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EMRS Accountant Exam Mock Test - 3 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 (130 Questions)

You can boost your EMRS 2026 exam preparation with this EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of EMRS 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 150 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 130
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, Language Competency Test

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EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

B > C; C < D; D > E; E > F

Conclusions:

I. C < F

II. B > D

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Given statements: B > C; C E; E > F

On combining: B > C < D > E < F

Conclusions:

I. C < F → False (as C < D > E < F → clear relationship between F and D cannot be determined)

II. B > D → False (as B > C < D → clear relation between B and D cannot be determined)

Hence, none of the conclusions is true.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: 
P > S ≥ M = L < J = N

Conclusions:

I. L < N

II. P > M

III. S = L 

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Given statement: P > S ≥ M = L < J = N

I. L < N → True (as L < J = N)

II. P > M → True (as P > S ≥ M)

III. S = L → False (as S ≥ M = L gives either S = L or S > L)

Hence, both conclusions I and II are true.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Statements:
All the actors are girls.
All the girls are beautiful.

Conclusions:
1. All the actors are beautiful.
2. Some girls are actors.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Statements:
All the harmoniums are instruments.
All the instruments are flutes.

Conclusions:
(1) All the flutes are instruments.
(2) All the harmoniums are flutes.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Since all the harmoniums are instruments and all instruments are flutes, then flutes include instruments and harmoniums. And instruments include harmoniums.
(i) All flutes cannot be instruments, because instruments are flutes, but flutes can contain something else as well.
(ii) All the harmoniums are flutes because harmoniums are instruments and instruments are flutes.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

P is 15m to the west of Q. R is 13m to the south of Q and 5m to the east of S. T is 20m to the north of S.T is 10m to the east of U…….

Q.

In which direction R with respect to P

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

N is more intelligent than M. M is not as intelligent as Y. X is more intelligent than Y but not as good as N. Who is the most intelligent of all ?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

According to the question,
N > M
Y > M
N > X > Y
On arranging the above data, we get
&becaul; N > X > Y > M
So, N is the most intelligent among them.

So Option A is correct

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Q. In a queue, Rahul is fourteenth from the front and John is seventeenth from the end, while Alisha is in between Rahul and John. There are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Rahul and Alisha?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Rahul’s position 14th from front
John’s Position 17th from last 
Alisha is between them


People between them 48 – (14+17) = 17
Where the midmost is Alisha 
So she has 8 people on either of her side.

So Option A is correct

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

There are five persons sitting on a bench. The one, who is at extreme left, is heaviest. D is second from right and is the lightest. A is sitting to left of B, who is heavier than him. C is heavier than B but is not the heaviest.

Q. Who is 4th from right?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Correct Answer :- C

Explanation : As A is sitting to the left of B and it is also said who is heavier than him , means A is heavier than B.

Then it says C is heavier than B but not heaviest, so C will come after A.

And lastly it says that D is second from right that means Q will occupy the 1st position from right

The sequence will be :

A C B D Q

So Option C is correct

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Which one will replace the question mark ?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

(7 x 3) + 8 = 29

(4 x 3) + 7 = 19

(5 x ?) + 6 = 31

? = 5.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which one will replace the question mark ?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

(12)2 - (8)2 = 80

and (16)2 - (7)2 = 207

Therefore (25)2 - (21)2 = 184.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Which one will replace the question mark ?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

'Table' is related to 'Wood' in the same way as 'Shirt' is related to:

Detailed Solution: Question 12

As 'Table' is made from 'Wood' in the same way 'Shirt' is made from 'Cloth'.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

The average of 7 consecutive number is n, if the next 2 number also included then the new average will be increased by ?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Avg of 7 no= (7+1)/2 = 8/2 = 4
Avg of 9 no = (9+1)/2 = 5
5- 4 = 1
Hence increased by 1

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

The average number of runs scored by Virat Kohli in four innings is 48. In the fifth inning, Kohli scores some runs such that his average now becomes 60. In the 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than his fifth innings and now the average of his last five innings becomes 78. How many runs did he score in his first innings? (He does not remain not out in any of the innings)

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Runs scored by Kohli in first 4 innings = 48*4 = 192
Average of 5 innings is 60, so total runs scored after 5 innings = 60*5 = 300
Hence runs scored by Kohli in fifth inning = 300 – 192 = 108
It is given that in 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than this, so he must score 120 in the sixth inning. Hence total runs scored in 6 innings = 300+120 = 420
Now average of last five innings is 78, so runs scored in last innings = 390
Hence runs scored in first inning = 420 – 390 = 30.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

If 4 (P's Capital ) = 6 ( Q's Capital ) = 10 ( R's Capital ) , then out of the total profit of Rs 4650 , R will receive

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Let
P's capital = p,
Q's capital = q and
R's capital = r.
Then

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Part filled by (A + B) in 1 minute = 
Suppose the tank is filled in x minutes.
Then, 
⇒ x = 30 min.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 6 hours. An inlet pipe fills water at the rate of 4 liters a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to the leak, the tank is empty in 24 hours. How many liters does the cistern hold?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Part emptied by the leak in 1 hour = 1/6
Net part emptied by the leak and the inlet pipe in 1 hour = 1/24
Part filled by the inlet pipe in 1 hour 
i.e., inlet pipe fills the tank in 8 hours = (8 * 60) minutes = 480 minutes
Given that the inlet fills water at the rate of 4 liters a minute
Hence, water filled in 480 minutes = 480 * 4 = 1920 litre
i.e., The cistern can hold 1920 litre

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

By selling a cap for ₹ 29.75, a man gains 6.25%. What will be the CP of the cap?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The SP = 106.25% of the CP. Thus, CP = 29.75/1.0625
= ₹ 28.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

A steel wire is bent in the shape of a square having semi-perimeter as 18 cm and an area of 81 cm2, and then the same wire is again bent to make a circle. Find the ratio of the area of square to that of circle.
 

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Semi-perimeter (2a) = 18 cm
Area (a × a) = 81 cm2
Solving both, we get a = 9 cm.
Now, circumference = 2 × 18 = 36
So, r = 
Area of circle = 

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Solve the quadratic equation x2 – ix + 6 = 0

Detailed Solution: Question 20

x2 - ix + 6 = 0
x2 - 3ix + 2ix - 6i2 = 0    { i2 = -1}
x(x-3i) + 2i(x-3i) = 0
(x+2i) (x-3i) = 0
x = -2i, 3i 

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

 so the least integral value of n is

Detailed Solution: Question 21

{(1 + i)/(1 - i)}n = 1
multiply (1 + i) numerator as well as denominator .
{(1 + i)(1 + i)/(1 - i)(1 + i)}n = 1
{(1 + i)²/(1² - (i)²)}n = 1
{(1 + i² +2i)/2 }n = 1
{(2i)/2}n = 1
{i}n = 1
we know, i4n = 1 where , n is an integer.
so, n = 4n where n is an integers
e.g n = 4 { because least positive integer 1 }
hence, n = 4

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Based on the information in the passage, with which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The passage criticizes media leaks and emphasises the importance of trust, accountability, and responsible journalism. The author argues that media leaks harm serious policy discussions and that the media must earn public trust.

Therefore, the author would clearly disagree with the idea that spreading misinformation to the public is justified.

Hence, Option A is correct.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Implicit in the author’s argument that leaks result in far more limited and unreliable policy discussions with foreign leaders is the idea that:

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The passage explains that leaks make officials and foreign leaders reluctant to speak freely because their statements might appear in the media. This fear limits open policy discussions.

This implies that leaders worry that if sensitive information becomes public, it may lead to negative public reactions, which discourages honest communication.

Therefore, Option D best reflects the implicit idea in the author’s argument.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

What is the main idea of the passage?  

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The passage discusses how media leaks harm effective policy-making by discouraging open discussions between government officials and foreign leaders. It also explains how leaks are often part of political strategies and how media credibility has declined due to scandals and politicization.

Thus, the central idea of the passage is the negative impact of leaks on foreign policy discussions and media credibility.

Hence, Option B is correct.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences

A. It was a tough situation and Manasi was taking pains to make it better. 

B. Slowly her efforts gave fruit and things started improving. 

C. Everyone complemented her for her good work. 

D. She was very happy and thanked everyone.

Detailed Solution: Question 25

 Everyone complimented her for her good work.
The appropriate preposition should have been ‘on’ and not ‘for’. And so, the correct sentence should be:
Everyone complimented her on her good work.
Sometimes prepositions may be used in a sentence though they are not needed, so this is another kind of incorrect sentence that the examinee should be able to identify.

The correct answer is Option C. 

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Directions: Spot the error in the underlined part of the sentence and choose the correct sentence accordingly.

The tendency to eat late, though it has never been tested properly, many nutritionists believe, as a factor in putting on weight.

Detailed Solution: Question 26

  • There are two clauses in this sentence: The tendency to eat late is believed (by nutritionists) to be a factor in putting on weight and (though) it has never been tested properly.
  • The first clause can also be correctly constructed as "The tendency to eat late, many nutritionists believe, is a factor in putting on weight." But, this is not among the options.
  • "Believed, as a factor" is incorrect.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Direction: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Good writers use more verbs.

B. However, it is hard to write without verbs.

C. The reason is that if unnecessary words are reduced, the verb-percentage goes up as a mathematical necessity.

D. So “use verbs” is not really good advice; writers have to use verbs, and trying to add extra ones would not turn out well.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Sentence C talks of how verb usage goes up when unnecessary words are reduced. This ties in with sentence A which talks of how good writers use more verbs. It is also clear C follows A.

Sentence B says it is hard to write without verbs. Sentence D adds to this saying that "use verbs" is hence not good advice. Therefore D follows B.

By looking at the sentences we see that sentence A makes a good start to the paragraph.

The question is " Arrange the sentences in the correct order "
The order is ACBD

Hence, the answer is ACBD
Choice B is the correct answer.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Direction: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. During the 24-hour darkness of the austral autumn and winter, the South Pole Telescope operates nonstop under impeccable conditions for astronomy.

B. The atmosphere is thin (the pole is more than 9,300 feet above sea level, 9,000 of which are ice), stable (due to the absence of the heating and cooling effects of a rising and setting Sun) and the pole has some of the calmest winds on Earth, blowing almost always from the same direction.

C. “The South Pole has the harshest environment on Earth, but also the most benign,” says William Holzapfel, a University of California at Berkeley astrophysicist, the on-site lead researcher at the South Pole Telescope.

D. From an astronomer’s perspective, not until the Sun goes down and stays down—March through September— does the South Pole get “benign.”

Detailed Solution: Question 28

C talks of the South Pole being benign. D refers to the word benign in quotes. So, D should come after C, and quite possibly immediately after C.

The idea conveyed here is that the South Pole has the most benign weather and it is benign from March to September. So we can directly eliminate choice (d).

Sentence C makes a better choice for starting the paragraph than A.

Sentence A talks of impeccable conditions for astronomy and B explains what it is.

The question is " Arrange the sentences in the correct order "
The order is CDAB

Hence, the answer is CDAB
Choice C is the correct answer.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Direction: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A.The oldest fossil grasses are just 70 million years old, although grass may have evolved a bit earlier than that.

B. There have been land plants for 465 million years, yet there were no flowers for over two-thirds of that time.

C. The equally-familiar grasses appeared even more recently.

D. Flowering plants only appeared in the middle of the dinosaur era.

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Sentences B and D talk of flowers and flowering plants. Sentence B talks of how land plants existed without flowers for several millions of years. Sentence D talks of when flowering plants appeared. It is clear D follows B.

Sentence C speaks of “equally familiar grasses"?. So obviously, some other example- in this case, flowering plants- precedes this.

Sentences A and C talk of the evolution of grasses. A follows C.

The question is " Arrange the sentences in the correct order "
The order is BDCA

Hence, the answer is BDCA
Choice D is the correct answer.

EMRS Accountant Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Direction: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Patrilineal ownership of lands and the culture of dowry attached to it have turned daughters into bad debts.

B. The control of such castes on local politics aggravates masculine hubris.

C. The bigotry of our village culture and polity is intrinsically linked to a control of land and agriculture.

D. Land makes certain castes ‘kingly’ in rural communities.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Sentence C talks of the intolerance that marks the village culture and polity. We see that this is the main idea of the paragraph.

Sentence D talks of some castes being considered “kingly"? in rural communities. Sentence C talks of the control of “these castes"? on local politics and how it aggravates masculine pride. So C comes after D. Both of these sentences substantiate the idea of bigotry that is made by sentence C.

Sentence A talks of the patrilineal system of passing ownership of lands and system of linking dowry to land ownership turning daughters to be regarded as “bad debts"?. This sentence substantiates the point make by sentence C.

The question is " Arrange the sentences in the correct order "
The order is CDBA

Hence, the answer is CDBA
Choice C is the correct answer.

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