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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 is part of HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) preparation. The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) exam syllabus.The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 below.
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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

With reference to recent findings of the excavation at Mayiladumparai, consider the following statements :

1. The site is located in modern-day Tamil Nadu.

2. The site is linked to the Paleolithic age alone.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1
Carbon dating of findings of excavation in Tamil Nadu bring forth evidence of iron being used in India 4,200 years ago. Option b is correct: Excavations at a small hamlet called Mayiladumparai which is in Tamil Nadu have pushed back the date since iron has been used in India. It is linked to the Iron age and Neolithic ages.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding 'Bathukamma festival ’:

1. It is a floral festival of Karnataka.

2. It is celebrated predominantly by women.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
Option (b) is the correct answer. In 2018, for the first time ever the New South Wales Parliament in Sydney, Australia celebrated the ethnic festival of Bathukamma.

Statement 1 is not correct: Bathukamma which means ‘Mother Goddess come Alive’ is a colourful floral festival of Telangana.

Statement 2 is correct: Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack of different unique seasonal flowers, most of them with medicinal value, arranged in seven concentric layers in the shape of temple gopuram. Women gather and dance around this flower stack. They also sing Bathukamma songs while dancing. It is the festival for feminine felicitation.

On this special occasion women dress up in the traditional sari combining it with jewels and other accessories The final day of Bathukamma, known as Pedha or Saddula Bathukamma falls two days before Dussehra and is also known as Durgashtami. Bathukamma festival indicates the beginning of Sarad or Sharath Ruthu whereas Boddemma festival followed by Bathukamma marks the ending of Varsha Ruthu.

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which of the following are the features of Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

  1. Elaborate walls and gateways.

  2. Presence of river goddess.

  3. Absence of a water tank or reservoirs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Temple premises in Nagara style generally does not have elaborate walls and gateways. In contrast, Dravida style has elaborate walls and gateways around temple premises.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Images of river goddess Ganga and Yamuna were placed outside the garbhagriha.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In Nagara style, Temple premises do not have water tank or reservoir inside the temple premises. Whereas in Dravida style, water tanks or reservoirs are present in the temple premises.

About Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

  • Nagara is the style of temple architecture which became popular in Northern India.

  • It is common here to build an entire temple on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.

  • Unlike in south India, it doesn’t usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.

  • Earliest temples had only one shikhara (tower), but in the later periods multiple shikharas came.

  • The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

With reference to the Mahajanapadas, consider the following statements:

  1. The tax was fixed at 1/6th of the produce.

  2. The hunters and gatherers had to provide forest produce to the raja.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Both the statements are correct.

As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas were (a) building huge forts (b) maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.

Following taxes were imposed -

  • Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.

  • There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.

  • Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.

  • There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.

  • The hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram
I. The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the third century BC.
2. The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
  • The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the ninth century in the south-western part of the peninsula, part of present-day Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • It is likely that Malayalam was spoken in this area.
  • The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions.
  • In fact, this is one of the earliest examples of the use of a regional language in official records in the subcontinent.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Tulsidas was the author of
1. Dohavali
2. Gitavali
3. Vinaya Patrika

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Tulsidas, also known as Goswami Tulsidas, was a Ramanandi Vaishnava Hindu saint and poet, renowned for his devotion to the deity Rama. He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and Awadhi, but is best known as the author of the Hanuman Chalisa and of the epic Ramcharitmanas, a retelling of the Sanskrit Ramayana based on Rama's life in the vernacular Awadhi.
The five major works of Tulsidas apart from Ramcharitmanas include:
Dohavali literally Collection of Dohas, is a work consisting of 573 miscellaneous Doha

  1. and Sortha verses mainly in Braja with some verses in Awadhi. The verses are aphorisms on topics related to tact, political wisdom, righteousness and the purpose of life. 85 Dohas from this work are also found in the Ramcharitmanas, 35 in Ramagya Prashna, two in Vairagya Sandipani and some in Rama Satsai, another work of 700 Dohas attributed to Tulsidas. Sahitya Ratna or ratna Ramayan (1608–1614), literally Collection of Kavittas, is a Braja
  2. rendering of the Ramayana, composed entirely in metres of the Kavitta family – Kavitta, Savaiya, Ghanakshari and Chhappaya. It consists of 325 verses including 183 verses in the Uttarkand. Like the Ramcharitmanas, it is divided into seven Kands or books and many episodes in this work are different from the Ramcharitmanas. Gitavali literally Collection of Songs, is a Braja rendering of the Ramayana in songs. All
  3. the verses are set to Ragas of Hindustani classical music and are suitable for singing. It consists of 328 songs divided into seven Kands or books. Many episodes of the Ramayana are elaborated while many others are abridged. Krishna Gitavali or Krishnavali literally Collection of Songs to Krishna, is a collection of 61
  4. songs in honour of Krishna in Braja. There are 32 songs devoted to the childhood sports (Balalila) and Rasa Lila of Krishna, 27 songs form the dialogue between Krishna and Uddhava, and two songs describe the episode of disrobing of Draupadi. Vinaya Patrika literally Petition of Humility, is a Braja work consisting of 279 stanzas or
  5. hymns. The stanzas form a petition in the court of Rama asking for Bhakti. It is considered to be the second best work of Tulsidas after the Ramcharitmanas, and is regarded as important from the viewpoints of philosophy, erudition, and eulogistic and poetic style of Tulsidas. The first 43 hymns are addressed to various deities and Rama's courtiers and attendants, and remaining are addressed to Rama.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Consider the following Battles of Medieval Indian History :
1. Battle of Khanwa
2. Battle of Ghagra
3. Battle of Talikota
4. Battle of Haldighati
Arrange the above battles in the correct chronological order ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Battle of Khanwa (1527)

  • Babur, the Mughal emperor, decided to take on Rana Sanga of Chittor, the Rajput ruler of Mewar. The Rana had a strong influence over Rajasthan and Malwa.
  • The ferocious march of Rana Sanga, with force strengthened by Afghan Muslims, Mahmud Lodi, brother of Ibrahim Lodi, and Hasan Khan Mewati, ruler of Mewat, confronted the forces of Babur. With strategic positioning of forces and effective use of artillery, Babur defeated Rana Sanga’s forces. The capture of forts at Gwalior and Dholpur followed this victory.

Battle of Ghagra (1529)

  • The battle was the last battle Babar fought against the Afghans. Mahmud Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
  • Realizing the danger, Babar marched against them. In the battle that ensued along the banks of Ghagra, a tributary of the Ganges, Babur defeated the Afghans. But he died on his way from Agra to Lahore in 1530.

Battle of Talikota (1565)

  • The battle was fought at Talikota or Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565, in which Ramaraya (a great warrior and strategist), despite his old age, personally commanded the forces along with his cousins and brothers. In the final stages, the battle was lost. Rama Raya was imprisoned and executed immediately.
  • The victorious Bahmani armies entered the Vijayanagar city for the first time in their History and ransacked it for several months laying it to waste. This battle is generally considered a signal for the beginning of the disintegration of the Vijayanagar Empire as the Nayakas became more independent of central authority.

Battle of Haldighati (1576)

  • It was the last pitched battle between the Mughal forces and Rana Pratap Singh. In Marwar (Jodhpur), the ruler Chandra Sen, son of Maldeo Rathore, resisted the Mughals till his death in 1581, though his brothers fought on the side of the Mughals.
  • Udai Singh, the brother of Chandra Sen, was made the ruler of Jodhpur by Akbar.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
  • In Jainism, the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya or tri-ratna) are understood as samyagdarshana ('right faith'), samyagjnana ('right knowledge), and samyakcharitra ('right action').
  • One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation i.e. attainment of freedom from worldly bonds.
  • Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows: - Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • not to injure life
    • not to lie
    • not to steal
    • not to acquire property o
    • not to lead immoral life
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

1. Ain-e-Akbari: Minhaj-us-Siraj

2. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri: Badauni

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
  • Abul Fazl’s Akbarnamah and Ain-e- Akbari are fine piece of literature. From there we get a good deal of information about Akbar and his times.

  • Minhaj-us-Siraj was a historian who was patronized by Slave Sultan Nasir- ud-din Mahmud to whom he dedicated his magnum opus Tabaqat- i-Nasiri.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Paintings in Virupaksha temple in Hampi were done during the Vijaynagar empire.

2. The events of Ramayana and Mahabharata were depicted.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10
Option (c) is the correct answer.

As the Chola dynasty declined in the thirteenth century, the Vijayanagar dynasty captured and brought under its control the region from Hampi to Trichy.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Hampi, the Virupaksha temple has paintings on the ceiling of its mandapa narrating events from dynastic history and episodes from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata. Among important panels the mural of Vidyaranya, teacher of Bukkaraya Harsha, being carried in a palanquin is very well made.

In Lepakshi, Vijaynagar paintings can be found on the walls of the Shiva temple. In keeping with the tradition the Vijayanagar painters evolved a pictorial language wherein the faces are shown in profile and figures and objects two dimensionally. Lines become still but fluid, compositions appear in rectilinear compartments. These stylistic conventions were adopted by artists in various centres in South India as can be seen in the paintings of the Nayaka period.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Consider the following statements

  1. He founded the Servants of India Society.

  2. He started an English weekly newspaper, “The Hitavada”.

  3. He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah.

Which of the following personality is been discussed in the above statements?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
  • In News: PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary.

  • Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society(SIS) in Maharashtra’s Pune on June 12, 1905. The SIS launched campaigns for the promotion of education, health care and sanitation. It also made efforts to eradicate social evils such as untouchability and oppression of women. He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The people's paper). He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah. Gandhi Ji, in his autobiography, described Gokhale as “pure as crystal, gentle as a lamb, brave as a lion and chivalrous to a fault and the most perfect man in the political field.”

  • Similarly, Jinnah was so inspired by Gokhle that his aspiration, during the early years of his political life, was to become a “Muslim Gokhle”.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Arrange the following events chronologically:

1. Establishment of Sanskrit College by Jonathan Duncan

2. Establishment of Calcutta Madrasah

3. Censorship of Press Act

4. Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
Option (c) is the correct answer

● Calcutta Madrasah (1781) was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.

● Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784): was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones in 1784 to enhance and further the cause of Oriental research

● The Sanskrit College (1791) was established by Jonathan Duncan, the resident, at Benaras in 1791 for study of Hindu law and philosophy. Censorship of the Press Act, 1799: Lord Wellesley enacted this, anticipating French invasion of India. It imposed almost wartime press restrictions including pre-censorship. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings, who had progressive views, and in 1818, pre censorship was dispensed with

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 1857 revolt?

  1. The 1857 revolt failed as most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause.

  2. The revolt was led by enlightened and educated middle class.

  3. The Madras army remained complete loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the reasons for failure of 1857 revolt that most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause. Sir Dinkar Rao of Gwalior and Salar Jung of Nizam did everything to suppress the rebellion.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The revolt was led by old feudal lords not the enlightened middle educated class. These people had already been defeated many times.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Madras army remained completely loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians. The south India was not affected by this revolt. Punjab, Sindh, Rajputana, and east Bengal remain undisturbed.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

The call of “No religion, No caste and No God for mankind” against the caste system, is related to which of the following leaders?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
  • Kumbalathuparambu Ayyappan better identified as Sahodaran Ayyappan, was a social reformer, thinker, rationalist, journalist, and politician from Kerala, India. A vocal follower of Sree Narayana Guru, he was associated with a number of events related to the Kerala reformation movement and was the organizer of Misra Bojana in Cherai in 1917. He founded Sahodara Sangam, and the journal Sahodaran and was the founder-editor of the magazine Yukthivadhi.

  • He gave the call of “No religion, No caste and No God for mankind” against the caste system.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Red Shirts movement of 1929 :
1. It is a nationalist movement started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.
2. It aimed to introduce a better education system through the establishment of village schools.
3. It aimed to reform the social structure by eliminating violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
  • ‘Khudai Khidmatgars movement’ (“Servants of God”), also known as the ‘Red-Shirts’ movement is a nationalist and nonviolent one, that was established in 1929. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi had organized a volunteer brigade (a military unit), ‘Khudai Khidmatgars,’ popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts,’ who were pledged to the freedom struggle.
  • One of the fundamental ideas of the movement is to reform the social structure by preparing the people for more direct action against British rule by the use of non-violent means. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • The red Shirts movement of 1929 was initially a social reform organization focusing on a better education system through the establishment of village schools and was set to work organizing village projects to build capacity and prepare the people for more direct action against British rule. Later, only it developed into a Political movement. So, Statement 2 is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the “Doctrine of Lapse”?
1. It was invented and applied by Lord Dalhousie to the Indian states. 
2. The adopted son had the right to succeed the personal property of the chieftain.
3. It was not applicable to those states which were not tributary, and which were not and never had been
subordinate to a paramount power. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Doctrine of Lapse –

  • Dalhousie did not invent the Doctrine. As early as 1834, the Court of Directors had laid down that in case of failure of lineal successors the permission 'to adopt' was an indulgence that "should be the exception, not the rule, and should not be granted but as a special mark of favour and approbation." Few years later in 1841, the home authorities decided in favour of a uniform policy and directed the Governor-General "to persevere in the one clear and direct course of abandoning no just and honourable accession of territory or revenue while all existing claims of right are at the same time scrupulously respected". It was in pursuance of the policy thus laid down that Mandavi state was in 1840 and the titular dignity of the Nawab of Surat abolished in 1842.
  • According to Dalhousie, there were 3 categories of Hindu states in those days in India – Those states which were not tributary, and which were not and never had been subordinate to a paramount power. Hindu princes and chieftains which were tributary and owed subordination to the British Government as their paramount power in place of the Emperor of Delhi or the Peshwa, etc. Hindu sovereignties and states which had been created or revived by the Sanads (grants) of the British Government. 
  • Dalhousie recognised the right of the adopted son to succeed to the personal property of the chieftain, but drew a distinction between succession to private property and succession to the Royal Gaddi: In the latter case, he held that the sanction of the Paramount Power must be obtained. The Paramount Power could refuse 'adoption' in case of states covered by categories II and III, and declare the states having passed back or 'lapsed' to the supreme authority. 
  • In such cases the 'Right of Adoption' was substituted by the Paramount Power's 'Right of Lapse'. The power that gives, it was argued, could also rightfully take it away. It may be added that the over-zealous Governor-General treated some states as 'depedent principalities' or 'subordinate states' which rightly were ‘protected allies'. Dalhousie's decision, therefore, had to be reversed by the Court of Directors in case of the old Rajput state of Karauli. Similarly, Baghat and Udaipur were returned to their respective rulers by Lord Canning. 
  • The states actually annexed by the application of the Doctrine of Lapse under Lord Dalhousie were Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambhalpur (1849), Baghat (1850), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854).
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about social reforms movements in Western India:
1. Prarthana Samaj was more radical than Brahmo Samaj in its prescriptions against social evils.
2. Manav Dharma Sabha was founded by Dadoba Pandurang and Durgaram Mehta.
3. Paramhansa Mandali was secret organisation that believed in One-God.
Which of the statement given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 by Atmaram Pandurang in Bombay. This organisation became popular in Western India after M G Ranade joined it. The Samaj was different from the Brahmo Samaj of Bengal in that it was not as radical and took a cautious approach to the reformist programmes. For this reason, it was better received by the public as well. Prarthana Samaj did not ask its members to believe their caste and discard rituals. Manav Dharma Sabha was secret social reform movement founded in Surat in 1844 by Durgaram Mehta and Dadoba Pandurang. It was one of the earliest socio-religious reform movements in Gujarat. The goals of Manav Dharma Sabha were to expose the deceitful acts present in Chritianity, Islam and Hinduism. Manav Dharma Sabha developed 7 principles which reflected its core philosophy. They are:

  1. There is one God, the creator of this universe.
  2. All human beings belong to one fraternity.
  3. Religion is one for all men, yet, if they follow several faiths each one believings in one's own, one is only following the bent of one's mind. Men should be judged by the qualities they have, and not by their lineage or caste.
  4. Men should not act with discrimination.
  5. The object of all action should be to win the grace of God.
  6. All should be taught the importance of path of righteousness. Paramhansa Mandali was founded by Dadoba Pandurang and Bal Shastri Jambhekar in Bombay in 1849. (After he left Manav Dharma Sabha in Surat and came to Bombay). It was secret organisation. These principles denied polytheism of popular Hinduism, the caste system and the Brahmanical monopoly of knowledge. All members were required to take a pledge that they would abandon caste restrictions and take food and drink prepared by a member of a lower caste.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Which of the following were part(s) of the Congress manifesto for elections to the Provincial Assemblies held in 1937?
1. Total rejection of the Government of India Act 1935.
2. Removal of disabilities on the basis of gender and caste.
3. Radical transformation of the agrarian system.
4. Right to form trade unions and to strike.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Congress Manifesto for the Elections – The Congress manifesto reaffirmed total rejection of the Government of India Act 1935 and promised the release of the prisoners, the removal of the disabilities on the basis of gender and caste, radical transformation of the agrarian system, substantial reduction of rent and revenue, scaling down of rural debts, cheap credit and right to form trade unions and to strike. Gandhi did not attend a single election meeting. Note: In February, 1937, elections to the Provincial Assemblies were held. Elections were held in 11 Provinces – Madras, the Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, the United Provinces, the Bombay Presidency, Assam, the NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Which of the following reflects/reflect the influence of the Socialist ideas on the Congress?
1. The Resolution on Fundamental Rights passed by the Karachi Session.
2. The formation of the National Planning Committee in 1938.
3. Election manifesto of the Congress in 1936.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

The impact of the Socialist ideas on the National Movement was reflected in the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy passed by the Karachi Session of the Congress in 1931; the Resolutions on Economic Policy passed at the Faizpur Session in 1936; the Election Manifesto of the Congress in 1936; the setting up of a National Planning Committee in 1938; and the increasing shift of Gandhiji towards radical positions on economic and class issues.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Eka movement or unity peasant movement in the 1920s?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
  • The Eka Movement is a peasant movement that started in Lucknow, and soon spread to Hardoi, Unnao, and Sitapur districts and became a strong force. The initial thrust was provided by Congress and Khilafat leaders and the movement grew under the name of the Eka or unity movement. The main grievances here related to the extraction of a rent that was generally fifty percent higher than the recorded rent, the oppression of thekedars to whom the work of rent- collection was farmed out and the practice of share-rents. 
  • The Eka meetings were marked by a religious ritual in which a hole that represented the river Ganges was dug in the ground and filled with water, a priest was brought in to preside and the assembled peasants owed that they would pay only the recorded rent but pay it on time, would not leave when ejected, would refuse to do forced labour, would give no help to criminals and abide by the panchayat decisions. 
  • The Eka Movement, however, soon developed its own grassroots leadership in the form of Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders who were no particularly inclined to accept the discipline of non- violence that the Congress and Khilafat leaders urged. 
  • As a result, the movement’s contact with the nationalists diminished and it went its own way. However, unlike the earlier Kisan Sabha a movement that was based almost solely on tenants, the Eka Movement included in its ranks many small zamindars who found themselves disenchanted with the Government because of its heavy land revenue demand. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 
  • By March 1922, however, severe repression on the part of the authorities succeeded in bringing the Eka Movement to its end.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

“The soil is generally clayey, deep and impermeable. It swells and become sticky when

wet and shrinks when dried. It is rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.” The above characteristics can be attributed to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
  • Option D is the correct answer. Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches of the Godavari and Krishna, and the north western part of the Deccan Plateau, the black soil is very deep. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.

  • The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.

  • Black soil is rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. At the same time, it also contains potash. However black soil lacks phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter. It is suitable for growing cotton.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Which of the following is geographically closest to the Great Nicobar Islands?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Distance from Great Nicobar to Sri Lanka is 1,437 km. Distance from Great Nicobar to Sumatra is 1,192 km.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Which of the following are common characteristics of weather fronts?

  1. Large difference in air temperature across the front.

  2. Bending isobar

  3. Abrupt shift in wind direction

  4. Cloudiness and precipitation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
  • A front is that sloping boundary which separates two opposing air masses having contrasting characteristics in terms of air temperature, humidity, density, pressure, and wind direction. An extensive transitional zone between two converging air masses is called the frontal zone or frontal surface which represents a zone of discontinuity in the properties of opposing contrasting air masses. Frontal zone is neither parallel nor vertical to the ground surface, rather it is inclined at a low angle.

  • Though fronts differ from each other in terms of their location, types, and the areal extent they are characterized by the following common characteristics e.g. large difference in air temperature across a front, bending isobars, the abrupt shift in wind direction, cloudiness and precipitation.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Consider the following:

  1. Natural disasters

  2. Availability of regular work

  3. Poverty

  4. High population pressure on land

  5. Local conflicts

Which of the above-mentioned factors can be classified as the push factors of migration in India?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
  • The reasons for migration can be put into two broad categories:

    • push factor, these cause people to leave their place of residence or origin; and

    • pull factors, which attract people from different places.

  • In India, people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population pressure on the land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc. Apart from these factors, natural disasters such as floods, drought, cyclonic storms, earthquakes, tsunami, wars, and local conflicts also give an extra push to migrate. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • The most important pull factor for a majority of the rural migrants to urban areas is the better opportunities, availability of regular work, and relatively higher wages. Better opportunities for education, better health facilities and sources of entertainment, etc., are also quite important pull factors.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Which of the following is/are not the effects of soil erosion ?

1. Increase in Frequency and intensity of floods and drought

2. Increase in water holding capacity of Rivers

3. Lowering of Groundwater level

4. Uneven Nutrient distribution

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Soil erosion is the displacement of the upper layer of soil (called topsoil). It is a naturally occurring process that affects all landforms. However, certain human activities greatly enhance this process and contribute to significant soil loss. The intensity of soil erosion has also increased due to increased landslides, floods and drought. Soil erosion decreases soil fertility, which can negatively affect crop yields. It also sends soil-laden water downstream, which can create heavy layers of sediment that prevent streams and rivers from flowing smoothly and can eventually lead to flooding. The fertile soil on the top most surface of the dry agricultural land is easily blown away by the wind, which causes soil erosion. So, scarcity of water during drought increases soil erosion. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The raindrops dispersed the soil and washed away into the nearby streams and rivers. Regions with very heavy and frequent rainfall face a large amount of soil loss. When topsoil has eroded, the loss of organic matter can alter the soil's physical properties, especially soil density. Higher clay content at the surface can reduce infiltration of topsoil reducing soil recharge, thus reducing water availability to the plants. The flowing water during floods also erodes a lot of soil by creating potholes, rock-cut basins, etc. Thus, erosion decreases the water holding capacity of the rivers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Groundwater erosion is the process by which groundwater erodes part of the bedrock as it passes through. This is primarily due to carbonic acid in the groundwater, which forms when rainwater picks up carbon dioxide in the atmosphere as it falls. The soil erosion mechanisms affect how much water the soil can hold, how rapidly water flows over the soil and its movement below the surface. Soil erosion adversely hinders the growth of plants, agricultural yields, quality of water, and recreation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Soil erosion reduces the agricultural value of lands via physicochemical degradations. Soil nutrient loss through runoff and sediment is a major driver for soil fertility decline. The eroded sediments or soil are highly concentrated with crop nutrients, which are washed away from farmlands. Some conditions under which erosion can help distribute nutrients across a given area of land. The first condition under which this can occur is a condition of uneven soil nutrient distribution. In such a scenario, nutrients in the form of compost, mulch, or chemical fertilizer; are concentrated heavily in a defined area of land, while the concentration may be very low (relatively) in adjacent areas. A condition like this is unfavorable to the health of the soil and the optimal functioning of the entire ecosystem. Erosion can resolve the problem of uneven nutrient distribution when it occurs mildly or in a cyclic fashion. So, Statement 4 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

The correct answer is option 3, i.e 3-2-4-1.

  • As per the report published by the Forest Survey of India the percentage of forested area in ascending order is:
    • Chhattisgarh (41.09%),
    • Odisha (32.98%),
    • Madhya Pradesh (25.11%),
    • Maharashtra (16.47%)
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclone 30:

1. It is the biggest cyclotron in India for medical application.

2. It will provide for affordable radioisotopes and related radiopharmaceuticals for cancer care in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Cyclotrons are used to produce radioisotopes for diagnostic and therapeutic use for cancer care. Cyclone-30, the biggest cyclotron in India for medical application became operational in September 2018.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Cyclone-30 facility at VECC, Kolkata, a Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) unit, will have many unique features, under various stages of implementation, which are first of its kind in many ways. This facility will provide for affordable radioisotopes and related radiopharmaceuticals for the entire country especially for Eastern India for cancer treatment. It will also have in-situ production of Gallium-68 and Palladium-103 isotopes, used for breast cancer diagnosis and prostate cancer treatment, respectively.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Which of the following is not an erosional coastal landform?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Coastal Features of Deposition

  • Beaches: Sands & gravel loosened from the land are moved by waves to be deposited along the shore as beaches. The eroded material is transported along the shore in several distinct ways. Long shore drifts which comes obliquely to the coast carries material along the shore in the direction of the dominant wind. At the same time, backwash removes part of the material seawards, along the bed of the sea, and deposits it on the off-shore terrace and even beyond. The constant action of the waves automatically sorts out the shoreline deposits in a graded manner. The coarser materials are dropped by the waves at the top of the beaches & the finer materials, carried down the beach by the backwash, are dropped closer to the sea.

  • Spits & Bars:The debris eroded by waves is continually moved by long shore drift & where there is an indentation in the coast, such as at the mouth of the river or a bay, material may continue to be deposited across the inlet. As more materials are added, they will pile up into a ridge or embankment of shingle forming a spit, with one end attached to the land and other projecting into the sea. When a ridge of shingle is formed across the mouth of a river or the entrance to a bay, it is called a bar. Such a connecting bar that joins two land masses is known as Tombolo.

  • Marine Dunes & Dune Belts: With the force of on-shore winds, a large amount of coastal sand is driven landwards forming extensive marine dunes that stretches into dune belts. Their advance inland may engulf farms, roads & even the entire villages. Hence to arrest the migration of dunes, sand binding species of grass & shrubs, such as marram grass & pines are planted. KB) Coastal Features of Erosion

  • Capes & Bays: On exposed coasts, the continual action of waves on the rocks of varying resistance causes the coastline to be eroded irregularly. This is particularly pronounced where hard rocks occur in alternative band with softer rocks. The softer rocks are worn back into inlets or bays & the harder ones persist as headlands or capes. Even where the coastline consists of one rock type, irregularities will be caused by variation within the rock.

  • Cliffs & Wave cut platforms: Generally, any steep rock platform adjoining the coast forms a cliff, whose rate of recession will depend on its geological structure i.e. the stratification & jointing of the rocks & their resistance to wave attack. If the bed dips seaward, large blocks of rock will be dislodged & fall into the sea & cliff will rise in a series of steps. On the other hand, if the beds dip landward, the cliff will be more resistant to wave erosion. At the base of the cliff the sea cuts a notch, which gradually undermines the cliff, so that it collapses. As the cliff recedes landwards under the pounding of waves, an eroded base is left behind called a wave cut platform. The platform, upper part of which is exposed at low tides, slopes gently seawards, with its surface strewn with rock debris from the receding cliff. Further the abrasion continues until the pebbles are swept away in the sea with eroded material deposited on off shore terrace.

  • Cave, Arch, Stack & Stump: Prolonged waves attack on the base of the cliff & excavate holes in regions of local weakness called cave. When 2 caves approach each other from either side of headland & unite, they form an arch. Further erosion by waves will lead to total collapse of the arch. The seaward portion of the headland will remain as a pillar of rock known as stack. With the course of time, these stubborn stacks will gradually be eroded, leaving behind the stumps, which are only just visible above the sea level.

  • Geos & Gloups (blow-holes): The occasional splashing of the waves against the roof of a cave may enlarge the joints when air is compressed & released repeatedly inside them. A natural shaft is thus formed which may eventually pierce through the surface. Waves breaking into the cave may force water or air out of this hole. Such a shaft is termed as Gloup or blow hole. The enlargement of blow-holes & continual action of waves weakens the cave roof. When the cave roof collapses, a long, narrow creek may develop known as Geos.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

With respect to Madden Julian Oscillation, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an eastward-moving fluctuation of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator.

  2. It brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent when it is over the Indian Ocean during Monsoon season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO):

  • The Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is one of the most important atmosphere-ocean coupled phenomena in the tropics, which has profound influence on the Indian Summer Monsoon.

  • The MJO can be defined as an eastward moving 'pulse' of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The MJO is the leading mode of tropical intra-seasonal climate variability and is characterized by organization on a global spatial scale with a period typically ranging between 30-60 days.

  • When Madden Julian Oscillation is over Indian Ocean during Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon. It is linked with enhanced and suppressed rainfall activity in the tropics and is very important for the Indian monsoonal rainfall.

It has the following characteristics:

  • MJO is a massive weather event consisting of deep convection coupled with atmospheric circulation, moving slowly eastward over the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

  • MJO is an equatorial traveling pattern of anomalous rainfall that is planetary in scale.

  • Each cycle lasts approximately 30–60 days. Also known as the 30-60 day oscillation, 30-60 day wave, or intra-seasonal oscillation (ISO).

  • The MJO involves variations in wind, sea surface temperature (SST), cloudiness, and rainfall. Based on the place of convective activity the period of MJO is divided into 1-8 phases with each phase roughly last for 7 to 8 days.

  • Since the MJO is the most important mode of tropical intra-seasonal variability with potentially important influences on monsoon activity in the Asian regions on extended range time scale (beyond 7 days to one month), the capability of statistical or numerical models in capturing MJO signal is very crucial in capturing the active/break cycle of monsoon.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials and the production of tangible goods.

  2. The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers perform quaternary activities.

  3. Workers of Quinary activities are often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
  • Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.

  • Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience, and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery, and factory processes.

  • Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production, and dissemination of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge and technical skills.

  • Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers performs quinary activities. Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

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