Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

Let savings in N.S.C and P.P.F. be Rs. x and Rs. (150000 - x) respectively. Then,

Savings in Public Provident Fund = Rs. (150000 - 90000) = Rs. 60000

Explanation:

Let the number of wickets taken by Srinath be x then the number of wickets taken by Kumble will be 2x−3
According to question, x(2x−3)=20

x² - ix + 6 = 0
x² - 3ix + 2ix - 6i² = 0    { i² = -1}
x(x-3i) + 2i(x-3i) = 0
(x+2i) (x-3i) = 0
x = -2i, 3i 

{(1 + i)/(1 - i)}ⁿ = 1
multiply (1 + i) numerator as well as denominator .
{(1 + i)(1 + i)/(1 - i)(1 + i)}ⁿ = 1
{(1 + i)²/(1² - (i)²)}ⁿ = 1
{(1 + i² +2i)/2 }ⁿ = 1
{(2i)/2}ⁿ = 1
{i}ⁿ = 1
we know, i⁴ⁿ = 1 where , n is an integer.
so, n = 4n where n is an integers
e.g n = 4 { because least positive integer 1 }
hence, n = 4

Correct Answer :- c

Explanation : D(father of A and B)

(A’s brother)B—-A(father of F and C)—-E(A’s wife)

F—-C(sister of F)

N = 7+2 =9
3n = 27
27/7 = 6

2*3*5*7*11*13*17 = 510510

(5 x 3) + 4 = 19

and (6 x 4) + 5 = 29

Therefore, (7 x 5) + 6 = 41

C occurs at: 03 ;23 ;24 ;33 ;42 ;
A occurs at: 02 ;04 ;10 ;31 ;41 ;
G occurs at: 58 ;65 ;66 ;68 ;85 ;
E occurs at: 69 ;77 ;78 ;86 ;97 ;

Change in total weight of 10 students = difference in weight of the student who joined and the student

=> weigth of first student who left = 30 + (10×2) = 50

weight of the student who joined last = 50 – 10 = 40...
Thus change in average weight = (40 – 30)/10 = 1...
 

Let salary of A last year be Rs. 3s.
Salary of B last year = Rs. 4s
Let present salary of A be Rs. A and that of B be Rs. B.
So, 3s/A = 4/5 or A = 15s/4
4s/B = 2/3 or B = 6s
So, adding up the present salaries, we get (15s/4) + 6s = 4160
Or, s = 426.667
Present salary of A = Rs. A = Rs. (15/4)s = Rs. (15/4) × 426.667 = Rs. 1600
Thus, answer option (2) is correct.

Suppose the shares of A, B and C are Rs. 2x, Rs. 3x and Rs. 4x, respectively.
When C gives Rs. 20 to B:
Amount with C = Rs. (4x - 20) and amount with B = (Rs. 3x + 20)
Now, B gives half of his amount to A.
Amount with A = Rs.

According to the question,

Or 4x + 3x + 20 = 8x - 40 or x = 60
Hence, total sum of money = Rs. (2x + 3x + 4x)
= Rs. 9x = Rs. (9 × 60) = Rs. 540

Volume of water displaced by 150 men = 150 × 8 = 1200 m3
Let the rise in water level be x.
90 × 40 × x = 1200
⇒ x = 12/36 = 1/3 or 0.33 m = 33.33 cm (Approx.)

• In Context: The La Nina is being blamed this year for worsening the longest spell of heat waves in north, west and Central India.

• Statement 1 is not correct: El-Nino: It leads to warming in surface temperature of the eastern Pacific Ocean region. This is associated with an increase in rainfall along the western coast of South America and a decrease in rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. It also leads to westerly winds, instead of the generally occurring easterly winds.

• Statement 2 is correct: La-Nina: It is the reverse phenomenon of El-Nino. The temperatures over the eastern Pacific Ocean increases, along with a decrease in rainfall. Also, the rainfall over the Indian subcontinent increases, along with augmentation of the strength of surface-level easterly winds. El-Nino causes higher temperatures and lesser rainfall over the Indian subcontinent, during the monsoon season. On the other hand, la-Nina increases the rainfall and decreases the temperature. Therefore, it is the La-Nina which is (ironically!) much warmly welcomed in the Indian subcontinent. While El-Nino leads to drought events in the subcontinent, La-Nina is primarily associated with flood events. These disasters affect the socio-economic status of the affected communities.

• The National Pension Scheme is a social security initiative by the Central Government. Earlier, the NPS scheme covered only the Central Government employees. Now, however, the PFRDA has made it open to all Indian citizens on a voluntary basis. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• NPS scheme holds immense value for anyone who works in the private sector and requires a regular pension after retirement.

• NRI can open an NPS account. Contributions made by NRI are subject to regulatory requirements as prescribed by RBI and FEMA from time to time. However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and HUFs are not eligible for the opening of an NPS account. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• NPS account can be opened only in an individual capacity and cannot be opened or operated jointly or for and on behalf of HUF.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was

announced in 2003 with the objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of

affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality

medical education in the country. PMSSY has two components:-

1. Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions

2. Upgradation of Government Medical College(GMC)/ Institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: The nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Patenting in India

• A patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an invention, which may be a product or process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem.

• Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970.

• India became a party to the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.

• India is also a signatory to several IPR-related conventions including:

  • The Berne Convention which governs copyright,

  • The Budapest Treaty,

  • The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property ○ The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) governs various patent-related matters.

The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) together with its sister Covenant, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), and the Universal Declaration, form the International Bill of Human Rights which is the pillar for human rights protection within the United Nations.

• Universal Declaration on Human Rights (a non-legally binding document) was adopted in 1948.

• In 1966, two separate treaties, covering almost entirely all the rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights were adopted after approximately 20 years of negotiations ICESCR is an international human rights treaty, it creates legally binding international obligations to those States that have agreed to be bound by the standards contained in it. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights is the supervisory body of the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights. It was established under United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) Resolution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:

• The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. To implement all the directive principles the newly formed independent state would require an enormous amount of financial resources and this would be a challenge to the country. Keeping in this regard they were made non-justiciable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. The directive principles are so diverse in character and constitutional makers felt that making them justiciable may create obstacles for the newly independent country as some of the directive principles like the Uniform Civil Code were opposed by some communities. They wanted to give the state sufficient time and a place of choosing to India's future leaders implement them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable will be meaningless. Hence statement 3 is not correct as making Directive Principles justiciable will not be meaningless and in fact making them justiciable can create a socially just and egalitarian society. They were not made justiciable for the above two reasons.

• The Constitution makers, therefore, taking a pragmatic view, refrained from giving teeth to these principles. They believed more in an awakened public opinion rather than in court procedures as the ultimate sanction for the fulfilment of these principles.

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

• Admission or establishment of new states. Hence option 1 is correct.

• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.

• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

• Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.

• Quorum in Parliament.

• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.

• Rules of procedure in Parliament.

• Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.

• Use of English language in Parliament.

• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.

• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court. Hence option 4 is correct.

• Use of official language. Hence option 2 is correct.

• Citizenship–acquisition and termination.

• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. Hence option 3 is correct.

• Delimitation of constituencies.

• Union territories.

• Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

• Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.

- 1. Residence for Employment: Parliament can prescribe residence within a state as a condition for certain public employment to ensure local representation.

- 2. Special Benefits:This refers to a scenario where a state grants special benefits or privileges to its residents that are not available to citizens uniformly across the country.

- 3. Scheduled Tribes' Protection: The Constitution allows special measures for Scheduled Tribes to protect their interests, acknowledging their unique socio-economic status.

Thus, all three scenarios allow for permissible discrimination as per constitutional provisions.

• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.

• If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Additional Information:

  • National Emergency: National emergency can be declared on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type.

  • Grounds of declaration: Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

  • The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression

• Parliamentary approval and duration

  • The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

  • Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority.

• Effects of national emergency

  • A proclamation of Emergency has drastic and wide-ranging effects on the political system. These consequences can be grouped into 3 categories:

  • Effects on the centre-state relations: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. this can be studied under three heads:

  • Executive: Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter

  • Legislative: The parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list, the president can issue ordinances on State subjects also, if the parliament is not in session. The laws made on state subjects by the parliament become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to be in operation.

  • Financial: the president can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states

• Effect on the life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly:

  • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond the normal term for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Similarly, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly by one year each time during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Effect on fundamental rights: Articles 358 and 359 describes the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. These two provisions are explained below:

    (i) Suspension of Fundamental rights under Article 19: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.

    (ii) The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed rebellion.

• Suspension of other Fundamental Rights: Under Article 359, the President is authorised to suspend, by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. Thus, remedial measures are suspended and not the Fundamental Rights.

• The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order.

• The suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period.

• The Order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.

• The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.

• The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) proved to signify the beginning of the end of Mughal rule in India. It is argued that Aurangzeb’s misguided policies weakened the stability of the state and the decline gained momentum after his death due to wars of succession and weak rulers. Though Muhammad Shah ruled for a long spell of 29 years (1719-48), a revival of the imperial fortunes did not take place as he was an incompetent ruler.

Muhammad Shah’s reign witnessed the establishment of the independent states of

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Bengal

(3) Awadh

(4) Punjab

• Statement 1 is correct: Bahadur Shah I was the seventh Mughal emperor of India, ruled from 1707 until his death in 1712. He adopted a pacific policy with the Marathas, the Rajputs and the Jats. Shahu, the Maratha prince, was released from Mughal captivity, and Rajput chiefs were confirmed in their respective states. However, the Sikh leader Banda Bahadur attacked the Muslims in Punjab and hence the emperor took action against him. Bahadur Shah I died in February 1712.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Death of Bahadur Shah I plunged the Mughal empire into a civil war. Jahandar Shah, son of Bahadur Shah, ascended the throne in 1712 with help from Zulfikar Khan. Zulfikar Khan was appointed prime minister. Jahandar Shah (not Bahadur Shah I) introduced izara system to improve the financial condition of the empire.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: After killing Jahandar Shah with the help of Sayyid brothers- Abdulla Khan and Hussain Ali (known as ‘King Makers’), Farrukhsiyar became the new emperor. He followed a policy of religious tolerance by abolishing Jaziya and pilgrimage tax.

• Statement 1 is correct: The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations. The Convention on International Civil Aviation (also known as the Chicago Convention), drafted in 1944 by 54 nations established the core principles permitting international transport by air and led to the creation of ICAO.

• Statement 2 is not correct: It is not an international aviation regulator.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhr(a) in 1605. They went on to establish trading centres at different parts of India and thus became a threat to the Portuguese.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Dutch captured Nagapatam near Madras (Chennai) from the Portuguese and made it their main stronghold in South India.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Dutch carried indigo manufactured in the Yamuna valley and Central India, textiles and silk from Bengal, Gujarat and the Coromandel, saltpetre from Bihar and opium and rice from the Ganga valley.

• The Dutch established factories on the Coromandel coast, in Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal and Bihar. In 1609, they opened a factory in Pulicat, north of Madras. Their other principal factories in India were at Surat (1616), Bimlipatam (1641), Karaikal (1645), Chinsura (1653),

• Baranagar, Kasimbazar (near Murshidaba(d), Balasore, Patna, Nagapatam (1658) and Cochin (1663). Participating in the redistributive or carrying trade, they brought to the islands of the Far East various articles and merchandise from India.

• The Congress was in a confused state again after the August Offer. The radicals and leftists wanted to launch a mass Civil Disobedience Movement, but here Gandhi insisted on Individual or Limited Satyagraha. The Limited Satyagraha was not to seek independence but to affirm the right of speech.

• The other reason of this Limited Satyagraha was that a mass movement may turn violent and he would not like to see the Great Britain embarrassed by such a situation. This view was conveyed to Lord Linlithgow by Gandhi when he met him on September 27, 1940. The non-violence was set as the centerpiece of Limited Satyagraha. This was done by carefully selecting the Satyagrahis.

• The first Satyagrahi selected was Acharya Vinoba Bhave, who was sent to Jail when he spoke against the war. Second Satyagrahi was Jawahar Lal Nehru. Third was Brahma Datt, one of the inmates of the Gandhi’s Ashram.