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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 is part of HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) preparation. The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) exam syllabus.The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 below.
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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

With reference to the Battle of Haldighati, consider the following statements:

1. It was fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh.

2. Aftermath of the battle, Goganda, Udaipur, and Kumbhalgarh were all under Maharana Pratap’s control.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1
Statement 1 is correct: It was fought in the year 1576 between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh of Amber (general of the Mughal emperor Akbar). Maharana Pratap bravely fought the war but eventually lost it. According to some mythological texts, Chetak who was Maharana Pratap’s loyal horse, also gave up his life when Maharana Pratap was leaving the battlefield. Maharana re-gathered his forces, fought and won against the Mughals after six years in 1582.

Statement 2 is not correct: After the battle, Maharana Pratap able to make a successful escape, the battle failed to break the deadlock between the two powers. Subsequently, Akbar led a sustained campaign against the Rana, and soon, Goganda, Udaipur, and Kumbhalgarh were all under Akbar’s control

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the presence of agricultural tracts within the fortified areas of the Vijayanagaraempire:

1. They helped to address the issue of food scarcity during sieges, which were aimed to starve the defenders to submission.

2. These agricultural tracts between the sacred centre and urban core of the fortified area were irrigated by an elaborate canal system drawing waterfromTungabhadra.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Fortifications were significant in Vijayanagara as it was to protect from outsiders and they were unique as they enclosed agricultural tracts.

Statement 1 is correct. Often, the objective of mediaeval sieges was to starve the defenders into submission. These sieges could last for several months and sometimes even years. Rulers tried to be prepared for such situations by building large granaries within fortified areas and agricultural tracts.The rulers of Vijayanagara adopted a more expensive and elaborate strategy of protecting the agricultural belt itself. A second line of fortification went round the inner core of the urban complex, and a third line surrounded the royal centre, within which each set of major buildings was surrounded by its own high walls.

Statement 2 is correct. Abdur Razzaq noted that between the first, second and third walls there were cultivated fields, gardens and houses. Domingo Paes observed that there was a great distance from the first circuit until the entrance of the city. There were fields for sowing rice, many gardens and a lot of water, in which water came from two lakes. Present-day archaeologists, who have also found evidence of an agricultural tract between the sacred centre and the urban core, have corroborated these statements. An elaborate canal system drawing water from the Tungabhadra serviced this tract.

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Historic India Stone tools were used for

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin

  3. Making spears and arrows for hunting

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3
Option (d) is correct

Stone tools have been used for:

  • Digging the ground to collect edible roots.

  • Stitching clothes made out of animal skin.

  • Some of these stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape bark (from trees) and hides (animal skins), chop fruit and roots.

  • Some may have been attached to handles of bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.

  • Other tools were used to chop wood, which was used as firewood. Wood was also used to make huts and tools.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Historic India:

Stone tools were used for

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin

  3. Making spears and arrows for hunting

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Stone tools have been used for:

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots.

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin.

  3. Some of these stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape bark (from trees) and hides (animal skins), chop fruit and roots.

  4. Some may have been attached to handles of bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.

  5. Other tools were used to chop wood, which was used as firewood. Wood was also used to make huts and tools.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

With reference to the Tripartite struggle of medieval history, consider the following statements:

  • It was fought between Pratihara, Rashstrakuta and Pala dynasty.
  • The three kingdoms fought for control of the Malwa region which had plenty of resources and was seen as a symbol of prestige and power during the early medieval period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5
  • The political developments after Harshavardhan, can be best understood if we divide the period from AD 750 to AD 1200 into two parts (a) AD 750–AD 1000; (b) AD 1000–AD 1200. The first phase was marked by the growth of three important political powers in India. These were Gurjara Pratiharas in north India, Palas in eastern India, and Rashtrakutas in South India. In the second phase, we notice the break-up of these powers. It resulted in the rise of many smaller kingdoms all over the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • These powers were constantly fighting with each other to set up their control of Kannauj of the Gangetic region in northern India. The struggle for control over Kannauj among these three dynasties is known as the tripartite struggle in Indian history. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • Control of Kanauj also implied control of the upper Gangetic valley and its rich resources in trade and agriculture.
  • The Pratiharas who first had their capital at Bhinmal gained prominence under Nagabhatta I who offered stout resistance to the Arab rulers of Sind who were trying to encroach on Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, etc.
  • However, the real founder of the Pratihara empire and the greatest ruler of the dynasty was Bhoja. He rebuilt the empire, and by about 836 he had recovered Kanauj which remained the capital of the Pratiharaempire for almost a century
  • In the south, Dantidurga was the founder of the dynasty called, the Rashtrakuta dynasty (8th AD).
  • The capital of the Rashtrakutas was Manyakheta or Malkhed near Sholapur. It was under the king Dhruva that the Rashtrakutas turned towards north India in a bid to control Kannauj, then the imperial city.
    • Soon, the Rashtrakuta king Dhruva from south India jumped into the fight. And thus began what is known as ‘Tripartite Struggle’ i.e struggle among three powers.
  • The Pala empire was founded by Gopala, probably in AD 750 when he was elected king by the notable men of the area to end the anarchy prevailing there. Gopala was succeeded in AD 770by his son, Dharmapala, who ruled till AD 810. His reign was marked by a tripartite struggle between the Palas, the Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas for the control of Kanauj and north India.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the rock art of Bhimbetka:
1. The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered by archaeologist V. S. Wakankar.
2. The mesolithic paintings of Bhimbetka are smaller than the upper paleolithic paintings.
3. In mesolithic paintings, animals were painted in a naturalistic style whereas humans were depicted only in a stylistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6
  • The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V. S. Wakankar and later on, many more were discovered. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The rock art of Bhimbetka has been classified into various groups on the bases of style, technique, and superimposition. The drawings and paintings can be categorized into seven historical periods. Period I, Upper Palaeolithic; Period II, Mesolithic; and Period III, Chalcolithic. After Period III there are four successive periods.
  • The largest number of Bhimbetka paintings belong to Period II which covers the Mesolithic
  • paintings.
    • During this period the themes are multiple but the paintings are smaller in size compared to Upper Palaeolithic paintings. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Hunting scenes predominate. The hunting scenes depict people hunting in groups, armed with barbed spears, pointed sticks, arrows and bows. In some paintings, these primitive men are shown with traps and snares probably to catch animals.
    • The hunters are shown wearing simple clothes and ornaments. Sometimes, men have been adorned with elaborate headdresses, and sometimes painted with masks also.
    • Elephant, bison, tiger, boar, deer, antelope, leopard, panther, rhinoceros, fish, frog, lizard, squirrel, and at times birds are also depicted.
    • The Mesolithic artists loved to paint animals. In some pictures, animals are chasing men. In others, they are being chased and hunted by men. Some of the animal paintings, especially in the hunting scenes, show fear of animals, but many others show a feeling of tenderness and love for them.
    • Though animals were painted in a naturalistic style, humans were depicted only in a stylistic manner. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • Women are painted both in the nude and clothed. The young and the old equally find their place in these paintings. Children are painted running, jumping, and playing. Community dances provide a common theme.
    • There are paintings of people gathering fruit or honey from trees, and of women grinding and preparing food.
    • Some of the pictures of men, women, and children seem to depict a sort of family life. In many of the rock shelters, we find handprints, fist prints, and dots made by the fingertips.
    • The artists of Bhimbetka used many colors, including various shades of white, yellow, orange, red ochre, purple, brown, green, and black. But white and red were their favorite colors.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Who was the author of Daridracharudatta(Charudatta in poverty) which was the storyof the courtesan Vasantasena and laterdeveloped into the more famous playMrichakatika, by Shudraka?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7
  • The Gupta period is remarkable for the production of secular literature, which consisted of a fair degree of ornate court poetry. Bhasa was an important poet in the early phase of the Gupta period and wrote thirteen plays. He wrote in Sanskrit, but his dramas also contain a substantial amount of Prakrit.
  • Bhasa was the author of a drama called Dradiracharudatta, which was later refashioned as Mrichchhakatika or the Little Clay Cart by Shudraka. The play deals with the love affair of a poor brahmana trader with a beautiful courtesan and is considered one of the best works of ancient drama. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • In his plays Bhasa uses the term yavanika for the curtain, which suggests Greek contact. However, what has made the Gupta period particularly famous is the work of Kalidasa who lived in the second half of the fourth and the first half of the fifth century. He was the greatest poet of classical Sanskrit literature and wrote Abhijnanashakuntalam which is very highly regarded in world literature.
  • It relates the love story of King Dushyanta and Shakuntala, whose son Bharata appears as a famous ruler. Shakuntalam was one of the earliest Indian works to be translated into European languages, the other work being the Bhagavadgita. The plays produced in India during the Gupta period have two common features.
  • First, they are all comedies; no tragedies are found. Secondly, characters of the higher and lower classes do not speak the same language; women and Shudras featured in these plays use Prakrit whereas the higher classes use Sanskrit. We may recall that Ashoka and the Satavahanas used Prakrit as the state language.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

In the context of the cultural heritage of India, which of the following items enjoy Geographical Indication status in India?
1. Aranmula Kannadi
2. Mysore Agarbathi
3. Hmaram
4. Dindigul Locks
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8
  • A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. In order to function as a GI, a sign must identify a product as originating in a given place
    • Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
  • In December 1999, the Parliament passed the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This Act seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India.
    • The Act is administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks- who is the Registrar of Geographical Indications. The Geographical Indications Registry is located at Chennai. The Act has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.
  • Aranmula Kannadi (literally meaning Aranmula mirror) is a handmade metal-alloy mirror, unlike the usual glass mirror. Aranmula Kannadi is an extraordinary traditional handmade metal mirror which is famous for bringing prosperity, luck and wealth into life.
    • What’s unique about this front surface reflection mirror is that it eliminates secondary reflections that you typically see in back surface mirrors. Born out of Kerala’s rich culture and its inclination towards metallurgical articles, the mirror is said to have tremendous spiritual value and brings good luck.
    • In 2004, this rare craft belonging to a small town in Kerala was given worldwide recognition when a 45-centimeter tall Aranmula mirror was placed in London’s British Museum and awarded a geographical indication (GI) tag.
    • Owing to the unmatched splendor and religious significance of Aranmula Kannadi, Aranmula was declared a heritage village by Kerala Tourism in order to draw tourists’ attention to this dying craft.
  • The making of Mysore Agarbathi became an organized industry in Bangalore during the 1900s. The incense sticks are locally known as oodabathies (blowing fumes). Herbs, flowers, essential oils, barks, roots and charcoal are ground into a smooth paste, then rolled onto bamboo sticks and dried in the sun.
    • The key ingredients Sandalwood and Ailanthus malabaricum (which yields halmadi) are indigenous to the forests of Karnataka, thus earning the product its GI tag status.
  • The Hmaram was and is a popular article of clothing for Mizoram women. It is a handmade shawl and is worn like a short skirt by being wrapped around the waist and tucked in on one side. It is worn with a white blouse for ceremonies, festivals, or special events. It is made of cotton and dyed with natural indigo. It enjoys a GI tag status.
  • The Lock manufacturing industry in Dindigul is hundreds of years old. Dindigul locks can guarantee aspects like quality, full safety & key facilities, most importantly they are attractive and unique in design.
    • The popular kinds of locks that are manufactured in Dindigul are Mango lock, Door Lock, Trick Lock, Bell Lock, Drawer Lock, Shutter Lock & Book Shutter Lock.
    • Dindigul Locks are specifically purchased for Temples. Government institutions and business places because of its foolproof Safety.
    • Dindigul lock manufacturers claim that the precision lever mechanism in their locks is manually assembled with a unique key code and shackles are meticulous in design that gives greater resistance to anyone who tries to break in.
    • Dindigul locks enjoy GI tag status.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the currency reforms of Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq?

1. Token currency was introduced for the first time ever in the history during his reign.

2. He introduced a bronze coin with the same value as the silver tanka.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9
  • Another step which Muhammad-Bin- Tughlaq took at this time was the introduction of the ‘token currency’. Since money is merely a medium of exchange, all countries in the world today have token currencies — generally paper currency, so that they do not have to depend upon the supply of gold and silver. There was a shortage of silver in the world in the fourteenth century. Moreover, Qublai Khan of China had already successfully experimented with a token currency. A Mongol ruler of Iran, Ghazan Khan, had also experimented with it.

  • Muhammad Tughlaq decided to introduce a bronze coin which was to have the same value as the silver tanka. Specimen of this coin has been found in different parts of India, and can be seen in museums. The idea of a token currency was a new one in India and it was difficult to induce the traders, as well as the common man to accept it.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. The kingdom of Magadha was a monarchy whereas the kingdom of Vajji was a republic.

2. Women, dasas and kammakaras could participate in assemblies organised in Vajji.

3. Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas or sanghas.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Magadha became the most important mahajanapada in about two hundred years. There were many reasons for it; many rivers such as the Ganga and Son flowed through it which was important for transportation, water supplies and making the land fertile. Also, as the parts of Magadha were forested, wood obtained from it was used to make houses, carts, and chariots. Elephants who lived in the forests could be captured and trained for the army. Also, there were iron ore mines that could be tapped to make strong tools and weapons. In Magadha usually, one person ruled.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Vajji was under a different form of government, known as gana or sangha. This was different from Magadha as here there were not one but many rulers, sometimes thousands of men ruled together and each one was called as raja. These rajas performed rituals together. The system was such that these rajas met in assemblies, and decided through discussion and debate what had to be done and hoe.

However, women, dasas, and kammakaras could not participate in these assemblies. Statement 3 is correct. Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas or sanghas.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) was founded by?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11
Jyotirao Govindrao Phule along with his followers, formed the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) to attain equal rights for people from exploited castes. People from all religions and castes could become a part of this association which worked for the upliftment of the oppressed classes.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Consider the following statements about the judicial reforms under William Bentinck:

1. He abolished the District Faujdari Courts and established 4 circuit courts at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna.

2. Sadar Diwani Adalat and Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad.

3. In the Supreme Court, English language replaced the use of vernacular languages.

Which of the statements given above is/are not Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12
Option (c) is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect. Under William Bentinck, the four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit. Statement 2 is correct. Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the convenience of the people of Upper Provinces.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Supreme Court, the English language replaced Persian. KB) Under Cornwallis, The District Faujdari Courts were abolished and, instead, circuit courts were established at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna. These circuit courts had European judges and were to act as courts of appeal for both civil and criminal cases.

Before reforms by William Bentinck, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court, English language replaced Persian

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

With reference to the treaty of Allahabad in 1765, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Allahabad and Benaras were surrendered to Shah Alam II by Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula.

  2. Shah Alam – II agreed to pay Rs.50 lakh to company as war indemnity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13
Option d is correct
  • Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 - one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Which of the following policy measures were adopted by the British Government towards the Princely States after the revolt of 1857?

  1. Britishers to abandon the policy of annexing princely states.

  2. Britishers to stop interfering in day to day affairs of princely states.

  3. Princely States were to be completely subordinated to British Crown.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14
  • Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the Revolt. Moreover, the experience of the Revolt had convinced the British authorities that the princely states could serve as useful allies and supporters in case of popular opposition or revolt. The Revolt of 1857 led the British to reverse some aspects of their policy towards the Indian States.

  • Some of the relaxation announced by the British to the princely states were:

    • Before 1857, the British availed every opportunity to annex princely states. This policy was now abandoned. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • The right of princes to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.

  • On the other hand, some of the old policies were applied even after the revolt of 1857:

    • Princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power as the price of their continued existence. In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India to emphasize British sovereignty over the entire Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.

    • They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Their perpetuation was only one aspect of the British policy towardé the princely state. Complete integration of princely states with British India was another aspect of the British policy towardé the princely states.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

With reference to 17th October 1940 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15
  • Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized and revitalized the Indian National Army under Mohan Singh and Major-General Shah Nawaz Khan in Singapore in May 1943. So, Option (a) is not correct.
  • On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi chose Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (a movement that meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. The British Colonial government had committed India to the Second World War without the consent of the Indian leaders. To oppose this decision by the foreign government, the Congress party launched individual satyagraha. So, Option (b) is correct.
  • Chittaranjan Das formed the Congress-Khilafat-Swaraj Party within the Congress on 31 December 1922. He was aided by Motilal Nehru and Malaviya from UP, Lajpat Rai from Punjab, M. R. Jayakar and VithalbhaiPatel from Gujarat, the ‘Tilak group’ from Bombay and some leaders from south India. It became both a minority faction within the Congress and an independent organization ‘running candidates for legislatures  outside the purview of the Congress. The plan, program and constitution of the Swaraj Party (Swarajya Party) were drawn up at its first conference in Allahabad in 1924. Chittaranjan Das became the President of this new party, and Motilal Nehru was one of its secretaries. So, Option (c) is not correct.
  • Cripps Mission was sent to India to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties. Cripps arrived in Delhi on 22 March 1942, where they discussed the Draft Declaration with many Indian leaders. The Cripps Mission failed, and the issue of India’s constitution was postponed until the  end of the war.

Thus, Viceroy Linlithgow announced the Cripps Mission to offer dominion status to India on behalf of British
Parliament in 1942. So, Option (d) is not correct.
 

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Consider the following statements with  reference to the early efforts to improve the conditions of the working class in British India:
1. Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee introduced a bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
2. N. M. Lokhanday brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi with the primary idea of educating the workers.
3. Sasipada Banerjea published an Anglo- Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16
  • Before the Indian nationalist intelligentsia began to associate itself with working-class agitations, there were also some early attempts at organized efforts to improve the condition of the workers. These efforts were made as early as the 1870s by philanthropists. 
  • In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen’s Club in 1870 and published a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi (Indian Labour), with the primary idea of educating the workers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhanday brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890. Lokhanday held meetings of workers and in one instance sent a memorial signed by 5,500 mill workers, to the Bombay Factory Commission, putting forward some minimum workers’ demands. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

With reference to changes introduced into the tribal economy by the British Administration in India, which of the
following reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers?
1. The British administration restricted the entry of a large number of moneylenders, traders, and revenue
farmers as middlemen in the tribal areas.
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India.
3. The British administration introduced a system of forced labour (begar) in tribal areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17
  • Tribal movements under British rule were the most frequent, militant, and violent of all movements. The land settlements of the British affected the joint ownership tradition among the tribals and disrupted their social fabric.
  • The cause of the tribal violence was directed towards the money-lenders and traders who were seen as extensions of the colonial government. As agriculture was extended in a settled form by the Company government, the tribals lost their land, and there was an influx of non-tribals to these areas due to colonial revenue policies. The money lenders introduced in the tribal areas led to severe exploitation of the local tribals. They became bonded labourers under the new economic system. The tribal societies had a system of joint ownership of land which was replaced by the notion of private property. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Another common cause was the resentment against the imposition of laws by the ‘foreign government’ that was seen as an effort at destroying the tribal's traditional socio-economic framework. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India. o Its main aim was an assertion of the monopoly of the British over the Indian forest land, and it gave the government undisputable power to regulate the forest and pastures. It enabled the Revenue and Forest Department to control the entire forest and grazing land. Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests for they produced timber that the British wanted. In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely, practice jhum cultivation, collect fruits, or hunt animals. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The Begar system of forced labour was introduced in tribal areas as well that had altered labour relations. An influx of Christian Missionaries was supported by the British. The reason behind intense tribal rebellion is that zamindars, the Police, the revenue, and the court alas have exercised a combined system of extortions, oppressive exactions, forcible dispossession of property, abuse, and personal violence, and a variety of petty tyrannies upon the tribals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Under British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably. They were allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent out lands as zamindars but they lost much of their administrative power and were forced to follow laws made by British officials in India.
    • They also had to pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups on behalf of the British. They lost the authority they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people and were unable to fulfill their traditional functions.
  • All these reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

With reference to the Communal Award- 1932, consider the following statements:
1. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures, to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate.
2. The Award declared the Depressed Classes to be a minority community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

The British policy of ̳Divide and Rule‘ found another expression in the announcement of the Communal Award in August, 1932. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures, to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate, that is the Muslims would be elected only by the Muslims and the Sikhs only by the Sikhs, and so on. Muslims, Sikhs and Christians had already been treated as minorities. The Award declared the Depressed Classes (The Scheduled Castes of today) also to be a minority community entitled to separate electorate and, thus, separated them from the rest of the Hindus. The Congress took the position that though it was opposed to separate electorates, it was not in favour of changing the Award without the consent of the minorities. Consequently, though strongly disagreeing with the Communal Award, it decided neither to accept it nor to reject it

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Jawaharlal Nehru?
1. He organized the Independence for India League with Subhas Chandra Bose.
2. He criticized Gandhiji for preaching harmony among the exploiters and the exploited.
3. He headed the Karachi Session of the Congress in 1931.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

 In 1928, Jawaharlal joined hands with Subhas Chandra Bose to organize the Independence for India League. Nehru developed a complex relationship with Gandhiji during this period. He criticized Gandhiji for refusing to recognize the conflict of the classes, for preaching harmony among the exploiters and the exploited, and for putting forward the theories of trusteeship by, and conversion of, the capitalists and the landlords. He headed the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1930. The Karachi Session of the Congress was held in March 31, 1931, under the presidentship of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Which of the following states introduced compulsory primary education throughout its territories in 1906:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20
Option (d) is the correct answer In 1906, the progressive state of Baroda introduced compulsory primary education throughout its territories. Consequently, National leaders urged the government to do so for British India (Gokhale made a powerful advocacy for it in the Legislative Assembly).

In its 1913 Resolution on Education Policy, the government refused to take up the responsibility of compulsory education, but accepted the policy of removal of illiteracy and urged provincial governments to take early steps to provide free elementary education to the poorer and more backward sections. Private efforts were to be encouraged for this and the quality of secondary schools was to be improved. A university, it was decided, was to be established in each province and teaching activities of universities were to be encouraged.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. In most of the tribal areas of the north-east India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities

2. Mining of coal in Meghalaya is done by digging long narrow tunnels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21
Recently workers were trapped in a Rat hole mine in Meghalaya for 18 days.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Most of the minerals in India are nationalised and their extraction is possible only after obtaining due permission from the government. But in most of the tribal areas of the north-east India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities.

  • Statement 2 is correct. In Meghalaya, there are large deposits of coal, iron ore, limestone and dolomite etc. Coal mining in Jowai and Cherapunjee is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel, known as ‘Rat hole’ mining. It is a primitive and hazardous method of mining for coal, with tunnels that are only 3-4 feet in diameter (hence, rat-hole), leading to pits ranging from 5-100 sq. mt deep. There are two types of rat-holes: when dug into the ground these are vertical shafts leading to the mines where horizontal tunnels are dug; the second type is where horizontal holes are dug directly in the hillsides to reach coal seams (bed of coal). The coal is taken out manually, loaded into a bucket or a wheelbarrow and dumped on a nearby un-mined area. From here, it is carried to larger coal dumps near highways for trade and transportation The National Green Tribunal has declared such activities illegal and recommended that these should be stopped forthwith. The National Green Tribunal banned rat-hole mining in Meghalaya in 2014 on a petition that said acidic discharge from the mines was polluting the Kopili river. But the practice continues unabated.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Himalayan province is generally deficient in underground water resource.

  2. The sedimentary province of Kerala, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu are rich in underground water resource.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22
Option (c) is the correct answer.

India is rich in underground water resources. Its spatial distribution is however uneven. The underground water resource is a function of geological structure, topography, slope, precipitation, runoff, soils and hydrological conditions of a region. India is divided into 8 underground water provinces:

  • The Pre-Cambrian Crystalline Province

  • The Pre-Cambrian Sedimentary Rocks Province

  • The Gondwana Sedimentary Province

  • The Deccan Trap Province

  • The Cenozoic Sedimentary Province

  • The Ganga Brahmaputra Alluvial Province

  • The Himalayan Province

  • The Cenozoic Fault Basin

Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan province is structurally complex. In general, it is deficient in underground water except the intermontane valleys like the Dun, Kashmir, Kangra, Kullu and Manali valleys. This region has numerous springs.

Statement 2 is correct. The Cenozoic Sedimentary Province includes the coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Gujarat.The sandstones of the tertiary period in these regions are rich in underground water resources.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Consider the following:

  1. Drastic Change in water level in wells

  2. Large scale fluctuation of oil flow from oil wells

  3. Discharging of Radon gas

The above phenomena are associated with which of the following natural hazards?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23
  • An earthquake is the movement or trembling of the ground produced by the sudden displacement of rock in the Earth's crust. Earthquakes result from crustal strain, volcanism, landslides, and the collapse of caverns. Stress accumulates in response to tectonic forces until it exceeds the strength of the rock. The rock then breaks along a pre-existing or new fracture called a fault. The rupture extends outward in all directions along the fault plane from its point of origin (focus).

  • Earthquake prediction is usually defined as the specification of the time, location, and magnitude of a future earthquake within stated limits.

  • Some evidence of upcoming Earthquake are the following:

    • A drastic decrease in water level in wells

    • Large scale of fluctuation of oil flow from oil wells

    • Foreshocks or minor shocks before major earthquake

    • Discharge of Radon gas

    • Uplifting of earth surface

    • Change in seismic wave velocity

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Manganese’ in India:

  1. It is an important raw material for manufacturing Ferroalloys.

  2. Manganese deposits are mainly associated with Dharwar geological rock system.

  3. Odisha produces the most manganese in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24
  • Manganese is not found as a free element in nature. It is often found in combination with iron. It is an important raw material for smelting iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferroalloys. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • India possesses the second-largest reserves in the world after Zimbabwe and is the fifth-largest producer.

  • Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi, and Bolangir.

  • Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg, a and Tumakuru.

  • Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara, and Ratnagiri districts.

  • Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Consider the following mountain ranges in India:

1. Satpura Range

2. Shiwalik Range

3. Vindhya Range

What is the order of the above ranges from North to South direction?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25
  • Siwalik Range, also called Siwalik Hills or Outer Himalayas, Siwalik also spelled Shiwalik, is the sub- Himalayan range of the northern Indian subcontinent. It extends west-northwestward for more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) from the Tista River in Sikkim state, northeastern India, through Nepal, across northwestern India, and into northern Pakistan. Though only 10 miles (16 km) wide in places, the range has an average elevation of 3,000 to 4,000 feet (900 to 1,200 meters). It rises abruptly from the plain of the Indus and Ganges (Ganga) rivers (south) and parallels the main range of the Himalayas (north), from which it is separated by valleys. The Siwaliks are sometimes considered to include the southern foothills of the Assam Himalayas, which extend eastward for 400 miles (640 km) across southern Bhutan to the bend of the Brahmaputra River. The range proper, to which the name Siwalik (from Sanskrit, meaning “Belonging to [the God] Shiva”) was formerly restricted, is the 200 miles (320 km) of foothills in India extending from the Ganges River at Haridwar, Uttarakhand state, northwestward to the Beas River.
  • Vindhya Range is a broken range of hills forming the southern escarpment of the central upland of India. From Gujarat state on the west, it extends about 675 miles (1,086 km) across Madhya Pradesh state to abut on the Ganges (Ganga) River valley near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. The mountains form the southern edge of the Malwa Plateau and then divide into two branches: the Kaimur Range, running north of the Son River into western Bihar state, and the southern branch, running between the upper reaches of the Son and Narmada rivers to meet the Satpura Range in the Maikala Range (or Amarkantak Plateau).
  • The Satpura Range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the south, generally at an elevation varying between 600-900 m above the mean sea level. This forms the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau. It is a classic example of the relict mountains which are highly denuded and form discontinuous ranges. • Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Which of the following is/are the characteristics of Tropical Evergreen forests ?

1. Found in areas in which Annual rainfall ranges between 200–250 cm

2. Presence of a thick canopy

3. Trees of these forests are restricted to 25 to 60 m in height

Choose the correct Answer :

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Trees in these forests remain green all year round as the region's climate is warm and wet throughout the year. The leaves of these trees do not fall in any particular season. Hence, they are evergreen. These forests are found in areas with more than 200 cm of rainfall and a short dry season. The trees reach a height of up to 60 meters or even more. The dominant plants in these forests are tall, 25-30 meters high, slender trunks that branch only near the tops, forming a dense canopy of leathery evergreen leaves. It has a dense and mixed vegetation of all kinds, including trees, shrubs, climbers, creepers, epiphytes and ferns, giving it a multilayered structure. Therefore, Tropical Evergreen forests Trees are not restricted to 25 to 60 m in height. So, Option (b) is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

As one travels by road from Jammu and Kashmir to Odisha, taking the shortest possible route, which of these geographical features are they most likely to encounter, including those in the origin and destination state ?

1. Karewas

2. Kayals

3. Patland plateaus

4. Mangroves

5. Badlands/Ravines

6. Estuaries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
  • Karewas: During the formation of Pir Panjal range large lakes were formed as rivers were impounded. These lakes continued to receive sediments from rivers. With time water drained away and thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines were left behind. This resulted in formation of lacustrine plains known as Karewas. These are useful for cultivation of Zafran and are of great economic significance to the Kashmir Valley. Option 1 is correct.

  • Kayals: These are backwaters or lagoons formed at the Malabar coast. They are used for fishing, inland navigation, boat racing events, and tourism. Option 2 is incorrect. Patland plateaus: These are lava capped plateaus which have been formed by continuous denudation of high plateaus. They have been reduced from high and extensive plateaus to isolated hills with flat tops with steep slopes. The Peninsular India is made up of series of such plateaus- Hazaribagh plateau, Palamu plateau, Ranchi plateau etc. Option 3 is correct.

  • Mangroves: These are tropical coastal vegetation that grow along the coast in salt marshes, tidal creeks, mud flats and estuaries. These are halophytes, or salt tolerant and have adapted to harsh coastal conditions through salt filtration system, low oxygen requirement and viviparous seeds. In India they are found in Andaman and Nicobar, Suderbans of West Bengal, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Krishna deltas. Option 4 is correct.

  • Badlands/Ravines: These are a type of fluvial erosion. They are formed as a result of constant vertical erosion by streams and rivers flowing over semi-arid and arid regions. The area through which Chambal flows does not receive enough rainfall and has created ravines 60–80m in depth. Option 5 is correct.

  • Estuaries: These are the transition zones between river and marine environment. They have brackish water. They are different from deltas, as deltas are a depositional landmass, while estuaries are water bodies. In India they are usually formed on the Western coast. Option 6 is incorrect.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Arrange the following hills from North to South:

  1. Mishmi hills

  2. Patkai Bum

  3. Lushai Hills

  4. Naga Hills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Eastern Hills or The Purvanchal are the southward extension of Himalayas running along the north-eastern edge of India.

  • At the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sudden southward bend and form a series of comparatively low hills which are collectively called as the Purvanchal.

  • Purvanchal hills are convex to the west.

  • They run along the India-Myanmar Border extending from Arunachal Pradesh in the north to Mizoram in the south.

  • Patkai Bum hills are made up of strong sandstone; elevation varying from 2,000 m to 3,000 m; merges into Naga Hills where Saramati (3,826 m) is the highest peak.

  • Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Myanmar.

  • South of Naga Hills are the Manipur hills which are generally less than 2,500 metres in elevation.

  • The Barail range separates Naga Hills from Manipur Hills.

  • Further south the Barail Range swings to west into Jaintia, Khasi and Garo hills which are an eastward continuation of the Indian peninsular block. They are separated from the main block by Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

  • South of the Manipur Hills are the Mizo Hills (previously known as the Lushai hills) which have an elevation of less than 1,500 metres. The highest point is the Blue Mountain (2,157 m) in the south.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to laterite soil:

  1. They generally form in hot and humid climatic conditions.

  2. The pebbly crust is an important feature of the laterites.

  3. Such soils are rich in silica.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29
  • The laterite soils are commonly found in the area of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Orissa, Assam and Meghalaya extending over 13 million hectares. They generally form under hot and humid climatic conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The lateritic soils are particularly found on high flat erosion surfaces in areas of high and seasonal rainfall. Loss of nutrients by accelerated leaching is the most common feature which renders the soil infertile. The pebbly crust is the important feature of laterites which is formed due to alteration of wet and dry periods. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • As a result of weathering, laterite becomes extremely hard. Thus, their characteristics include complete chemical decomposition of the parent rock, complete leaching of silica, a reddish-brown colour given by the oxides of aluminium and iron and lack of humus. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • The crops which are generally grown are rice, millets, sugarcane on lowland and tropical plantation such as rubber, coffee and tea on uplands.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the world's average sex ratio there are more females per thousand males in the world.

  2. More than half of the countries in the world exhibit a better sex ratio for women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30
  • The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic. The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio.

  • It is calculated as the number of males per thousand females in many countries. In India, it is calculated as number of females per thousand males.

  • As per the UN (World Population Prospects 2019) the sex ratio of the world is approximately 1016 males per 1000 females. Hence, the world's sex ratio is not favourable to females. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Around 125 countries have more females per thousand males. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Qatar has the world's worst sex ratio while Nepal has the world's best sex ratio. In 2020, male to female ratio for Nepal was 84.55 males per 100 females. Sex ratio at birth (male births per female births) in Qatar was reported at 1.045 in 2019.

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