , where N = total number of residents in town. But, the value of N is not known.

From II, total number of doctors in town

= (Number of wards in town) x (Number of doctors in each ward)

= 16 x 16 = 256.

So Option B is correct

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 15

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: On which day of the week was birthday of Sahil ?
Statements:
I.Sahil celebrated his birthday the very next day on which Arun celebrated his birthday.
II.The sister of Sahil was born on the third day of the week and two days after Sahil was born.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 15

I does not mention the day of the week on the birthday of either Arun or Sahil.

According to II, Sahil's sister was born on Wednesday and Sahil was born two days before Wednesday i.e. on Monday.

So Option B is correct

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 16

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions two statements are given. Which are followed by four conclusions (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Question -

Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

  1. No door is cat.
  2. No cat is door.
  3. Some cats are dogs.
  4. All the cats are dogs.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 16

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 17

Because memory weakens with age, for the experiment to be valid, it is importantthat a group to be tested for drug induced memory loss be compared with acontrol group.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 17

Group is a collective noun and therefore requires a singular verb. Consequently, choices B, D and E can be eliminated right away. Using the word should is incorrect. The subjunctive, as seen in option A, is necessary after the construction ‘it is important that...’. Choice A is the right answer

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 18

Directions: In the following question, four statements are provided. These statements form a coherent paragraph when properly arranged. Select the alternative representing the proper and logical sequencing of these statements.

(A) Gone were the days of state control and 'permit or license raj'.
(B) It was around the time when the Soviet Empire collapsed in 1991, India's then Finance Minister launched economic liberalisation.
(C) Globalisation became the new mantra around the world and no nation could afford to remain detached from these winds of change.
(D) While dealing a deadly blow to the machinery of red tape, globalisation or liberalisation encouraged private initiative in the economic development.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 18

The fall of the Soviet Empire is given as a reference of time, as if to tell a story. Statements (A), (C) and (D) all tell us what happened around this time. So, in any sequence, (A), (C) and (D) should succeed statement (B). 'A deadly blow to the machinery of red tape' in D should logically follow 'gone were the days of state control' in A. Only one option gives this sequence ('B - A - D'), with B starting the sequence.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 19

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with two blanks. You have to find the pair of words from the given options that fit both the blanks in the given order and make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. 

It is possible that this piece of _________ is likely to be used against him by his electoral ________. 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 19

Clans means group of kin, which is simply not related to the context. Thus option A is eliminated.   Any information can be misused by the opponents only, thus both the words of option B absolutely fit to the blanks.

In option C, garbage is completely wrong.

In option D, allies is just opposite to the context, allies means friends, which will not do anything against him. 

Hence option B is correct. 

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The deadline for the completion of the resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for the first set of cases taken up has neared or even passed. The IBC provides for a time limit of 180 days (extendable by 90 days) once a case of default is brought  and If no resolution plan drawn up under the supervision of a resolution professional can be agreed upon, liquidation must follow to recover whatever sums are possible. While the NCLT has considered a number of cases since its constitution, its role assumed importance when, on 13 June 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated proceedings against 12 large defaulters, holding accounts with outstanding amounts of more than Rs 5,000 crore, of which at least 60% had been classified as non-performing as of 31 March 2016. These bad loans accounted for around 25% of the non-performing assets (NPAs) recognised at that time.

In most cases, the estimated value of assets on liquidation is low, and does not capture the true value of the company. Put simply, the aggregate of the individual value of a set of stripped assets tends to be much lower than the value of those assets when combined for production. So, if the IBC process and the intervention of the NCLT lead, through bidding, to an offer of a takeover by a third party which is acceptable to the creditors, the recovery against bad loans technically written off by financial creditors would be much higher. Since this was to occur in a time-bound fashion, it seemed to be a significant initiative to address the NPA problem in the banking system. The IBC was combined with legislative amendments that strengthened the powers of the RBI to order the launch of proceedings to recover the loans gone bad. These measures, it was argued, through enforced resolution or liquidation if necessary, offered a way in which the abysmal record of recovery could be corrected and the pressure on the government to bail out banks with taxpayers’ money could be reduced. In the case of 11 public sector banks out of a total of 21, of the loans technically written-off between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%. By facilitating and accelerating the recovery effort, the IBC process was expected to raise the rate significantly.

The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.

The initial experience with the first phase of this multistep process involving the recognition, technical write-off and provisioning, and recovery of NPAs, is revealing for a number of reasons. First, in cases where the assets on offer were of special interest to particular bidders, the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past. The Tatas clearly had a special interest in the deal since its valuation of the company was far higher than that of JSW Group, the other keen bidder. The latter offered the creditors only Rs 29,700 crore.

The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts. Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders. Interestingly, besides Tata Steel, Arcelor Mittal, Vedanta, Sumitomo, and Steel Authority of India, the interested parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

This effort of the defaulting promoters to regain control of the companies concerned at a discount did muddy the water. The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors. Recognising the travesty involved, the government was forced to amend the IBC bill to prohibit promoters from bidding under the NCLT process.

Q. What was the experience of the IBC process for companies which were of special interest to bidders?
I. The rate of recovery was much better than the average recovery rate.
II. Competition between bidders to take over the defaulting company.
III. The liquidation value of the assets would have been higher than the recovered value.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 20

Refer to:
the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past.’

‘The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts.’

I and II are correct.
III is opposite of the correct answer and is incorrect.

Hence, option C is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The deadline for the completion of the resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for the first set of cases taken up has neared or even passed. The IBC provides for a time limit of 180 days (extendable by 90 days) once a case of default is brought  and If no resolution plan drawn up under the supervision of a resolution professional can be agreed upon, liquidation must follow to recover whatever sums are possible. While the NCLT has considered a number of cases since its constitution, its role assumed importance when, on 13 June 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated proceedings against 12 large defaulters, holding accounts with outstanding amounts of more than Rs 5,000 crore, of which at least 60% had been classified as non-performing as of 31 March 2016. These bad loans accounted for around 25% of the non-performing assets (NPAs) recognised at that time.

In most cases, the estimated value of assets on liquidation is low, and does not capture the true value of the company. Put simply, the aggregate of the individual value of a set of stripped assets tends to be much lower than the value of those assets when combined for production. So, if the IBC process and the intervention of the NCLT lead, through bidding, to an offer of a takeover by a third party which is acceptable to the creditors, the recovery against bad loans technically written off by financial creditors would be much higher. Since this was to occur in a time-bound fashion, it seemed to be a significant initiative to address the NPA problem in the banking system. The IBC was combined with legislative amendments that strengthened the powers of the RBI to order the launch of proceedings to recover the loans gone bad. These measures, it was argued, through enforced resolution or liquidation if necessary, offered a way in which the abysmal record of recovery could be corrected and the pressure on the government to bail out banks with taxpayers’ money could be reduced. In the case of 11 public sector banks out of a total of 21, of the loans technically written-off between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%. By facilitating and accelerating the recovery effort, the IBC process was expected to raise the rate significantly.

The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.

The initial experience with the first phase of this multistep process involving the recognition, technical write-off and provisioning, and recovery of NPAs, is revealing for a number of reasons. First, in cases where the assets on offer were of special interest to particular bidders, the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past. The Tatas clearly had a special interest in the deal since its valuation of the company was far higher than that of JSW Group, the other keen bidder. The latter offered the creditors only Rs 29,700 crore.

The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts. Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders. Interestingly, besides Tata Steel, Arcelor Mittal, Vedanta, Sumitomo, and Steel Authority of India, the interested parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

This effort of the defaulting promoters to regain control of the companies concerned at a discount did muddy the water. The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors. Recognising the travesty involved, the government was forced to amend the IBC bill to prohibit promoters from bidding under the NCLT process.

Q. Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
I. Essar Steel evoked interest even from its promoters when it was put up for sale.
II. Bhushan Steel was acquired by the JSW Group for Rs 32,500 crore.
III. The average recovery rate for the 21 banks (public plus private) was 10.8%.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 21

Refer to:

‘’ Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders…. parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

I is correct.

‘The acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt.’

II is incorrect.

‘Between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%.’

III is correct.

Hence, option D is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

Directions: Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

That which cannot be avoided:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

The one word substitution is Inevitable.

Irreparable : impossible to rectify or repair.
Incomparable : without an equal in quality or extent, matchless.
Indisputable : unable to be challenged or denied.
Inevitable : certain to happen, unavoidable.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

When was World Population Day first celebrated?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

World Population Day was first celebrated on July 11, 1990, in more than 90 countries. It was established by the United Nations in 1989 to raise awareness about global population issues, marking the day when the global population reached five billion in 1987.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 24

East India College was set up in 1806 at

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 25

Which of the following is/are associated with the equatorial region of the Amazon basin. 

1. Bromeliads 

2. Piranha 

3. Manioc (Cassava)

4. Maloca 

Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 25
  • Bromeliads are special parasitic plants that store water in their leaves. Animals like frogs use these pockets of water for laying their eggs.
  • Piranha Fish is flesh eating fish found in Amazon river 
  • Manioc (Cassava) is the staple food of the Amazon basin region and it grows under the ground just like potato. 
  • Maloca are the large apartment like houses with steep slanting roof ,where inhabitants of Amazon basin live.

 

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 26

In which year was Pulitzer Prize established?

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

Increase in foreign exchange reserves are recorded in credit side of capital account.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

Foreign exchange reserves are considered as an asset for the economy and increase in assets are always debited as per accounting rule. So, increase in foreign exchange reserve will be recorded on debit side of capital account.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

Which department of RBI is responsible for issuing currency notes?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

Under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Department of Currency Management is responsible for administering the Reserve Bank's currency management functions. Currency management is primarily concerned with the issuance of notes and coins, as well as the removal of unfit notes from circulation.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 29

Which of the following is a bidirectional bus?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 29

Data can move both to and from the CPU on the data bus, which is bidirectional. Contrarily, the address and control buses are unidirectional and spread information from the processor to the other linked devices.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

By default, your document will print in __ mode

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