JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

All the pairs given above are correctly matched.

• The Anguttara Nikayas list of the mahajanapadas is as follows: Kasi (Kashi), Kosala (Koshala), Anga, Magadha, Vajji (Vrijji), Malla, Chetiya (Chedi), Vamsa (Vatsa), Kuru, Panchala, Machchha (Matsya), Shurasena, Assaka (Ashmaka), Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja.
• Two kinds of states are included in the list of mahajanapadas—monarchies (rajyas) and non- monarchical states known as ganas or sanghas. Two of the mahajanapadas, the Vajji and Malla, were sanghas/ oligarchy form of government

• Megasthenes in his Indika speaks of Mauryan society as being divided into seven castes – philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councillors.
• Clearly, he was confusing caste with occupation. Commenting on caste he says, ‘No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste or exercise any calling or art except his own’.

• A fundamental aspect of Mauryan administration was the espionage system.
• The Arthashastra advocates the frequent use of spies, and recommends that they should work in the guise of recluses, householders, merchants, ascetics, students, mendicant women, and prostitutes.
• Policy was dictated at the centre although the initiative was left to local interest.
• Ashoka also refers to agents who bring him the news and generally keep him informed on public opinion. This was one of the means through which the king kept a watch on even the more remote parts of the empire, which was necessary to the Mauryan government.

Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct:The Copyright Act, 1957 provides copyright protection in India.

• India follows a hybrid model of exception in which fair dealing with copyrighted work is exempted for some specific purposes under Section 52(1)(a) of the Copyright Act 1957. India also has a long list of enumerated exceptions.
• India being a signatory to the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works, 1886, is obligated to give equal protection to the works originating not only in India but also outside India in any of the contracting states.

Statement 1 is correct: On the occasion of International Museum Day PM Modi unveiled the Expos mascot – a “contemporised” version of the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjodaro. The traditional craft of Channapatna toys was used to create this mascot.
Statement 2 is correct: Channapatna toys are a particular form of wooden toys and dolls that are manufactured in the town of Channapatna in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka.

• This traditional craft is protected as a Geographical Indication (GI). Statement 3 is not correct: As a result of the popularity of these toys, Channapatna is known as the Gombegala Ooru (toy- town) of Karnataka.
• Traditionally, the work involved lacquering the wood of the Wrightia tinctoria tree, colloquially called Aale mara (ivory-wood).

Statement 1 is correct: The Dancing Girl was discovered in 1926, by British archaeologist Ernest McKay
in a ruined house in the ‘ninth lane’ of Mohenjodaro’s citadel.

• Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the Partition, the Dancing Girl remained in India as part of an agreement.
• Today, the bronze figurine sits in the National Museum of India as an artifact, often referred to as its “star object”.

Statement 2 is not correct: John Marshall, Director-General of the ASI from 1902 to 1928 who oversaw
the initial excavations in Harappa and Mohenjodaro, described the figurine as “a young girl, her hand on
her hip in a half-impudent posture, and legs slightly forward as she beats time to the music with her legs
and feet”. As Marshall’s description suggests, it is the pose that the figurine strikes that has led historians to believe
that the woman depicted was a dancer. However, there is no other evidence to support this claim.
 

The Theosophical Society was founded in New York (USA) in 1875 by Madam H.P. Blavatsky, a Russian lady, and Henry Steel Olcott, an American colonel. Their main objectives were to form a universal brotherhood of man without any distinction of race, colour or creed and to promote the study of ancient religions and philosophies. They arrived in India and established their headquarters at Adyar in Madras in 1882. Later in 1893, Mrs. Annie Besant arrived in India and took over the leadership of the Society after the death of Olcott. Mrs. Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu School along with Madan Mohan Malaviya at Benaras which later developed into the Banaras Hindu University.

Both the statements are incorrect.

• Suriname is a small country on the northern coast of South America
• Suriname is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the north, by French Guiana to the east, by Brazil to the south, and by Guyana to the west.
• Capital: Paramaribo 

• A climatic region has a homogeneous climatic condition which is the result of a combination of factors. Temperature and rainfall are two important elements that are considered to be decisive in all the schemes of climatic classification. The classification of climate, however, is a complex exercise. There are different schemes of classification of climate.
• Koeppen based his scheme of Climatic classification on monthly values of temperature and precipitation. He identified five major climatic types, namely:
  • Tropical climates, where the mean monthly temperature throughout the year is over 18°C.
  • (Dry climates, where precipitation is very low in comparison to temperature, and hence, dry. If dryness is less, it is semiarid (S); if it is more, the climate is arid(W).
  • Warm temperate climates, where the mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18°C and minus 3°C.
  • Cool temperate climates, where the mean temperature of the warmest month is over 10°C, and the mean temperature of the coldest month is under minus 3°C.
  • Ice climates, where the mean temperature of the warmest month is under 10°C.
• Each type is further subdivided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall and temperature. Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types. He used S for semi-arid and W for arid and the following small letters to define sub-types: f (sufficient precipitation), m (rain forest despite a dry monsoon season), w (dry season in winter), h (dry and hot), c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C), and g (Gangetic plain).
• Koeppen divided India into nine climatic regions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which changes with altitude.
• Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas.
• It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m.
• In the higher hill ranges of northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant.
• Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree. • Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range.
• Deodar is a durable wood mainly used in construction activity.
• Similarly, the chinar and the walnut, which sustain the famous Kashmir handicrafts, belong to this zone. • Blue pine and spruce appear at altitudes of 2,225-3,048 m.
• At many places in this zone, temperate grasslands are also found.
• But in the higher reaches there is a transition to Alpine forests and pastures.
• Silver firs, junipers, pines, birch and rhododendrons, etc. occur between 3,000-4,000 m.
• However, these pastures are used extensively for transhumance by tribes like the Gujjars, the Bakarwals, the Bhotiyas and the Gaddis.
• The southern slopes of the Himalayas carry a thicker vegetation cover because of relatively higher precipitation than the drier north-facing slopes.
• At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of the tundra vegetation.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a definite path and direction. The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are

• Latitude
• Unequal distribution of land and water
• Prevailing wind
• Ocean currents

Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas, while cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. The Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe. In contrast, the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the northeast coast of North America. All these factors influence the temperature of the ocean currents locally. The enclosed seas in the low latitudes record relatively higher temperatures than the open seas, whereas the enclosed ones in the high latitudes have lower temperatures than the open seas. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with increasing depth. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth. Currents generally diminish in intensity with increasing depth. The Vertical currents arise mainly due to density differences caused by temperature and salinity changes. Differences in water density affect the vertical mobility of ocean currents. Therefore, The intensity of the ocean currents generally decreases with increasing depth. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The warm ocean currents move from the equator to the poles, and the cold ocean currents move from the poles toward the equator. Cold currents decrease the temperature in warm areas, and warm currents raise the temperature in cold areas. Cold currents flow from the poles towards the equatorial regions. The Labrador currents are major cold currents. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Currents are referred to by their "drift." The currents are strongest near the surface and may attain speeds over five knots. At depths, currents are generally slow, with speeds of less than 0.5 knots. Usually, a current's speed is referred to as its "drift." Drift is measured in terms of knots. The strength of a current refers to the speed of the current. A fast current is considered strong. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth. Most currents have speeds less than or equal to 5 knots. Ocean currents (Average 3.2 km to 10 kmph) with higher speeds are called streams, and currents with lower speeds are called drifts. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Jet streams are fast-flowing, narrow meandering air currents in the atmosphere of the Earth. Jet streams are narrow belts of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere. Their speed varies from 110 km/h in summer to 184 km/h in winter. Tibetan highlands act as a barrier in the path of Western jet stream. As a result, jet streams get bifurcated. One of its branches blows to the north of the Tibetan highlands, while the southern branch blows eastward, south of the Himalayas. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

An easterly jet stream flows over the southern part of the Peninsula in June and has a maximum speed of 90 km per hour. In August, it is confined to 15 degrees N latitude, and in September, up to 22 degrees N latitude. The easterlies normally do not extend north of 30 degrees N latitude in the upper atmosphere. The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. These depressions' tracks are the areas with the highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction, and their intensity all go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period. Westerly Jetstream brings the western cyclonic disturbances (originating over the Mediterranean Sea) that enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones' disturbances. Therefore, the jet streams impact monsoon onset, depending on the upper air circulation dominated by Sub Tropical Jet Streams (STJ). The southwest monsoon in India is directly related to the tropical easterly stream. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

The density of the ocean is proportional to its salinity and inversely proportional to its temperature. As ocean salinity rises, so does ocean density, and vice versa. Ocean density decreases as the water's ocean temperature increases. Salinity can decrease from the melting of polar ice or increase from the freezing of polar ice. Evaporation increases salinity and density, while the addition of freshwater decreases salinity and density. The density of seawater (salinity greater than 24.7) increases as temperature decreases at all temperatures above the freezing point. The density of seawater is increased by increasing pressure. Density changes by about 2% because of the pressure difference between the surface and the deep seafloor. The effect of pressure on density can usually be ignored because most applications require density comparisons between water masses at the same depth. So, Option (d) is correct. 

• Statement 1 is correct: Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship like USA and Switzerland.
• Statement 2 is correct: A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Option (d) is correct:
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
• The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
• Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
• If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
• After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
• The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
• After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

• Statement 1 is not correct. Election of deputy speaker:  President is not required to fix the election date:
• The date of election of the Speaker is decided by the President who needs to go by the advice of the Union cabinet which, in fact, chooses the date.
• In the case of the Deputy Speaker, there is no constitutional requirement for him to wait for the advice of the Union cabinet in fixing the date of election of the Deputy Speaker. Mandate to Speaker: As per Rule 8 of the Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha it is the Speaker who has to fix the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker.
• Statement 2 is not correct. No appeal:  Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling.  It has been repeatedly held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker.
• Statement 3 is correct. Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House.

• Statement 1 is correct: The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code. In 1969, the offence was amended (made cognisable – arrest without a warrant) to enlarge its scope to prevent communal tensions.
• Statement 2 is correct: It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.

• Core industries can be defined as main or key industries of the economy. These industries are considered as the backbone of all other industries and are likely to impact on general economic activities as well as industrial activities.

• There are a total of 8 core industries classified in India. The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index. ICI measures the collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries.

  • Coal – Coal Production excluding Coking coal.

  • Crude Oil – Total Crude Oil Production.

  • Natural Gas – Total Natural Gas Production.

  • Refinery Products – Total Refinery Production (in terms of Crude Throughput).

  • Fertilizer – Urea, Ammonium Sulphate (A/S), Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN), Ammonium chloride (A/C), Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), Complex Grade Fertilizer and Single superphosphate (SSP).

  • Steel – Production of Alloy and Non-Alloy Steel only.

  • Cement – Production of Large Plants and Mini Plants.

  • Electricity – Actual Electricity Generation of Thermal, Nuclear, Hydro, imports from Bhutan.

• The Index is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.