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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 is part of HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) preparation. The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) exam syllabus.The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 below.
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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding ancient India:

1. The word India comes from the Indus, called Sindhu in Sanskrit.

2. The name Bharata was used for a group of people who lived in the northwest, and who are mentioned in the Rigveda.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1
The names of the land in the past were kept differently in comparison to today’s time. Our country is often called as Bharat as well as India. These two words have a different origin. The word India comes from the Indus, called Sindhu in Sanskrit. The Iranians and the

Greeks who came through the northwest about 2500 years ago and were familiar with the Indus, called it the Hindos or the Indos, and the land to the east of the river was called India. The name Bharata was used for a group of people who lived in the northwest, and who are mentioned in the Rigveda.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Consider The following statements regarding the ‘Imperial Cholas’:

1. Vijayalaya Chola captured the Kaveri delta from Mutharaiyar and built the town of Thanjavur.

2. Rajaraja Iled an expedition to theGangavalley.

3. Rajendra Developed The Navy For expeditions to Sri Lanka and Southeast Asiancountries.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Cholas were Samantas or Subordinates to Pallavas who ruled in Tamilnadu.

Statement 1 is correct. Cholas and Muttaraiyar both were subordinates to Pallava king. The rise of Cholas started during the middle of the 9th century when Vijayalaya from Uraiyur captured the kaveri delta from Mutharaiyar and built the town of Thanjavur.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Vijayalaya built the town of Thanjavur and Goddess Nishumbhasudini temple While Rajaraja I became king in 985 CE and was considered as the most powerful Chola ruler.

He recognized his administration and expanded his control over most of South India. His son Rajendra Chola led an expedition to the Ganga valley.

Statement 3 is correct. Rajendra I was Rajaraja’s Son who continued his Father’s policy and raided Ganga Valley, Sri Lanka as well as Southeast Asian Countries. Rajendra I also developed the Navy for these raids.

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Which of the following style/school of painting uses gold leaf and gemstones and are mostly created on glass and board?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3
Option (c) is the correct answer.

About Tanjore Paintings:

  • Tanjore Painting is one of the most popular forms of classical South Indian painting. It is the native art form of Thanjavur (also known as Tanjore) city of Tamil Nadu.

  • Tanjore Painting of India originated during the 16th century, under the reign of the Cholas. Maratha princes, Nayakas, Rajus communities of Tanjore and Trichy and Naidus of Madurai also patronized Indian Thanjavur Paintings from 16th to 18th century

  • The dense composition, surface richness and vibrant colors of Indian Thanjavur Paintings distinguish them from the other types of paintings. There are embellishments of semi-precious stones, pearls and glass pieces that further add to their appeal.

  • The relief work gives them a three dimensional effect.

  • Most of these paintings revolve around the theme of Hindu Gods and Goddesses, along with saints.

  • The main figure is always painted at the center of the painting:

    • Mysore Painting: Mysore Painting is a form of classical South Indian painting, which evolved in the Mysore city of Karnataka. During that time, Mysore was under the reign of the Wodeyars and it was under their patronage that this school of painting reached its zenith. Quite similar to the Tanjore Paintings, Mysore Paintings of India make use of thinner gold leaves and require much more hard work. The most popular themes of these paintings include Hindu Gods and Goddesses and scenes from Hindu mythology. The grace, beauty and intricacy of Indian Mysore Paintings leave the onlookers mesmerized.

    • Company Painting: Company painting, also called Patna painting, style of miniature painting that developed in India in the second half of the 18th century in response to the tastes of the British serving with the East India Company. The style first emerged in Murshidabad, West Bengal, and then spread to other centres of British trade: Benares (Varanasi), Delhi, Lucknow, and Patna. Basohli painting, school of Pahari miniature painting that flourished in the Indian hill states during the late 17th and 18th centuries, known for its bold vitality of colour and line. Though the school takes its name from the small independent state of Basohli, the principal centre of the style, examples are found throughout the region.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

With reference to the Medieval Indian history, which one among the following events happened earliest?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following were the major political centres of the Mauryan empire?
1. Tosali
2. Ujjaiyini
3. Manyakhet
4. Taxila
5. Survanagiri
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5
  • The Mauryan Empire covered vast areas of the Indian subcontinent. It extended from the present-day North West Frontier Provinces of Pakistan to Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Uttaranchal in India.
  • The Ashokan inscriptions mention five major political centres in the empire – the capital Pataliputra and the provincial centres of Taxila, Ujjayini, Tosali and Suvarnagiri. The administrative control of the empire was strongest in areas around the capital and the provincial centres.
  • The provincial centres were carefully chosen, both Taxila and Ujjayini were situated on important long- distance trade routes, while Suvarnagiri (literally, the golden mountain) was possibly important for tapping the gold mines of Karnataka.
  • The city of Manyakhet in Karnataka was the capital of the Rashtrakuta Empire which arose during the 8th century AD. Thus Manyakhet was not a major political centre of Mauryas.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
     
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

The techniques of ‘tessellation’ and ‘pietra dura’ were used in which of the following types of architecture?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6
  • The decorative forms of Indo-Islamic architecture included designing on plaster through incision or stucco. The designs were either left plain or covered with colors.
    • Motifs were also painted on or carved in stone. These motifs included varieties of flowers, both from the sub-continent and places outside, particularly Iran,
    • The lotus bud fringe was used to great advantage in the inner curves of the arches.
    • Walls were also decorated with cypress, chinar, and other trees as also with flower vases,
    • Many complex designs of flower motifs decorating the ceilings were also to be found on textiles and carpets.
    • In the fourteenth, fifteenth, and sixteenth centuries tiles were also used to surface the walls and the domes.
  • Popular colors were blue, turquoise, green, and yellow.
  • Subsequently, the techniques of tessellation (mosaic designs) and pietra dura were made use of for surface decoration, particularly in the dado panels of the walls.
  • At times lapis lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies.
    • Other decorations included arabesque, calligraphy and high and low relief carving, and profuse use of jalis. The high-relief carving has a three-dimensional look. The arches were plain and squat and sometimes high and pointed.
  • From the sixteenth century onwards arches were designed with trefoil or multiple foliations.
  • Spandrels of the arches were decorated with medallions or bosses.
    • The roof was a mix of the central dome and other smaller domes, chhatris, and tiny minarets. The central dome was topped with an inverted lotus flower motif and a metal or stone pinnacle.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs :
Copper plates  -  King associated

1. Karantai Copper plates - Rajendra Chola I
2. Kuram copper plates - Nandivarman III
3. Velurpalayam copper plates - Parameshwaravarman
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Karanthai copper plates are the biggest bunch and the largest volume of copper plates in the world. They are a set of 86 plates held together by a ring fastened with a heavy circular copper seal inscribed with the royal Chola emblem. Rajendra Chola issued these plates dated 1020 C.E. The term ‘Ulgu’, a term used for customs, finds mention in Karanthai copper plates. The plates from Tiruvalangadu (in Tiruvallur district), Karanthai (in Thanjavur town) and Esalam (near Tindivanam) all use the term Ulgu. These plates indicate that Ulgu, the customs duty, was a ubiquitous tax in the Chola empire. The Kuram copper plates of Parameshwaravarman and the Velurpalayam copper plates of Nandivarman III record their achievements in the military department. So, Option (a) is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber was a great patron of astronomy. In this context, in which of the following places he built astronomical observatories (Jantar Mantar)?
1. Delhi

2. Jaipur
3. Varanasi
4. Ujjain
5. Mathura
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8
  • Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II (1686-1743) was the ruler of the Rajput State of Amber in India. A feudatory of the Mughals, he received the title of 'Sawai' (one and a quarter) from Emperor Aurangzeb, who declared him a quarter superior to his famous forebearer Mirza Raja Jai Singh (d. 1667) after he captured the Fort of Vishalgarh from the Marathas in 1701.
  • After bringing to the Emperor's notice some astronomic discrepancies that possibly affected the timings of Hindu and Muslim holy events and expressing his desire to correct these, Jai Singh also received Imperial backing for building his Astronomy Observatories at Delhi, Jaipur, Varanasi, Ujjain, and Mathura.
    • All except the observatory at Mathura are in existence today.
  • Sawai Jai Singh's ingenuity led to the invention of several outsize masonry instruments, the majority of which were used to determine the coordinates of celestial objects with reference to the local horizon.
    • During Jai Singh’s lifetime, the observatories were used to make observations in order to update existing ephemerides such as the Zīj-i Ulugh Begī.
    • Jai Singh established communications with European astronomers through a number of Jesuits living and working in India. In addition to dispatching ambassadorial parties to Portugal, he invited French and Bavarian Jesuits to visit and make use of the observatories
  • Jai Singh wrote the astronomical work 'Zij-e-Muhammad-Shahi' (Muhammad Shah's astronomical tables) in 1728. That same year he also built his new, magnificently designed capital Jaipur, about 200 km southwest of Delhi and constructed by combining the aspects of the ancient Hindu treatise on architecture, the Shilpa Shastra, and plans of many European cities of the period with Jai Singh's own ideas.
  • The European travelers of the time, like the Frenchman Louis Rousselet, and the English bishop, Heber, were greatly impressed by Jai Singh's unparalleled excellence in city planning.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about Vallabhacharya:

1. His philosophy is known as Shuddha Advaita.

2. He propounded the Pustimarga.

3. He was instrumental in establishing

the Srinathji Temple at Nathdwara in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9
Vallabhacharya (1479-1531), was an Indian Telugu Philosopher, who founded the Krishna centered Pushti sect of Vaishavism in the Braj region of India. His philosophy is called Shuddha Advaita (Pure Non-dualism). Pushtimarga (Path of Grace) is a Vaishnav sect of Hinduism, founded by Vallabhacharya around 1500 AD. It belived that because the Lord is accessible only through His own grace. The Lord cannot be attained by a given formula - He is attainable only if He wants to be attained! The sect established by him is unique in its facets of devotion to Krishna, especially his child manifestation, and is enriched with the use of traditions, music and festivals. Ashtachhap was group of 8 poets established by Vallabhacharya who by their writings eulogized various facets of life of Sri Krishna.

1. Kumbhandas

2. Surdas

3. Krishnadas (Shudra by caste)

4. Parmanand Das

5. Govindswami

6. Cheetswami

7. Nand Das

8. Chaturbhuj Das

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Mughal court chroniclers wrote inTurkishas it was their mother tongue.

2. Mughals were Chaghtai Turks by origin.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Mughal court chronicles were written in Persian though Turkish was their mother tongue. Under the Sultans of Delhi it flourished as a language of the court and of literary writings, alongside other north Indian languages, especially Hindavi(near Delhi) and its regional variants.

Statement 2 is correct. Mughals were Chaghtai Turks by origin, Turkish was their mother tongue. Their first ruler Babur wrote poetry and his memoirs in the Turkish language. KB) Chagatai Turks were descendants of Chagtai Khan the second son of Genghis Khan.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Arrange the following incidents in chronological order:

  1. British Government passes Limitation Law

  2. Santhal Rebellion

  3. Report by Deccan Riots Commission

  4. First revenue settlement is Deccan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
  • British Government passed the Limitation Law in 1859, to control the debts mounting on ryots in Deccan. In 1832, a large area of land was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh, on the slopes of Rajmahal hills and was given to the Santhals. But with time they found that their land was slipping away from their hands as state was levying heavy taxes and moneylenders were charging high rates of interest on them. Hence, Santhal Rebellion happened in 1855-56.

  • Deccan Riot Commission was assigned to make a report on the revolt by ryots in Deccan. The report was presented in British Parliament in 1878.

  • The first revenue settlement system in Bombay, Deccan was made in the 1820s. It was known as ‘Ryotwari settlement, where the revenue was directly settled with the ‘ryots’ (peasants).

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The first cotton textile mill in British India, was set up in:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12
Option (a) is the correct answer The first cotton textile mill was set up in 1853 in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy and the first jute mill came up in 1855 in Rishra (Bengal).
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted.

  2. A law member was added to the governor-eneral’s council.

  3. The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted. It opened the way for wholesale colonisation of India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A law member was added to the governor-general’s council. It was added for professional advice on law making. Later, the law member was made the full member of the governor-general’s executive council by the Charter Act of 1853.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves and to abolish slavery. Slavery was abolished in 1843.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to August Offer?

  1. It explicitly offered dominion status for India.

  2. A constituent assembly to be set up after the war where Indians would decide the Constitution.

  3. It provided for the majority of Indians in expanded Viceroy’s executive council.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Lord Linlithgow Viceroy of India announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:

  • Dominion status as the objective for India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where Indians would decide the Constitution according to their social, economic, and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with States, all Indian services. No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Rowlatt Act Satyagraha :
1. It was completely a non-violent satyagraha throughout India.
2. The Satyagraha Sabha concentrated mainly on publishing propaganda literature and collecting signatures on the Satyagraha pledge.
3. In Ahmedabad, the government enforced martial law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
  • Satyagraha was to be launched on April 6, 1919, but before it could be launched, there were large-scale violent, anti-British demonstrations in Calcutta, Bombay, Delhi, Ahmedabad, etc. Especially in Punjab, the situation became so very explosive due to wartime repression, forcible recruitments, and ravages of disease that the Army had to be called in. April 1919 saw the biggest and the most violent anti-British upsurge since 1857. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • The entire agitation against the Rowlatt act proved its unorganized nature whereby the Satyagraha Sabha of Mahatma Gandhi concentrated mainly on publishing propaganda literature and collecting signatures on the Satyagraha pledge. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Mahatma Gandhi left Bombay on April 8 to promote the Satyagraha agitation in Delhi and Punjab. But, as his entry into Punjab was considered dangerous by the government, Gandhi was removed from the train he was traveling at Palwal near Delhi and taken back to Bombay. The news of Gandhi’s arrest precipitated the crisis. The situation became tense in Bombay, and violence broke out in Ahmedabad and Virangam. In Ahmedabad, the government enforced martial law. In particular, the Punjab region and Amritsar witnessed the worst scenes of violence. So, Statement 3 is correct.
     
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

With reference to the Treaty of Amritsar (1809), consider the following statements:
1. It was signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh of Punjab and the British East India Company.
2. The treaty demarcated the river Sutlej as the boundary between the British and the state of Punjab.
3. The state of Punjab was forced to accept a permanent British resident at the royal court of Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
  • The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was signed on April 25, 1809, between Maharaja Ranjit Singh ( (1780 – 1839) and the British East India Company. It was a pact between Charles T. Metcalfe and Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Maharaja Ranjit Singh was the founder of the Sikh Empire. He was the son of Mahan Singh, the leader of the Sukarchakiya misl. Ranjit Singh brought under control the area extending from the Sutlej to the Jhelum. He conquered Lahore in 1799 and Amritsar in 1802. Ranjit Singh proved to be an efficient administrator. He greatly modernised his army with the help of Europeans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Ranjit Singh died in 1839. His successors could not keep the state intact and, soon enough, the British took control over it. Maharaja Daleep Singh was the son and successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh who came to the throne in 1843. 
  • As per the provisions of the Treaty of Amritsar (1809), the river Sutlej was the boundary between the British and the state of Punjab. The treaty settled Indo-Sikh relations for a generation. The immediate occasion was the French threat to northwestern India, following Napoleon’s Treaty of Tilsit with Russia (1807) and Ranjit’s attempt to bring the area around Sutlej states under his control. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • The treaty of Amritsar did not have any provision regarding the British resident at the royal court of Punjab. The treaty of Lahore (1846) signed after the first Anglo- Sikh War (1845-46), provided for the stationing of a British resident at Lahore. The state of Punjab was annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1849 after the Second Anglo- Sikh War (1848-49) and the eleven-year-old Maharaja, Daleep Singh was pensioned off to England. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

In the context of colonial history of Bengal and Bihar, the term 'Chatuspathi or Tol' referred to

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
  • The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match with the rapid developments in the West. The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography.
  • Elementary education among the Hindus and the Muslims was quite widespread. The Hindu and Muslim elementary schools were called pathshalas and maktabs respectively. The education was confined to reading, writing, and arithmetic. Children from the lower caste sometimes attended the schools, but female presence was rare.
  • Chatuspathis or Tols, as they were called in Bihar and Bengal, were the centres of higher education. Some of the famous centres for Sanskrit education were Kasi (Varanasi), Tirhut (Mithila), Nadia and Utkala. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Madrasahs were the institutions of higher learning for Persian and Arabic, Persian being the court language and learnt by the Muslims as well as the Hindus. Azimabad (Patna) was a famous centre for Persian education.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Consider the following pairs with respect to the newspapers/journals in different regions during 28 months‟ Congress rule in the Provinces:


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The formation of the above Congress Ministries (in the Provinces) and the vast extension of civil liberties unleashed popular energies everywhere. The Kisan Sabhas sprang up in every part of the country and there was an immense growth in trade union activities and membership. Student and Youth Movements revived and burgeoned. A powerful fillip was given to the State Peoples‘ Movement. The Left parties were able to expand manifold. Even though it was under a Central Government ban, the Communist Party was able to bring out its weekly organ, The National Front, from Bombay. The Congress Socialist Party brought out The Congress Socialist and several other journals in Indian languages. Of particular interest is the example of Kirti Lehar, which the Kirti Communists of Punjab brought out from Meerut, U.P., because they could not do so in Unionist-ruled Punjab. Note: In early 1915, Annie Besant launched a campaign through her two papers, New India and Commonweal, and organized public meetings and conferences to demand that India be granted self-government on the lines of the White Colonies after the War.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian National Liberal Federation was founded by Tej Bahadur Sapru.
2. The Radical Democratic Party was founded by B.R. Ambedkar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Major/Minor Parties in India –
(1) The Indian National Liberal Federation (in Bengal, the Moderate Party) was founded by Tej Bahadur Sapru and M. R. Jayakar.
(2) The Jamiat ul Ulama-i-Hind was founded by Maulana Mahmudal Hasan Shaikh-ul-Hind, of the Deoband School, a nationalist Muslim clergy.
(3) The Radical Democratic Party was founded by M. N. Roy. 

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Which of the following was/were the provision(s) of the Pitt's India Act, 1784?
1. Creation of a Board of Control with members appointed by the Crown.
2. It increased the number of the members of the Governor-General’s Council.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Main Provisions of the Pitt’s India Act, 1784 – A Board of Control, consisting of 6 members, was created. They were appointed by the Crown. The Court of Directors was retained without any alteration in its composition.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about Earthquakes in India:

1. India has been divided into five earthquake zones.

2. National Capital Region comes under High Damage risk zone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
  • Earthquakes are by far the most unpredictable and highly destructive of all the natural disasters. Earthquakes that are of tectonic origin have proved to be the most devastating and their area of influence is also quite large. These earthquakes result from a series of earth movements brought about by a sudden release of energy during the tectonic activities in the earth’s crust.

  • As compared to these, the earthquakes associated with volcanic eruptions, rock fall, landslides, subsidence, particularly in the mining areas, impounding of dams and reservoirs, etc. have limited area of influence and the scale of damage. Statement 1 is correct. National Geophysical Laboratory, Geological Survey of India, Department of Meteorology, Government of India, along with the recently formed National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past, and based on these, they divided India into the following five earthquake zones:

    I. Very high damage risk zone

    II. High damage risk zone

    III. Moderate damage risk zone

    IV. Low damage risk zone

    V. Very low damage risk zone.

  • Out of these, the first two zones had experienced some of the most devastating earthquakes in India. Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir Valley in the Himalayan region and the Kuchchh (Gujarat) are included in the Very High Damage Risk Zone. The remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Northern parts of Punjab, Eastern parts of Haryana, Delhi, Western Uttar Pradesh, and Northern Bihar fall under the High Damage Risk Zone. Remaining parts of the country fall under moderate to very Low Damage Risk Zone. So, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

With reference desert landscape, consider the following statements:

  1. Erg deserts are formed due to aeolian deposits.

  2. Badlands are formed due to erosion of hills by rain-storms.

  3. Mountain deserts are a result of erosion of hilly landscape.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Erg or stony desert is a sea of sand. Winds deposits vast stretches of undulating sand-dunes in the heart of the desert forming these landscapes. An erg (also sand sea or dune sea, or sand sheet if it lacks dunes) is a broad, flat area of desert covered with wind-swept sand with little or no vegetative cover.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Badlands are the Hills which are badly eroded by occasional rain-storms into gullies and ravines. The extent of water action on the hill is so strong that the entire region becomes inhabitable.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Mountain Deserts are found on Highlands such as plateaux and mountain ranges. Erosion dissects the desert highlands into harsh, serrated outlines of chaotic peaks and craggy ranges.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Arrange the following from top to bottom based on the order in which they appear in the interior of the earth:

  1. Lehmann Discontinuity

  2. Moho Discontinuity

  3. Gutenberg Discontinuity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
  • The earth is made up of three different layers: the crust, the mantle and the core.

  • The Crust:

    • This is the outside layer of the earth and is made of solid rock, mostly basalt and granite. There are two types of crust; oceanic and continental. Oceanic crust is denser and thinner and mainly composed of basalt. Continental crust is less dense, thicker, and mainly composed of granite.

  • In between the crust and the mantle there is Mohorovicic discontinuity.

  • The Mantle:

    • The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere.

  • The Core:

    • The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. It is called the Gutenberg Discontinuity. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

    • The Core consists of two sub-layers i.e. the inner core and the outer core. The inner core is in solid state and the outer core is in the liquid state (or semi-liquid). The discontinuity between the upper Core and the lower Core is called as Lehmann Discontinuity.

Hence the correct order is 2-3-1.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with respect to watershed management:

  1. It includes conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all-natural resources within the watershed.

  2. Community participation is one of the prominent features of watershed management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
  • Watershed management basically refers to the efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves the prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.

  • However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants, and animals) and humans within a watershed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Watershed management aims at bringing about a balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

 Consider the following pairs : Features River Stage
1. Gorge - Youth
2. Meander - Middle
3. Oxbow lake - Old
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

 Upper, middle and lower are the three courses into which a river valley is divided. Young rivers ( (A) denotes the below picture for the formation of the Young river) close to their source tend to be fast-flowing, high-energy environments with rapid downward and headward erosion, despite the hardness of the rock over which they may flow. The land features carved by a river in its upper course are as follows:

  • Gorges,
  • Canyons,
  • V' shaped valleys,
  • Rapids,
  • Cataracts, and
  • Waterfalls A gorge is a narrow valley with steep, rocky walls between hills or mountains.

The term comes from the French word gorge, which means throat or neck. So, Pair 1 is correct.

Mature rivers or Middle ( (B) denotes the above picture for mature river formation ) are lower-energy systems. Erosion takes place outside bends, creating looping meanders in the soft alluvium of the river plain. Deposition occurs on the inside of the bends and the river bed. Some of the land features formed by a river in its middle course are alluvial fans and meanders. A meander is a bend in the course of a river channel. A meander is formed in the middle course of a river; when the river leaves the mountains, it encounters a sudden slope break and slows down. The plains are broad and gentle. So the river has more time to amble away down to the sea. So, Pair 2 is correct.

Oxbow lakes are formed when the neck of a looping meander is broken through, usually during times of flood. They are U-shaped or curved bends in a river that are cut off from the main river flow, forming a lake. In the lower course of the river, meanders become much more pronounced. The outer or concave bank is so rapidly eroded that the meander becomes almost a complete circle. A time comes when the river cuts through the narrow neck of the loop. The meander, now cut off from the mainstream, takes the form of an oxbow lake. In the lower course or the stage of old age, the land features produced by the river are meanders, flood plains, braided steam, oxbow lakes, deltas and estuaries. So, Pair 3 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Assertion (A) : During Spring Tides, the high tides are higher than the normal tides.

Reason (R) : The combined gravitational force of the sun and moon as they are right angle in position.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
  • The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice a day is called a tide. High tide is when water covers much of the shore by rising to its highest level. It is low tide when water falls to its lowest level and recedes from the shore. A spring tide is popularly known as a "King Tide" and refers to the 'springing forth' of the tide during a new and full moon. During full or new moons, when the Earth, sun, and Moon are nearly in alignment, average tidal ranges are slightly larger. This occurs twice each lunar month (about 29.5 days on average).
  • The Moon appears new (dark) between the Earth and the sun. The Moon appears full when the Earth is between the Moon and the sun. This means that high tides are little higher and low tides are a little lower than average. These are called 'spring tides.' The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the Moon on the Earth's surface causes the tides. A neap tide is seven days after a spring tide which refers to a period of moderate tides when the sun and Moon are at right angles to each other. The sun's and moon's combined gravitational force at the right angle in position is a neap tide. A spring tide occurs when the sun, the Moon and the Earth are in the same line. Hence Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. So, Option (c) is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. India is the second largest producer as well as onsumer of pulses after China.

2. Pulses need high moisture and wet conditions.

3. Pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing oxygen from the air.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

All Statements are incorrect: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian. diet. Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops. Major pulses producing states in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

With reference to fold mountains, consider the following statements:

  1. They are associated with flow of magma beneath the Earth's crust.

  2. They generally witness absence of volcanic activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges.

Fold mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain, but you can mimic it in seconds. Cover a table with a tablecloth, or place a rug flat on the floor.

Now push the edge of the tablecloth or rug—wrinkles will develop and fold on top of each other.

Statement 1 is correct. Fold Mountains are generally associated with increased load of overlying rocks, flow movements in the mantle, magnetic intrusions into crust, and expansion or contraction of some parts of Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Fold Mountains are closely associated with volcanic activities. Best example is Circum-Pacific fold Mountains. Most fold mountains are composed primarily of sedimentary rock and metamorphic rock formed under high pressure and relatively low temperatures. Many fold mountains are also formed where an underlying layer of ductile minerals, such as salt, is present.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Fossils are primarily found in both igneous rocks and sedimentary rocks.

  2. The volcanic rocks formed at the surface have smaller mineral grains compared to those at depth.

  3. Lithification is an important process of forming metamorphic rocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29
Based on the mode of formation three major groups of rocks are defined: Igneous, Sedimentary, and Metamorphic.
  • Igneous rocks: Rocks formed out of solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) are known as igneous rocks. The igneous rocks are unfossiliferous as they form under conditions of high temperatures. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Sedimentary rocks: Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into sedimentary rocks. This process is called lithification. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Metamorphic rocks: When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement is called foliation or lineation.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Which of the following states is the largest producer of coffee in India?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30
  • India is a leading country in the world in terms of coffee production and stands 8th among the top 10 coffee-producing countries in the world. There are three varieties of coffee i.e. arabica, robusta, and liberica. India mostly grows superior quality coffee, arabica, which is in great demand in the international market.

  • In India, coffee is mainly produced in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.

  • Among all coffee-producing states in India, Karnataka is the largest producer and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.

  • Kodagu, Chikmagalur, and Hassan are the main coffee-producing regions in Karnataka.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

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