JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

Jatakas:

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Jatakas are the best example of Buddhist non-canonical literature. These are a compilation of stories from the previous births of Buddha.

• Statement 1 is correct: The stories of the Bodhisattva or the (future) would-be Buddha are also discussed in these Jatakas.

• Statement 2 is correct: Although these stories propagate Buddhist religious doctrines, they are available in Sanskrit and Pali. Each story of the birth of the Buddha is equivalent to a Jataka tale. It was believed that Buddha passed through 550 births before he was born as Gautama. These tales combine the popular tales, ancient mythology as well as sociopolitical conditions in North India between 600 BC and 200 BC. The great epic Buddhacharita by Aswaghosha (78 A.D.) is another example of Buddhist literature in Sanskrit.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Official Language Act, 1963. This Act declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. English has been given the status of “subsidiary official language” of the union, but there is no national language of India. Hindi is not a national language. Neither does the Constitution nor any Act defines the national language.

Statement 2 is correct: Initially 14 languages were selected under Eighth Schedule. They were:

• Assamese

• Hindi

• Malayalam

• Punjabi

• Telugu

• Bengali

• Kannada

• Marathi

• Sanskrit

• Urdu

• Gujarati

• Kashmiri

• Odia

• Tamil

Later Sindhi was added as the 15th language through 21st Amendment Act of 1967. Three more languages were added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992. They are Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 added four more languages to the Eighth Schedule. They are Bodo, Maithili, Dogri and Santhali. At present there are 22 languages in total listed under the eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution.

• Statement 1 is correct: ‘Nimbarka’ was the founder of ‘Dvaitadvaita’ i.e., dualistic monism. He wrote Vedanta-Parijata-Saurabha, a commentary on the Brahma Sutras. He was a Radha-Krishna devotee and settled down in Mathura. He referred to the five methods of salvation-Karma, Vidya (Not an independent factor), Dhyana (meditation), Prapatti (devotion) and Gurupasatti (devotion and self-surrender to guru).

• Statement 2 is correct: The Bhakti saints were divided into two schools depending on the way they imagined God. One school of thought imagined God as formless with no attributes or quality. This school of thought is the Nirguna School. They are more focused on acquiring knowledge. They rejected the scriptures and condemned every form of idol worship. The prominent figures of this school of thought were Kabir, Guru Nanak and Dadu Dayal.

National Logistics Policy 2022:

• Aim:

  • To ensure seamless movement of goods and services across the country and cut elevated logistics costs, often considered the biggest structural bottleneck for both external and internal trade in India.

New Logistics Policy has four critical features:

• Integration of Digital System (IDS): Under the IDS, 30 different systems of seven departments are integrated; these include:

  • Data of the road transport,

  • Railways,

  • Customs,

  • Aviation and

  • Commerce departments

• Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP): It will bring all the digital services related to the transportation sector into a single portal, freeing the exporters from a host of very long and cumbersome processes.

  Hence option 2 is correct.

• Ease of Logistics (ELOG): A new digital platform–Ease of logistics

  • Services or E-Logs–has also been launched. Hence option 3 is correct.

  • This will allow industry to directly take up operational issues with government agencies for speedy resolution.

• System Improvement Group (SIG): Monitor all logistics-related projects regularly and tackling all obstacles.

Option 1 is incorrect:

• The Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC) has launched eSanchit (eStorage and Computerized Handling of Indirect Tax documents) for paperless processing, uploading of supporting documents and to facilitate the trading across Borders.

Option 4 is incorrect:

• Electronic Way Bill (E-Way Bill) is basically a compliance mechanism wherein by way of a digital interface the person causing the movement of goods uploads the relevant information prior to the commencement of movement of goods and generates e-way bill on the GST portal.

The Hathigumpha Inscription ("Elephant Cave" inscription), from Udayagiri, near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, was inscribed by Kharavela, the then Emperor of Kalinga in India. It is written in Prakrit. It faces straight towards the Rock Edicts of Ashoka at Dhauli, situated at a distance of about six miles.

• Statement 1 is correct: Dholavira is an ancient archaeological site situated in the Kutch district of Gujarat. It is famous for the ruins of the Indus Valley Civilisation that is popularly also known as ‘Harappan Civilisation’. They city is referred to as ‘Kotada Timba’ in the local language. According to the research conducted in this area, archaeologists argue that this was one of the most prominent sites in the Harappan settlements. The earliest settlement on the site.

• Statement 2 is correct: These caves are situated in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra state. They are famous for 29 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments, which have highly carved imagery on the walls. The monuments in the caves are dated to be from 2nd BCE to 5th BCE. They were made a UNESCO world heritage site in 1983. Although the state is responsible for their protection, the Archaeological Survey of India have been protecting the site from damage and engaging experts to conserve the art. The Ajanta caves are surrounded by a heavy forest and were not used for a long while. A British officer who was on a hunting party rediscovered them in 1819. The caves are numbered 1 to 28 according to their place in the U-shaped path. The major art figures are related to Buddhism and many tales from the Jatakas have been depicted on the walls. These caves are very close to the Ellora Caves, which contain religious imagery of Hinduism and Jainism. They also have some caves dedicated to the Buddhist sects.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Vittala Temple is the most iconic place of Hampi. Hampi literally means ‘Champion’ and it symbolises the major settlement in the ruins of the city of Vijayanagara, which was the former capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. Although it is a small site in Karnataka, it is still an important religious and cultural centre. It derives its name Hampi from the Kannada word “Hampe”, derived from Pampa (the old name of the Tungabhadra river). We have evidences of Ashokan minor rock edicts at Hampi, but it reached its zenith under the patronage of the Vijayanagara Rulers (1343-1565).

Statement 1 is correct: As one moves from west to east in India, the annual rainfall gradually increases. Thus, from west to east the vegetation gets denser. The thickly forested areas of Ganga and Brahmaputra basin, could be cleared only with iron implements, which appeared in much later stage. Therefore, natural resources of less rainy western parts were utilized first.

• Harappan Culture flourished in the Indus Valley

• Vedic Culture in the Western Gangetic basin

• Post Vedic culture in the Middle Gangetic Basin

• Gupta Period - Bengal and Lower Gangetic valley came in limelight

• Early medieval period - Brahmaputra valley came in focus.

Statement 2 is correct: Rivers served as arteries of commerce and communication in Ancient India, hence all major cities like Hastinapur, Prayagraj, Varanasi, Pataliputra came along river banks.

• The Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) was a Bronze Age civilisation in the northwestern regions of South Asia, lasting from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE, and in its mature form from 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE.

• It extended from Pakistan's Balochistan in the west to India's western Uttar Pradesh in the east, from northeastern Afghanistan in the north to India's Gujarat state in the south.

• Daimabad in Maharastra is a site belonging to the late Harappan stage.

• Statement 1 is correct: Muhammad I defeated the Vijayanagar kingdom and consequently Golconda was annexed to Bahamani kingdom.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Bahman Shah and his son Muhammad Shah, the administrative system was well organized. The kingdom was divided into four administrative units called ‘tarafs’ or provinces. These provinces were Daulatabad, Bidar, Berar, and Gulbarga.

• Statement 3 is correct: Every province was under a tarafdar who was also called a subedar. Some land was converted into Khalisa land from the jurisdiction of the tarafdar. Khalisa land was that piece of land which was used to run expenses of the king and the royal household.

• Statement 1 is correct: The most important department of state, next to the wazir was diwan-i-arz or the military department. The head of the department was called the ariz-i-mamalik. In those days, no king could have survived on the throne if he entrusted the chief command of the armed forces to someone else. Ghiyasuddin Balban ordered separation of military department from the finance department (Diwan-i- Wizarat) and named it Diwan-i-Ariz. The military department was headed by Ariz-i- Mumalik.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: It was Allauddin Khilji and not Mohammad Bin Tughlaq who appointed Barids. Allauddin Khilji was convinced that inefficiency of the spy system is one of the reasons for frequent rebellions in the empire. So he reorganised the espionage system to keep himself in touch with all the developments of the empire. He appointed Barids who reported all the news of the army and Munhiyans who were spies.

• Gopal Ganesh Agarkar (1856-1895) was an educationist and social reformer from Maharashtra. A strong advocate of the power of human reason, he criticized the blind dependence on tradition and false glorification of the past. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was a cofounder of the New English School (1880), the Deccan Education Society (1884) and the Fergusson College (1885). He was also a principal of Fergusson College.

• He was also the first editor of Kesari, the newspaper started by Lokmanya Tilak in 1881.

• Later, he started his own periodical, Sudharak, which spoke against untouchability and the caste system.

• Statement 1 is correct: Prarthana Samaj was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay based on earlier reform movements.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 when Kesab Chandra sen visited Maharashtra. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined. The main reformers were the intellectuals who advocated reforms of the social system of the Hindus. Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was an Indian yogi during the 19th-century and the spiritual guru of Swami Vivekananda.

• Statement 3 is correct: The aim of Prarthana Samaj was to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It critically examined the relations between contemporary social and cultural systems and religious beliefs and gave priority to social reform as compared with the political changes already initiated by the British government.

• Moderate-Extremist split occurred in the Surat session of Indian National Congress in 1907.

• Komatgatamaru incident happened in 1914.

• Mahatma Gandhi came back to India in January 1915.

• Home Rule leagues were set up in 1916. (Tilak - April 1916 and Annie Besant -September 1916).

• Statement 1 is correct: Moderates demanded and raised the voice for separation of judicial from executive functions.

• Statement 2 is correct: The moderates` demand for Indianization of government services on multiple accounts like:

  • On the economic grounds that British civil servants got very high emoluments while inclusion of Indians would be more economical; on political grounds that, since salaries of British bureaucrats were remitted back home and pensions paid in England (all drawn from Indian revenue), this amounted to economic drain of national resources; and, on moral grounds that Indians were being discriminated against by being kept away from positions of trust and responsibility.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The moderates call for increase in expenditure on welfare (i.e., health, sanitation), education—especially elementary and technical—irrigation works and improvement of agriculture, agricultural banks for cultivators, etc. and reduction of expenditure on wars.

  • They did not raise the demand for increase in defense expenditure for protection of Indian territories.

• Statement 1 is correct: It was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao in 1887. It focused attention on social issues of importance; it could be called the social reform cell of INC

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The conference met annually from its first session in Madras in 1887 at the same and venue as the Indian National Congress (IN(c).

The prominent mountain passes of India are:

1. Nathu La Pass: Located in Sikkim it is a border trade post between India and China.

2. Shipki La Pass:It is in Himachal Pradesh and is also a trade post between India and China. It is located through Sutlej Gorge.

3. Jelep La Pass: This pass links Sikkim to Lhasa in Tibet autonomous region of China. It passes through the Chumbi valley which was in the news due to Dokhlam stand-off.

4. Khardung La: It links Leh to Siachen. It is the highest motorable pass in the country..

5. Bara-Lacha La: This pass links Himachal Pradesh to Ladakh, connecting Manali with Leh.

6. Lipu Lekh: This pass connects Uttarakhand with Tibet autonomous region of China. Mansarovar pilgrims travel through this pass. It is also a border trade post between India and China.

7. Niti Pass: This pass joins Tibet ARC with Uttarakhand.

8. Rohtang Pass:It is located on eastern Pir Panjal Range and connects Kullu valley with Lahaul and Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh.

9. Bomdi-La: The Bomdi-La pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, in Tibet ARC.

10. Dihang pass: Located in Arunachal Pradesh, this pass provides connectivity with Myanmar.

11. Diphu pass: This pass also connects Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar. It remains open all round the year and is hence important for trade and transportation.

12. oji La: It connects Srinagar with Kargil and Leh. Beacon Force of Border Road Organization is responsible for clearing and maintaining this pass.

13. Senkotta Gap: It is located in the Western Ghats and connects Madurai in Tamil Nadu with Kottayam in Kerala.

• Statement 1 is correct. Ministry of Power, Government of India has launched an ambitious program to encourage the deployment of Energy Efficient chiller systems in the country. The Chiller Star Labelling Program has been formulated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). The program envisages providing star rating in terms of its energy performance

• . Statement 2 is correct. Chillers are used extensively for space conditioning of buildings and for industrial process cooling applications. Statement 3 is correct. Chillers, being energy intensive system, contribute more than 40 per cent of the total energy consumption in commercial buildings. Therefore, it is important to optimize energy performance of chillers and create awareness amongst the end users to adopt transition towards energy efficient chillers.

• India follows a single standard time knows as ‘Indian Standard Time’ which is GMT+30. The 82.5’E longitude which passes through Mirzapur near Allahabad is used for its measurement. India does not observe daylight savings time. They were briefly used during the Sino–Indian War of 1962 and the Indo–Pak Wars of 1965 and 1971. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• CSIR-NPL monitors the Indian Standard Time along with maintaining other standards. It’s suggestion for a different time zone for the north eastern states was recently denied by the government. Statement 2 is correct. Bagaan time or Chai Bagaan time is used by tea gardens in Assam to save their daylight working hours. It is one hour ahead of the IST.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. KB) Daylight saving time (DST), also daylight savings time or daylight time (United States) and summer time (United Kingdom, European Union, and others), is the practice of advancing clocks during the summer months so that evening daylight lasts longer, while sacrificing normal sunrise times. Typically, regions that use daylight saving time adjust clocks forward one hour close to the start of spring and adjust them backward in the autumn. In effect, DST causes a lost hour of sleep in the spring and an extra hour of sleep in the fall.

• India, apart from many small islands, has two main archipelagos- Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, and the Lakshadweep islands in Arabian sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labyrinth island. The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the South, separated by the Ten-degree channel. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains.The only volcano in India, Barren Island, is located in Andaman and Nicobar. It is an active volcano and had last erupted in 2017. It also has a mud volcano situated in Baratang island, these mud volcanoes have erupted sporadically, with recent eruptions in 2005 believed to have been associated with the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake.

• Statement 2 is correct. Islands of Lakshadweep in the Arabian sea are located off the coast of Kerala. The main archipelago is separated from Minicoy by the 9-degree channel. Minicoy in turn is separated from Maldives by the 8-degree channel. Lakshadweep islands are made of coral deposits and there are many atolls. Statement 3 and 4 are correct.

This is the most widely spread and important soil. The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inland towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated. Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and can be productive after proper treatment and irrigation.

Statement 1 is correct. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar whereas Khadar has more fine particles and is more fertile than the Bangar.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Karbi Anglong-Meghalaya plateau is an extension of the Peninsular plateau. They are two different plateaus - Karbi Anglong Plateau and Meghalaya plateau.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. These are separated from the Peninsular plateau by a huge fault. This fault is believed to have formed due to the force exerted by the north-eastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of formation of the Himalayas. The fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Karbi-Meghalaya plateau. It later filled up with river deposits from numerous rivers. The plateau region receives most of its rainfall from the south west monsoons. Places like Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are located here, which receive the highest rainfall in the world.

• Statement 3 is correct. Despite heavy rainfall the region has an eroded and bare rocky structure, with little to no permanent vegetation.

• Karewas: During the formation of Pir Panjal range large lakes were formed as rivers were impounded. These lakes continued to receive sediments from rivers. With time water drained away and thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines were left behind. This resulted in formation of lacustrine plains known as Karewas. These are useful for cultivation of Zafran and are of great economic significance to the Kashmir Valley. Option 1 is correct.

• Kayals: These are backwaters or lagoons formed at the Malabar coast. They are used for fishing, inland navigation, boat racing events, and tourism. Option 2 is incorrect. Patland plateaus: These are lava capped plateaus which have been formed by continuous denudation of high plateaus. They have been reduced from high and extensive plateaus to isolated hills with flat tops with steep slopes. The Peninsular India is made up of series of such plateaus- Hazaribagh plateau, Palamu plateau, Ranchi plateau etc. Option 3 is correct.

• Mangroves: These are tropical coastal vegetation that grow along the coast in salt marshes, tidal creeks, mud flats and estuaries. These are halophytes, or salt tolerant and have adapted to harsh coastal conditions through salt filtration system, low oxygen requirement and viviparous seeds. In India they are found in Andaman and Nicobar, Suderbans of West Bengal, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Krishna deltas. Option 4 is correct.

• Badlands/Ravines: These are a type of fluvial erosion. They are formed as a result of constant vertical erosion by streams and rivers flowing over semi-arid and arid regions. The area through which Chambal flows does not receive enough rainfall and has created ravines 60–80m in depth. Option 5 is correct.

• Estuaries: These are the transition zones between river and marine environment. They have brackish water. They are different from deltas, as deltas are a depositional landmass, while estuaries are water bodies. In India they are usually formed on the Western coast. Option 6 is incorrect.

• In Context: The La Nina is being blamed this year for worsening the longest spell of heat waves in north, west and Central India.

• Statement 1 is not correct: El-Nino: It leads to warming in surface temperature of the eastern Pacific Ocean region. This is associated with an increase in rainfall along the western coast of South America and a decrease in rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. It also leads to westerly winds, instead of the generally occurring easterly winds.

• Statement 2 is correct: La-Nina: It is the reverse phenomenon of El-Nino. The temperatures over the eastern Pacific Ocean increases, along with a decrease in rainfall. Also, the rainfall over the Indian subcontinent increases, along with augmentation of the strength of surface-level easterly winds. El-Nino causes higher temperatures and lesser rainfall over the Indian subcontinent, during the monsoon season. On the other hand, la-Nina increases the rainfall and decreases the temperature. Therefore, it is the La-Nina which is (ironically!) much warmly welcomed in the Indian subcontinent. While El-Nino leads to drought events in the subcontinent, La-Nina is primarily associated with flood events. These disasters affect the socio-economic status of the affected communities.

• Statement 1 is correct. Cyclotrons are used to produce radioisotopes for diagnostic and therapeutic use for cancer care. Cyclone-30, the biggest cyclotron in India for medical application became operational in September 2018.

• Statement 2 is correct. Cyclone-30 facility at VECC, Kolkata, a Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) unit, will have many unique features, under various stages of implementation, which are first of its kind in many ways. This facility will provide for affordable radioisotopes and related radiopharmaceuticals for the entire country especially for Eastern India for cancer treatment. It will also have in-situ production of Gallium-68 and Palladium-103 isotopes, used for breast cancer diagnosis and prostate cancer treatment, respectively.

All Statements are incorrect: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian. diet. Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops. Major pulses producing states in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

• Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.

• The implications of these are:

  • Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mold his relation with God or Creatures in whatever way he desires.

  • Right to profess: Declaration of one’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.

  • Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and exhibition of beliefs and ideas.

  • Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another person to one’s own religion.

• From the above, it is clear that Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs but also religious practices (rituals). Moreover, these rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• However, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to:

  • regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice

  • provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.

• Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

• However, this provision shall not apply to an educational institution administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust, requiring imparting of religious instruction in such institution. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Further, no person attending any educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent.

• Thus, Article 28 distinguishes between four types of educational institutions:

  • Institutions wholly maintained by the State.

  • Institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust.

  • Institutions recognized by the State.

  • Institutions receiving aid from the State.

• In (1) religious instruction is completely prohibited while in (2), religious instruction is permitted. In (3) & (4) religious instruction is permitted on a voluntary basis.

• Initiative is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment. A referendum is a procedure whereby proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes. Any proposed law can, with sufficient backing, be put on the ballot in an election. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• A plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public importance. It is a direct vote of the qualified electors of a state in regard to some important public question. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• Article 39 (b) provides for the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good and Article 39 (c) provides for the prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production.

• Article 39 (b) says that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing: that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.

• Article 39 (c) says that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing: that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

• In the Golaknath Case (1967), the Supreme court had pronounced that the parliament cannot amend the Fundamental Rights to give effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy. The parliament responded again by bringing the 25th Amendment Act of the constitution which inserted Article 31C in Part III.

• Article 31 C contained two provisions:

  • If a law is made to give effect to DPSPs in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) and in the process, the law violates Article 14, Article 19, or Article 31, then the law should not be declared unconstitutional and void merely on this ground.

  • Any such law which contains the declaration that it is to give effect to DPSPs in Article 39(b) & Article(c) shall not be questioned in a court of law.

• Later parliament brought the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, which extended the scope of the above first provision of Article 31C by including within its purview any law to implement any of the DPSPs specified in Part IV of the constitutional and not merely Article 39(b) or (c). However, this extension was declared unconstitutional and void by the SC in the Minerva Mills Case(1980).

• These two Directive Principles (under Article 39 (b) and Article 39 (c)) thus have been given precedence over Fundamental Right 14 (Right to Equality) and Fundamental Right 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or 'abrogate' the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them.

• The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures.

• Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.

• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act, etc.

• These impose restrictions on their freedom of speech, right to form associations, right to be members of trade unions or political associations, right to communicate with the press, right to attend public meetings or demonstrations, etc.

• The expression members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• A parliamentary law enacted under Article 33 can also exclude the court-martial (tribunals established under the military law) from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts, so far as the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is concerned

• The 1858 Act is also known as the Act for the Good Government of India; it abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. Features of the Act:

  • It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament.

  • It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.

  • It constituted the secretary of state-in-council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England.