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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4

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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with regard to Nayanars and Alvars:

  1. They belonged to all castes including untouchables.

  2. They were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas.

  3. Songs of Nayanars were compiled in Divya Prabandham and songs of Alvars were compiled in Tevaram and Tiruvacakam.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Statement 1 is correct.

The seventh to ninth centuries saw the emergence of new religious movements, led by the Nayanars (saints devoted to Shiva) and Alvars (saints devoted to Vishnu) who came from all castes including those considered “untouchable” like the Pulaiyar and the Panars.

There were 63 Nayanars, who belonged to different caste backgrounds such as potters, “untouchable” workers, peasants, hunters, soldiers, Brahmanas and chiefs. The best known among them were Appar, Sambandar, Sundarar and Manikkavasagar. There were 12 Alvars, who came from equally divergent backgrounds, the best known being Periyalvar, his daughter Andal, Tondaradippodi Alvar and Nammalvar

Statement 2 is correct.

Nayanars and Alvars were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas and preached ardent love of Shiva or Vishnu as the path to salvation. They drew upon the ideals of love and heroism as found in the Sangam literature (the earliest example of Tamil literature, composed during the early centuries of the Common Era) and blended them with the values of bhakti. The Nayanars and Alvars went from place to place composing exquisite poems in praise of the deities enshrined in the villages they visited, and set them to music.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Tevaram and Tiruvacakam were compilations of songs composed by Nayanars and Divya Prabandham was a compilation of the songs composed by Alvars.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

With reference to Mughal Rule, consider the following statements:

  1. The Mughal court chronicles were written inUrdu.

  2. The Mahabharata was translated as the Razmnama.

  3. Persian became the language of administration at all levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Mughal court chronicles were written in Persian. Under the Sultans of Delhi it flourished as a language of the court and of literary writings, alongside north Indian languages, especially Hindavi and its regional variants.

Statement 2 is correct.

Translations of Sanskrit texts such as the Mahabharata and the Ramayana into Persian were commissioned by the Mughal emperors. The Mahabharata was translated as the Razmnama (Book of Wars).

Statement 3 is correct.

Persian was elevated to a language of empire, conferring power and prestige on those who had a command of it. It was spoken by the king, the royal household and the elite at court. Further, it became the language of administration at all levels so that accountants, clerks and other functionaries also learnt it.

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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chola rulers supported the brahmanical and bhakti traditions.

  2. The Shiva temple at Gangaikondacholapuram was constructed under the patronage of Chola rulers.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Statement 1 is correct.

The powerful Chola rulers (ninth to thirteenth centuries) supported Brahmanical and bhakti traditions, making land grants and constructing temples for Vishnu and Shiva.

Statement 2 is correct.

Some of the most magnificent Shiva temples, including those at Chidambaram, Thanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram, were constructed under the patronage of Chola rulers. This was also the period when some of the most spectacular representations of Shiva in bronze sculpture were produced.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Panchayats in the Mughal Society?

pool.

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Option a is correct.

The panchayat in the Mughal society was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal. Some sources suggest that the headman was chosen through the consensus of the village elders, and that this choice had to be ratified by the zamindar.

Option b is correct.

The panchayat derived its funds from contributions made by individuals to a common financial pool. These funds were used for defraying the costs of entertaining revenue officials who visited the village from time to time. Expenses for community welfare activities such as tiding over natural calamities (like floods), were also met from these funds.

Option c is correct.

Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the confidence of the village elders, failing which they could be dismissed by them. The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari of the panchayat.

Option d is incorrect.

The panchayat represented various castes and communities in the village, though the village menial-cum-agricultural worker was unlikely to be represented there. The decisions made by the panchayats were binding on the members.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

With reference to the Mughal Administration, consider the following statements:

  1. The Mansabdari System was introduced by Mughal emperor Babur.

  2. Sawar indicated the number of horsemen required to be maintained in service by the Mansabdar.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Mansabdari System was introduced by Mughal emperor Akbar. The system determined the rank and status of a government official and military generals. Every civil and military officer was given a mansab, which determined their salaries and allowances. The term manasabadar means a person having a mansab.

Statement 2 is correct.

All holders of government offices held ranks (mansabs) comprising two numerical designations: zat which was an indicator of position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the official (mansabdar), and sawar which indicated the number of horsemen he was required to maintain in service.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Consider the following statements during the ancient times:

  1. The idea of devotion to a Supreme god to attain salvation was never accepted by Buddhism and Jainism.

  2. Shiva and Vishnu were the only deities who were worshipped as the supreme god under Brahminical Religion.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The belief in the idea of devotion of Supreme God to attain salvation became so popular that it was accepted by Buddhists and Jains as well.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Along with Vishnu and Shiva, Durga was also worshipped as a Supreme deity.

Evolution of the idea of Bhakti –

Before large kingdoms emerged, different groups of people worshipped their own gods and goddesses. As people were brought together through the growth of towns, trade and empires, new ideas began to develop. The idea that all living things pass through countless cycles of birth and rebirth performing good deeds and bad came to be widely accepted.

Similarly, the idea that all human beings are not equal even at birth gained ground during this period. The belief that social privileges came from birth in a “noble” family or a “high” caste was the subject of many learned texts.

Many people were uneasy with such ideas and turned to the teachings of the Buddha or the Jainas according to which it was possible to overcome social differences and break the cycle of rebirth through personal effort.

Others felt attracted to the idea of a Supreme God who could deliver humans from such bondage if approached with devotion (or bhakti). This idea, advocated in the Bhagavadgita, grew in popularity in the early centuries of the Common Era.

Shiva, Vishnu and Durga as supreme deities came to be worshipped through elaborate rituals. At the same time, gods and goddesses worshipped in different areas came to be identified with Shiva, Vishnu or Durga. In the process, local myths and legends became a part of the Puranic stories, and methods of worship recommended in the Puranas were introduced into the local cults. Eventually the Puranas also laid down that it was possible for devotees to receive the grace of God regardless of their caste status. The idea of bhakti became so popular that even Buddhists and Jainas adopted these beliefs.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding agriculture during the Mughal period:

  1. Agriculture was largely rain-fed.

  2. Individual ownership of land was not known.

  3. The rulers encouraged production of commercial crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Statement 1 is correct.

The agriculture remained largely rain-fed in Mughal period, though many nahrs were also built.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Cultivation was based on the principle of individual ownership. Peasant lands were bought and sold in the same way as the lands of other property owners.

Statement 3 is correct.

Though, majorly food crops were grown, the rulers also encouraged production of commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane and oilseeds.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the first battle of Panipat in 1526.

  2. Gun powder technology for warfare was brought to India by Babur.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Statement 1 is correct.

Babur, the first Mughal emperor (1526- 1530), succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years old. He was forced to leave his ancestral throne due to the invasion of another Mongol group, the Uzbegs. After years of wandering, he seized Kabul in 1504. In 1526, Babur defeated the Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodi in the first battle of Panipat and captured Delhi and Agra.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Cannons were an important addition in sixteenth-century warfare. Babur used them effectively in the first battle of Panipat. However, Gun powder technology was brought to India for warfare much before Babur in the 14th century. Fire arms were used for the first time in regions such as Gujarat, Malwa and Deccan, and was used by Babur in early 16th century.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding India’s Ancient history?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Option a is correct.

There are several ways of finding out about the past. One is to search for and read books that were written long ago. These are called manuscripts, because they were written by hand (this comes from the Latin word ‘manu’, meaning hand). These were usually written on palm leaf, or on the specially prepared bark of a tree known as the birch, which grows in the Himalayas.

Option b is incorrect.

Over the years, many manuscripts were eaten away by insects, some were destroyed, but many have survived, often preserved in temples and monasteries. These books dealt with all kinds of subjects:

religious beliefs and practices, the lives of kings, medicine and science.

Option c is correct.

Many of the manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, others were in Prakrit (languages used by ordinary people) and Tamil.

Option d is correct.

Inscriptions are writings on relatively hard surfaces such as stone or metal. Sometimes, kings got their orders inscribed so that people could see, read and obey them. There are other kinds of inscriptions as well, where men and women (including kings and queens) recorded what they did. For example, kings often kept records of victories in battle.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Which of the following were Temple towns during the medieval times?

  1. Somnath

  2. Kanchipuram

  3. Tirupati

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Option a is correct

During Medieval times, towns emerged around temples such as those of Bhillasvamin (Bhilsa or Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh), and Somnath in Gujarat. Other important temple towns included Kanchipuram and Madurai in Tamil Nadu, and Tirupati in Andhra

Pradesh. Pilgrimage centres also slowly developed into townships. Vrindavan (Uttar Pradesh) and Tiruvannamalai (Tamil Nadu) are examples of two such towns. Ajmer (Rajasthan) was the capital of the Chauhan kings in the twelfth century and later became the suba headquarters under the Mughals.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements in the context of Raja Ram Mohun Roy:

  1. The Brahmo Samaj of Roy was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads.

  2. He wrote a book known as Precepts of Jesus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
  • Brahmo Samaj was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828. It was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads. It discarded the faith in divine incarnation. It denounced polytheism and idol worship. It criticized the caste system. It took no definite stand on the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of the soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Ram Mohun Roy was the initiator of the political questions in India. He protested against the imposition of taxes on tax-free lands. He demanded the abolition of the Company's trading rights and the removal of heavy export duties on Indian goods. He also raised the demand for the Indianisation of superior services and separation of executive and judiciary.

  • In 1920, Roy wrote a book called Precepts of Jesus, in which he tried to separate the philosophical message of the New Testaments, which he praised for its miracle stories. He wanted the high moral message of christ to be inculcated in Hinduism. Hence statement 2 is correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Which of the following can be considered as the reason for tribal revolts in pre-independence India?

  1. Loss of political autonomy

  2. Penetration of Christian missionaries into their areas

  3. Rise of Sanskritisation movements by outsiders

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
  • Tribal movements during the freedom struggle were the most frequent, militant, and violent of all the movements. There were Tribal movements in mainland India as well as in frontier states of the North-Eastern region. though these movements have the same characteristics as tribal identity there were different reasons for movements in these areas. the common goal, however, was the resentment against the imposition of laws by the foreign government.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The movement of tribes especially in the northeast region was not largely emphasized on forest-based or agrarian revolts as tribes in these regions are generally in control of their lands. Their revolt was often in the favour of Independence and political autonomy.

  • Statement 2 is correct: There was resentment against the activities of Christian missionaries. For example, Munda and Ho uprising during 1900 began as a religious movement against the activities of Christian missionaries and later gathered political force for the larger cause of distress.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Frontier Tribal revolts continued for a long time then no frontier tribal movements. one of the aspects was de-Sanskritisation. Meities organised these movements during the rule of Maharaja Churachand (between 1891 and 1941) to denounce the practice of the Neo-Vaishnavite. However, Sanskritisation movements during British rule were absent in the Northeastern region.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

In the context of the British rule in India, the ‘downward filtration theory’ is related to:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
  • In the context of British Rule in India, Downward filtration theory is related to the spread of Modern Education.

  • In case of paucity of funds, Govt. officials decided to spend money on education through English as medium of instruction. Vernacular languages were ignored.

  • Since, the allocation of funds were less and the education couldn’t be provided at the mass level. It was decided that funds would be allocated to educate only a handful of Indians who are from Upper and Middle classes so that they could assume the responsibility of teaching the masses and spreading modern ideas among them.

  • Education and modern ideas were thus supposed to filter or radiate downwards from the upper classes. This was the policy of downward filtration theory which was abandoned in 1854.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act 1858:

  1. Secretary of State exercised the ultimate authority over India.

  2. Governor-General was provided with an Executive Council to decide all important matters by a majority vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
  • The revolt of 1857 highlighted the mismanagement by the East India Company in India. It provided an opportunity for the British government to transfer the administration of India from the company to the Crown.

  • With this larger motive, a bill titled “An Act for the Better Government of India” was introduced and passed by the British Parliament in 1858.

    It provided for the following provisions:

    • India was to be governed directly and in the name of the crown.

      • The Crown will govern India directly through a Secretary of State for India.

      • He was to exercise the powers which were being enjoyed by the Court of Directors and Board of control.

      • The Secretary of state was vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration, thus he was now the political head of India.

      • He was also a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament.

      • Thus the ultimate power over India remained with the British Parliament. Hence statement is not correct.

    • It abolished the company rule, abolished the Court of directors and abolished the Board of control.

    • It abolished the Dual Government introduced by the Pitt’s India act.

    • The principle of Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.

    • It provided that the Governor-General would have an Executive Council whose members were to act as heads of different departments and as his official advisers.

      • The Council discussed all important matters and decided them by a majority vote; but the Governor-General had the power to override any important decision of the Council. Hence statement 2 is correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to Misls:

  1. Misls were military brotherhoods with a democratic set-up.

  2. The Sikhs were organized into twelve misls.

  3. Ranjit Singh was from the Ahluwaliya misl.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15
Sukarchakiya Misl and Ranjit Singh:
  • The weakness of the Mughals and invasions of Ahmad Shah Abdali created a general confusion and anarchy in Punjab. These political conditions helped the organized Dal Khalsa to consolidate further. The Sikhs consolidated in misls which were military brotherhoods with a democratic set-up. Misl is an Arabic word that means equal or alike. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Another meaning of Misl is State. During the period, 1763 to 1773, many misls started to rule the Punjab region under Sikh chieftains, from Saharanpur in the east to Attock in the west, from the mountainous regions of the north to Multan in the south.

  • At the time of the birth of Ranjit Singh (November 2, 1780), there were 12 important misls—Ahluwaliya, Bhangi, Dallewalia, Faizullapuria, Kanhaiya, Krorasinghia, Nakkai, Nishaniya, Phulakiya, Ramgarhiya Sukharchakiya, and Shaheed. The central administration of a misl was based on Gurumatta Sangh which was essentially a political, social, and economic system. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Ranjit Singh was the son of Mahan Singh, the leader of the Sukarchakiya misl. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Consider the following statements related to GOAL initiative:

  1. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

  2. It connects underprivileged young tribal women with expert mentors in the areas of business, fashion and arts to learn digital and life skills.

  3. It includes digital mentoring of young tribal girls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Tribal Affairs’ partners Niti Aayog and Facebook for Second Phase of Goal.

  • Statement 2 is correct. GOAL connects underprivileged young tribal women with senior expert mentors in the areas of business, fashion and arts to learn digital and life skills.

  • It aims at inspiring, guiding and encouraging tribal girls from across India to become village-level digital young leaders for their communities. Launched in March 2019.

  • Statement 3 is correct. In the second phase of the program, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Facebook together will digitally mentor 5000 young women in India’s tribal dominated districts.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following are Volcanic Islands?

  1. Hawaii Islands
  2. Galapagos Islands
  3. Reunion Islands
  4. Maldives

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Option (c) is the correct answer.

  • Hawaii Islands - in Pacific Ocean is a volcanic archipelago

  •  

    Galapagos Islands - in South Pacific Ocean is a volcanic archipelago

  •  

    Reunion Islands - in Indian Ocean has a volcanic origin.

  •  

    Maldives is a series of coral atolls.

 

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Which of the following economic activities can be performed with the help of glaciated lands?

  1. Sands and gravels for highway Construction

  2. Moulds for metal casting

  3. Natural reservoirs

  4. Hydro-electric power generation

  5. Tourism

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Terminal and recessional moraines are of little use for economic activities but fluvio-glacial deposits are very significant for economic activities of Man.

  • Eskers and Kames are excavated to provide sand and gravel for highway and building construction.

  • The purest sands are excavated to make moulds for metal casting.

  • The lake basins of glaciated mountains provides natural reservoirs.

  • Streams and waterfalls that plunge down from hanging valleys provides natural condition for hydro power generation.

  • Along with all these economic activities Skiing, Mountain climbing, sightseeing etc. contributes to tourism industries allot.

Sands and gravels for highway Construction, Moulds for metal casting, Natural reservoirs, Hydro-electric power generation, Tourism- all contributes to economic activities.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Coral Bleaching:

  1. It refers to the paling of a coral’s colour.

  2. It is caused due to an increase in density of zooxanthellae in reefs.

  3. Very high temperature may cause Coral Bleaching.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Bleaching refers to the paling of coral colour. It occurs when the density of zooxanthellae residing inside the reefs declines as the colour is given by the zooxanthellae.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. When the bleaching of corals occurs, they usually lose around 60-90 percent of their zooxanthellae, and each zooxanthellae may lose around 50-80 percent of its photosynthetic pigments.

  • If the stress-causing bleaching is not too severe and if it decreases with time, the affected corals usually regain their symbiotic algae within several weeks or a few months.

  • If the loss of zooxanthellae is prolonged i.e., if the stress continues and depleted zooxanthellae populations do not recover, the coral host eventually dies.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Corals come under stress due to sudden change in temperature, water salinity or excess nutrients. Thus, very high temperature can cause coral bleaching.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

  1. There are nine coastal states in India.

  2. The nodal ministries for the coastal region are the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), and Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Recently, the the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India tabled a report in

Parliament on whether steps taken by the Union Environment Ministry to conserve India’s

coastal ecosystems have been successful.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Coastal regions of India provide home to 13.36% of the people of the country and thus place tremendous pressure on the resources along the coast. There are nine coastal states in the country, namely, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The nodal institutions at the national level, Ministry of

Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), and Ministry of Earth Sciences along with various stakeholder ministries and other key scientific and research

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. Majority of the islands of India are located in the Arabain Sea.

  2. The islands of Arabian sea are mainly coral formations.

  3. Lakshadweep islands are separated from the Maldive islands by the 9-degree channel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. India has 615 islands/islets. Majority of them, around 572 islands/islets are located in the Bay of Bengal and remaining 43 islands/islets are located in the Arabian Sea. Apart from these, there are some coral islands in the Gulf of Mannar and Khambhat regions and there are some offshore islands along the mouth of Ganga river.

The Indian Island groups are generally grouped into two:

  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands located in the Bay of Bengal

  • The Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands located in the Arabian Sea (adjacent to Kerala coast) Lakshadweep Islands situated in the Arabian Sea is a group of 36 islands having an area of 32 square kilometres and extending between 8 N and 12 N latitude.

The main islands under the Lakshadweep Islands group are:

  • Kavaratti

  • Agatti

  • Minicoy

  • Amini

These islands were earlier known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands.

  • The name Lakshadweep was adopted on 1 November 1973

  • These islands are separated from one another by very narrow straits.

  • The Lakshadweep Islands group is a Union Territory administered by the President through a Lt. Governor.

  • It is the smallest Union Territory of India.

  • Kavaratti is the administrative capital of the Lakshadweep Islands. It is also the principal town of the Union Territory.

  • It is a uni-district Union Territory and is comprised of 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks and ten inhabited islands.

  • The name Lakshadweep in Malayalam and Sanskrit means 'a hundred thousand islands'.

  • The Lakshadweep Islands are located at a distance of 280 km to 480 km off the Kerala coast.

  • These islands are a part of the Reunion Hotspot volcanism.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The entire Lakshadweep islands group is made up of coral deposits.

  • Fishing is the main occupation on which livelihoods of many people depend.

  • The Lakshadweep islands have storm beaches consisting of unconsolidated pebbles, shingles, cobbles and boulders.

  • Minicoy Island, located to the south of nine-degree channel is the largest island among the Lakshadweep group.

  • 8 Degree Channel (8 degrees north latitude) separates islands of Minicoy and Maldives.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. 9 Degree Channel (9 degrees north latitude) separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago.

  • In Lakshadweep region, there is an absence of forests.

  • Pitti Island is an important breeding place for sea turtles and for a number of pelagic birds such as the brown noddy, lesser crested tern and greater crested tern. The Pitti island has been declared a bird sanctuary.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Arrange the following hills from North to South:

  1. Mishmi hills

  2. Patkai Bum

  3. Lushai Hills

  4. Naga Hills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Eastern Hills or The Purvanchal are the southward extension of Himalayas running along the north-eastern edge of India.

  • At the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sudden southward bend and form a series of comparatively low hills which are collectively called as the Purvanchal.

  • Purvanchal hills are convex to the west.

  • They run along the India-Myanmar Border extending from Arunachal Pradesh in the north to Mizoram in the south.

  • Patkai Bum hills are made up of strong sandstone; elevation varying from 2,000 m to 3,000 m; merges into Naga Hills where Saramati (3,826 m) is the highest peak.

  • Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Myanmar.

  • South of Naga Hills are the Manipur hills which are generally less than 2,500 metres in elevation.

  • The Barail range separates Naga Hills from Manipur Hills.

  • Further south the Barail Range swings to west into Jaintia, Khasi and Garo hills which are an eastward continuation of the Indian peninsular block. They are separated from the main block by Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

  • South of the Manipur Hills are the Mizo Hills (previously known as the Lushai hills) which have an elevation of less than 1,500 metres. The highest point is the Blue Mountain (2,157 m) in the south.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

With reference to the coastline of Submergence, consider the following statements:

  1. Fiord and Ria coasts are glaciated coasts.

  2. Depth of Fiord coast increases seaward whereas depth of Ria coast is more near the Land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Coastlines of Submergence:

Ria Coast: During the Ice Age a great deal of water was locked up in ice. The warmer climate that followed melted much of the ice. Subsequently there was an increase in the waters of the oceans and the sea level rose appreciably.

In some cases it is estimated that there was a rise of almost 300 feet! In upland coastal regions where the mountains run at right angles to the sea, that is transverse or discordant to the coast, a rise in the sea level submerges or drowns the lower parts of the valleys to form long, narrow branching inlets separated by narrow head­lands.

Statement 1 is incorrect. They differ from fiords in two important respects, i.e. they are not glaciated, and their depth increases seawards. A Ria coast is typical of the Atlantic type of coast like those of north-west France, north-west Spain, south-west Ireland, Devon and Cornwall. As Rias are generally backed by highland, they support few large commercial ports though they have deep water and offer sheltered anchorage. They have been

extensively used for siting fishing ports and naval bases such as Plymouth and Brest.

Fiord Coast: Fiords are submerged U-shaped glacial troughs. They mark the paths of glaciers that plunged down from the highlands. They have steep walls, often rising straight from the sea, with tributary branches joining the main inlet at right angles.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the greater intensity of ice erosion fiords are deep for great distances inland but there is a shallow section at the seaward end formed by a ridge of rock and called the threshold. Off the fiord coast are numerous islands or skerries which, with the shallow thresholds, sometimes only 200 feet deep, complicate coastal navigation. Fiord coasts are almost entirely confined to the higher latitudes of the temperate regions which

were once glaciated e.g. Norway, Alaska, British Columbia, southern Chile and the South Island of New Zealand.

Some of the large fiords are extremely long and deep. For example, the Sogne Fiord of Norway is 110 miles long, 4 miles wide and almost 4,000 feet deep in its mid-channel. Despite their deep and sheltered water, few large ports are located in fiords. Their mountainous background with poor accessibility inland, attract few settlements.

Agriculture is confined to the deltaic fans, built up where streams flow down to the fjords. The few towns that exist either as fishing or market centres e.g. Trondheim, are only of local importance.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Which of the following is not an erosional coastal landform?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Coastal Features of Deposition

  • Beaches: Sands & gravel loosened from the land are moved by waves to be deposited along the shore as beaches. The eroded material is transported along the shore in several distinct ways. Long shore drifts which comes obliquely to the coast carries material along the shore in the direction of the dominant wind. At the same time, backwash removes part of the material seawards, along the bed of the sea, and deposits it on the off-shore terrace and even beyond. The constant action of the waves automatically sorts out the shoreline deposits in a graded manner. The coarser materials are dropped by the waves at the top of the beaches & the finer materials, carried down the beach by the backwash, are dropped closer to the sea.

  • Spits & Bars:The debris eroded by waves is continually moved by long shore drift & where there is an indentation in the coast, such as at the mouth of the river or a bay, material may continue to be deposited across the inlet. As more materials are added, they will pile up into a ridge or embankment of shingle forming a spit, with one end attached to the land and other projecting into the sea. When a ridge of shingle is formed across the mouth of a river or the entrance to a bay, it is called a bar. Such a connecting bar that joins two land masses is known as Tombolo.

  • Marine Dunes & Dune Belts: With the force of on-shore winds, a large amount of coastal sand is driven landwards forming extensive marine dunes that stretches into dune belts. Their advance inland may engulf farms, roads & even the entire villages. Hence to arrest the migration of dunes, sand binding species of grass & shrubs, such as marram grass & pines are planted. KB) Coastal Features of Erosion

  • Capes & Bays: On exposed coasts, the continual action of waves on the rocks of varying resistance causes the coastline to be eroded irregularly. This is particularly pronounced where hard rocks occur in alternative band with softer rocks. The softer rocks are worn back into inlets or bays & the harder ones persist as headlands or capes. Even where the coastline consists of one rock type, irregularities will be caused by variation within the rock.

  • Cliffs & Wave cut platforms: Generally, any steep rock platform adjoining the coast forms a cliff, whose rate of recession will depend on its geological structure i.e. the stratification & jointing of the rocks & their resistance to wave attack. If the bed dips seaward, large blocks of rock will be dislodged & fall into the sea & cliff will rise in a series of steps. On the other hand, if the beds dip landward, the cliff will be more resistant to wave erosion. At the base of the cliff the sea cuts a notch, which gradually undermines the cliff, so that it collapses. As the cliff recedes landwards under the pounding of waves, an eroded base is left behind called a wave cut platform. The platform, upper part of which is exposed at low tides, slopes gently seawards, with its surface strewn with rock debris from the receding cliff. Further the abrasion continues until the pebbles are swept away in the sea with eroded material deposited on off shore terrace.

  • Cave, Arch, Stack & Stump: Prolonged waves attack on the base of the cliff & excavate holes in regions of local weakness called cave. When 2 caves approach each other from either side of headland & unite, they form an arch. Further erosion by waves will lead to total collapse of the arch. The seaward portion of the headland will remain as a pillar of rock known as stack. With the course of time, these stubborn stacks will gradually be eroded, leaving behind the stumps, which are only just visible above the sea level.

  • Geos & Gloups (blow-holes): The occasional splashing of the waves against the roof of a cave may enlarge the joints when air is compressed & released repeatedly inside them. A natural shaft is thus formed which may eventually pierce through the surface. Waves breaking into the cave may force water or air out of this hole. Such a shaft is termed as Gloup or blow hole. The enlargement of blow-holes & continual action of waves weakens the cave roof. When the cave roof collapses, a long, narrow creek may develop known as Geos.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

With reference to fold mountains, consider the following statements:

  1. They are associated with flow of magma beneath the Earth's crust.

  2. They generally witness absence of volcanic activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges.

Fold mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain, but you can mimic it in seconds. Cover a table with a tablecloth, or place a rug flat on the floor.

Now push the edge of the tablecloth or rug—wrinkles will develop and fold on top of each other.

Statement 1 is correct. Fold Mountains are generally associated with increased load of overlying rocks, flow movements in the mantle, magnetic intrusions into crust, and expansion or contraction of some parts of Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Fold Mountains are closely associated with volcanic activities. Best example is Circum-Pacific fold Mountains. Most fold mountains are composed primarily of sedimentary rock and metamorphic rock formed under high pressure and relatively low temperatures. Many fold mountains are also formed where an underlying layer of ductile minerals, such as salt, is present.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Which of the following would increase liberty in a society?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26
Option b is correct

Absence of laws will lead to a situation of anarchy where liberty would be highly curtailed.

Good Public education system for all will contribute in increasing the capability of a person of developing her potential, thereby increasing the choices for that person. This is related to the positive liberty. Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual.

The individual to develop his or her capability must get the benefit of enabling positive conditions in material, political and social domains.

That is, the person must not be constrained by poverty or unemployment; they must have adequate material resources to pursue their wants and needs.

They must also have the opportunity to participate in the decision-making process so that the laws made reflect their choices, or at least take those preferences into account.

Above all, to develop their mind and intellect, individuals must have access to education and other associated opportunities necessary to lead a reasonably good life.

From the above discussion, we can understand that a high inequality in access to material resources and lack of involvement of certain section in the political decision making will reduce the liberty in the society.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

To make an equal and just society, which of the following is needed?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27
Option d is correct

Equality of Opportunities

The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions. It is not the lack of equality of status or wealth or privilege that is significant but the inequalities in people’s access to basic goods, as education, health care, safe housing, that make for an unequal and unjust society.

Thus, to make an equal and just society, basic needs should be provided equally.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding the advice tendered by the council of

Ministers to Governor:

  1. Nature of advice tendered by Ministers to the governor can be enquired by the Courts in the country.

  2. The action of Governor can be questioned by judiciary if it is not aligned with the advice of Council of ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
Statement 1 is incorrect. The nature of advice tendered by council of ministers to the Governor cannot be enquired by any court.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The validity of anything done by the Governor cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

The movement for Right to Information started in which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29
Option d is correct

The movement for Right to Information (RTI) is one of the examples of a movement that did succeed in getting the state to accept its major demand. The movement started in 1990, when a mass based organisation called the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan took the initiative in demanding records of famine relief work and accounts of labourers.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Olive Ridley Turtles:

  1. These are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles globally.

  2. They are known for best their unique mass nesting called Arribada.

  3. They are categorized as Least Concern in IUCN Red List.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Olive Ridley Turtles:

The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the

world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

They are found in warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.

The Odisha’s Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world’s largest rookery (colony of breeding animals) of sea turtles.

These turtles are carnivores and get their name from their olive-coloured carapace.

They are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

IUCN Red List categorized Olive Ridley Turtles as Vulnerable and Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 listed them in Schedule 1. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

To protect Olive Ridley Turtles, the Indian Coast Guard’s “Operation Olivia”, initiated to helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting from November to December.

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