TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Healthcare in Chennai is provided by both government-run and private hospitals. Chennai attracts about 45 percent of health tourists from abroad arriving in the country and 30 to 40 percent of domestic health tourists. The city has been termed India's health capital.

Kalpakkam( Kancheepuram )is located on the east coast about 70 km south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu State. The Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) having two units of 220 MW was established in 1983-85 by Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL).

The Tolkappiyam is a work on the grammar of the Tamil language It is written in the form of short formulaic compositions and comprises three books – the Ezhuttadikaram, the Solladikaram and the Poruladikaram.It deals with orthography, phonology, morphology, semantics, prosody and the subject matter of literature.

Tamil Nadu is the highest producer of sugarcane in the whole country. It is also a leading state in production of other crops such as sugarcane, cotton, kambu, corn, rye, groundnut and oil seeds.

Thiruvalluvar was the author of the book ‘Tirukkural (also known as the Kural). It is a classic Tamil sangam literature consisting of 1330 couplets or Kurals. The book is also called as the fifth Veda or ‘Bible of the Tamil Land’.

The first verse drama (opera) in Tamil is Harichandra Natakam.

The publication of “The Madras Mail”, India’s first evening newspaper started in 1868. From 1928, it was known as The Mail. This newspaper existed till 1981.

Jayamkondam is known for good quality lignite.Lignite is mined all around the world and is used almost exclusively as a fuel for steam-electric power generation.

Corporation of Chennai was established in 1688 and is the oldest municipal corporation of India. Ripon Building is the seat of Corporation of Chennai.

The Greater Chennai Corporation (previously Madras) is the Oldest Municipal Institution in India established on the 29th September 1688.

Objective Resolutions:

• India is an independent, sovereign, republic. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and the Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union.
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic, and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before the law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association, and action subject to the law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea, and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations.
• The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind. 

• Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are fundamental in governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. They are fundamental because they provide a roadmap and vision for the country.They also help courts in determining the constitutional validity of a law despite them being non-Justiciable.

• Statement 2 is correct: While fundamental rights aim to establish political democracy, Directive principles aim at establishing social and economic democracy. Thus, together they establish Socio-political democracy in the country.

- 1. Residence for Employment: Parliament can prescribe residence within a state as a condition for certain public employment to ensure local representation.

- 2. Special Benefits:This refers to a scenario where a state grants special benefits or privileges to its residents that are not available to citizens uniformly across the country.

- 3. Scheduled Tribes' Protection: The Constitution allows special measures for Scheduled Tribes to protect their interests, acknowledging their unique socio-economic status.

Thus, all three scenarios allow for permissible discrimination as per constitutional provisions.

Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution clearly demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States. If there is any dispute about which powers come under the control of the union and which under the States, this can be resolved by the Judiciary on the basis of the constitutional provisions.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the important aspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are centralized in the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense responsibilities but very meager revenue sources.

Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the salaries and allowances of the judges are determined by the Parliament. Article 125(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the salaries and allowances of the Judges shall be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because a Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity, not merely on the ground of violation of the Constitution. This is specified under Article 124(4) for Supreme Court judges and under Article 217(1)(b) for High Court judges. The removal process requires a special majority (two-thirds majority) in both houses of Parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect. SHREYAS – Scheme for Higher Education Youth for Apprenticeship and Skills was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is correct. It aims to:

(a) To improve the employability of students by introducing employment relevance into the learning process of the higher education system

(b) To forge a close functional link between education and industry/service sectors on a sustainable basis

(c)To provide skills which are in demand, to the students in a dynamic manner

(d) To establish an ‘earn while you learn’ system into higher education

(e) To help business/industry in securing good quality manpower and

(f) To link student community with employment facilitating efforts of the Government.

SHREYAS portal will enable educational institutions and industry to log in and provide their respective demand and supply of apprenticeship.

The State Governments are expected to play a major role in securing apprenticeship opportunities, apart from the Sector Skill Councils, so that general degree students passing out can gain the option of industry & service sector apprenticeship.

Sector Skill Councils are set up as autonomous industry-led bodies by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which are responsible for defining the skilling needs, concept, processes, certification, and accreditation of their respective industry sectors in accordance with National Skill Qualification Framework.

• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.

• If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Additional Information:

  • National Emergency: National emergency can be declared on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type.

  • Grounds of declaration: Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

  • The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression

• Parliamentary approval and duration

  • The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

  • Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority.

• Effects of national emergency

  • A proclamation of Emergency has drastic and wide-ranging effects on the political system. These consequences can be grouped into 3 categories:

  • Effects on the centre-state relations: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. this can be studied under three heads:

  • Executive: Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter

  • Legislative: The parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list, the president can issue ordinances on State subjects also, if the parliament is not in session. The laws made on state subjects by the parliament become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to be in operation.

  • Financial: the president can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states

• Effect on the life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly:

  • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond the normal term for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Similarly, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly by one year each time during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Effect on fundamental rights: Articles 358 and 359 describes the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. These two provisions are explained below:

    (i) Suspension of Fundamental rights under Article 19: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.

    (ii) The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed rebellion.

• Suspension of other Fundamental Rights: Under Article 359, the President is authorised to suspend, by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. Thus, remedial measures are suspended and not the Fundamental Rights.

• The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order.

• The suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period.

• The Order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.

• The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commission of India. It is an independent office and is not linked to nor is this office under the control of the Election Commission of India.

• Statement 1 is correct: It provides safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities. It aims to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests provided in the Constitution. It also participates in the planning process of the socio-economic development of SCs and Anglo Indians.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The President specifies what castes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs. But any inclusion or exclusion of any caste from presidential notification can be done by parliament only. NCSC has an advisory role only in this regard.

• Statement 3 is correct: It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon safeguards of SCs and Anglo Indians. It also discharges such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development of SCs as the President may specify.

Central government has proposed to constitute a new backward classes commission after the term of National Commission for Other Backward Classes (NCBC) ended.

Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has passed the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill which grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, however a law of Parliament will be required if the list of backward classes is to be amended.

The commission will have a chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members and hear the grievances of socially and educationally backward classes, a function discharged so far by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

The bill also provides NCBC with the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

NCBC will also have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.

• The Preamble of the Constitution of India reveals four components.

• It states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Therefore it reveals the source of authority of the constitution.

• It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican polity. Therefore, it reveals the nature of the Indian State.

• It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution

• It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date of adoption of the constitution.

• The preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislation.

• Like Fundamental Duties and Directive Principle of State Policy, Preamble is also non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is not correct: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of India by appropriate petitions. By long standing convention and several judicial pronouncements, once the actual process of elections has started, the judiciary does not intervene in the actual conduct of the polls. Once the polls are completed and results declared, the Commission cannot review any result on its own. This can only be reviewed through the process of an election petition, which can be filed before the High Court, in respect of elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. In respect of elections for the offices of the President and Vice President, such petitions can only be filed before the Supreme Court.

It is the Prime Minister who allocates portfolios to the other Ministers. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any Minister at any time. In case of refusal he may advise the President to dismiss the Minister.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the principle of collective responsibility, the resignation of PM results in resignation of the whole council.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 75, all the ministers are appointed by the President and they tender their resignation to him only.

All the members of the Council of Ministers do not belong to the same rank. The Constitution does not classify ministers into different ranks but in practice 4 ranks have come to be recognized.

I. Cabinet Ministers—He has a right to be present and participate in every meeting of the Cabinet. For proclamation of an emergency under Art. 352 the advice must come from the Prime Minister and other Ministers of cabinet rank.

II. Minister of State with independent charge—He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.

III. Minister of State—He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.

IV. Deputy Minister—He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. The work to him is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working. The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State with independent charge. The other Ministers are allocated work by their respective Cabinet Ministers. Ministers may be chosen from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. A Minister who is a member of one House has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House. A Minister is allowed to vote only in the House of which he is a member. A person who is not a member of either House may also be appointed as a Minister. He can continue as a Minister only for six months.

Because that is the limit fixed by Art. 75(5). If he desires to continue as Minister he has to become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiration of the period of 6 months. A person who is not qualified to become a member of a legislature cannot be appointed a minister under Art. 75(5). In this case minister would not include Prime Minister because non-election of Prime Minister would dissolve the Council

of Ministers after expiration of the period of 6 months.

• While the Prime Minister is the head of the government, the President is the head of the State. In our political system, the head of the State exercises only nominal powers. The President supervises the overall functioning of all the political institutions in the country so that they operate in harmony to achieve the objectives of the State.

• Presidents all over the world are not always nominal executives like the President of India. In many countries of the world, the President is both the head of the state and the head of the government. The President of the United States of America is the most well-known example of this kind of President. The US President is directly elected by the people. He personally chooses and appoints all Ministers. The law- making is still done by the legislature (called the Congress in the US), but the president can veto any law.

• Most importantly, the president does not need the support of the majority of members in Congress and neither is he answerable to them. He has a fixed tenure of four years and completes it even if his party does not have a majority in the Congress

• Merits of Presidential System:

  • Stable government. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Definiteness in policies.

  • Based on separation of powers. Hence option 3 is correct.

  • Government by experts.

• Demerits of Presidential System:

  • The conflict between legislature and executive.

  • Non-responsible government. Hence option 4 is not correct.

  • May lead to autocracy.

  • Narrow representation. Hence option 1 is not correct.

The retirement age of a judge in a High Court is generally up to 65 years.