Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

• The annual session of Indian National Congress in 1906 was organised in Calcutta. During this time the rift between the extremists and the moderates was growing, differences regarding the pace of the movement and the techniques of struggle to be adopted during the Swadeshi Movement were becoming stark. During this session both sides wanted their leaders to be elected as the President of the Congress, ultimately Dadabhai Naoroji (the grand old man of India) emerged as a compromise.

• As the President of the Congress, in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji laid down the goal of the national movement as “self-government or Swaraj,” on lines of self-governing colonies (Canada and Australia) of the British Empire. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• To prevent the split within Congress four resolutions on the Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and Self-Government demands were passed during 1906 Calcutta session. Though election of Dadabhai Naoroji as the President and passage of the above four resolution prevented immediate split of Congress, but it inevitably took place a year later during 1907 annual session at Surat, which was presided over by Rash Behari Bose. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Indian national Congress was formally established when 72 delegates from all over the country met at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay in 1885.

• Retired British Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer Allan Octavian Hume is considered the founder of the Indian National Congress. One of the main aims of Hume in helping to found the National Congress was to provide an outlet—'a safety valve’—to the increasing popular discontent against British rule.

• It was initially aimed as a platform for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians.

• The prominent among those were Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, Badruddin Tyabji, W C Bonnerji, S. Subramanya Iyer, R C Dutt.

• The aims of the National Congress were declared to be the:

  • promotion of friendly relations between nationalist political workers from different parts of the country

  • development and consolidation of the feeling of national unity irrespective of caste, religion, or province. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • formulation of popular demands and their presentation before the Government

  • training and organization of public opinion in the country.

• Gradually the objectives start getting the concrete shape reflected in various resolutions adopted at congress sessions. The demands made by Congress can be categorized as follows:

  • Civil Rights: The Congress leaders realized the value of freedom of speech and press, the right to organize processions, meetings and similar other rights.

  • Administrative: The Congress leaders urged the government to remove certain administrative abuses and run public welfare measures. They put emphasis on the appointment of Indians in government services. Specific proposals were made to open agricultural banks for the relief of peasantry.

  • Constitutional: The demands made by the early Congress leaders were: to increase the power of legislative councils; to include elected Indian representatives.

  • Economic: In the economic sphere, Congress blamed the wrong policies of the British that resulted in rising property and economic repression of the Indian people. Certain specific suggestions were proposed for the economic improvement of the country. These included the introduction of modern industry, Indianization of public services, abolition of salt tax etc. Hence option 3 is correct.

• INC took up those grievances and fought for those rights which Indians had in common in relation to the rulers. For the same reason the Congress was not to take up questions of social reform. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

• In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects. In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started Sanskrit College at Varanasi where he was the resident for the study of Hindu Law and Philosophy. Both these institutions were designed to provide a regular supply of qualified Indians to help the administration of law in the courts of the company.

• In 1784, Asiatic Society of Bengal was set up by Sir William Jones. It was set up to encourage oriental studies as Sir Jones was a British Lawyer and an orientalist himself.

• In 1800, Lord Wellesley established College of Fort William at Calcutta for the education of young recruits to the civil service. The Directors of the Company disapproved his action and in 1806 replaced it by their own East Indian College at Haileybury in England.

• In 1857, University of Calcutta was established based on the recommendations of the Secretary of State’s Educational Despatch of 1854.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Giuseppe Garibaldi was one of the key leaders in the unification of Italy. He was a skilled military leader and played a significant role in the Italian unification movement. Garibaldi's efforts, along with other leaders like Camillo di Cavour, contributed to the formation of a unified Italian state.

Austria initially opposed the unification of Italy due to its own interests in the Italian peninsula. Austria controlled several territories in Italy and saw the Italian unification movement as a threat to its influence in the region.

Kingdom of Lombardy-Venetia was annexed by the Kingdom of Sardinia during the unification process. The territory of Lombardy-Venetia was acquired after the Second Italian War of Independence in 1859.

The Iranian civilization predominantly corresponds to modern-day Iran, which was historically known as Persia.

Ferdinand Magellan, a Portuguese explorer, led the first expedition that successfully circumnavigated the Earth from 1519 to 1522. Although Magellan did not complete the journey himself, he set out on a mission to find a western route to the Spice Islands, and his crew completed the circumnavigation after his death.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely.

Statement 2 is correct. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament. President’s rule can be extended till three years beyond which a Constitutional Amendment is needed for the emergency to continue.

Federal Government means establishing dual government with clear separation of power. However in India a strong centre is provided by giving more sets of power to the centre as compared to the states.

Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament is empowered to ‘form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States’. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralized system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralized. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.

Statement 3 is correct. Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.

Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission decides the basis on which constituencies are reserved for SC and ST candidates as well as declares which of the constituencies would be reserved.

A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State. After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for ST. In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the

Delimitation exercise is undertaken Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country.

Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India i.e. executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states i.e. executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities i.e. municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities i.e. statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.

Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.

According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. High Court does not comes under article 12 of Indian constitution.

Parliament is not bound by the recommendations of committees. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Types of parliamentary committees:

1. Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds:

• Standing Committees: They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

• Ad Hoc Committees: They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. For instance, to deliberate on a particular bill.

2. Referring bill to the committee:

• Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill to a Committee.

• In some Parliamentary systems like the UK, all Bills other than Money Bills are automatically referred to Committees.

• However, in India, it depends on the decision of the Speaker or Chairman, in consultation with the Minister putting forth the Bill, whether a Bill should be referred to a Committee.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

M x N → M is the mother of N

N % S → N is the wife of S

and S + T → is the father of T.

Hence, M is the maternal grandmother of T.

The man in the photo is the son of the sister of Bajpai. Hence, Bajpai is the maternal uncle of the man in the photograph.

Suppose their paths cross after x minutes.

Then, 11 + 57x = 51 - 63x    ⇔    120x = 40

x =1/3

Number of floors covered by David in (1/3) min. =((1/3)x 57)= 19

So, their paths cross at (11+19) i.e., 30^th floor.

X+(1/X) = 2 ;

(X^2+ 1)/ X = 2 ;

X^2+1 = 2X ;

X^2 - 2X + 1= 0 ;

By factorisation method ,

X = 1 ;

Now substitute X= 1 in X +(-1/X) ;

we get , 1 - 1/1 = 0 ;

Therefore , X = 0 ;

Avg of 7 no= (7+1)/2 = 8/2 = 4
Avg of 9 no = (9+1)/2 = 5
5- 4 = 1
Hence increased by 1

Runs scored by Kohli in first 4 innings = 48*4 = 192
Average of 5 innings is 60, so total runs scored after 5 innings = 60*5 = 300
Hence runs scored by Kohli in fifth inning = 300 – 192 = 108
It is given that in 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than this, so he must score 120 in the sixth inning. Hence total runs scored in 6 innings = 300+120 = 420
Now average of last five innings is 78, so runs scored in last innings = 390
Hence runs scored in first inning = 420 – 390 = 30.

Let the score of Om =x
Total marks of all the students = 21*62 +x
As per the question, The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev,
Or (21*62 +x)/22 -1 = (21*62 +x – 82.5)/21
(21*62 + x -22)/22 = (21*62 +x – 82.5)/21. Therefore, x =51

Correct option is C
Time taken by first sprinter 
= 100/10 = 10sec
Time taken by second sprinter 
= 100/80 = 12.5sec
Difference = 12.5 - 10 = 2.5 sec

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In December 1999, the Parliament had passed the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This Act seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India. It confers legal protection to Geographical Indications in India and prevents unauthorised use of a Registered Geographical Indication by others.The Act would be administered by the ‘Controller General of Patents, Designs and TradeMarks’ - who is the Registrar of Geographical Indications.

• Statement 2 is correct: GIs have been defined under Article 22(1) of the WTO Agreement of TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement as: "Indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a member, or a region or a locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin." Thus, GI tag is internationally recognised. Some recent GI tags are - Kandhamal Haldi (Odisha), Rasagola (Odisha), Sirsi Supari (Karnataka), Erode Turmeric (Tamil Nadu), Marayoor Jaggery (Tamil Nadu), Shahi Litchi (Bihar) etc.

Jog Falls project suffers setback as Centre asks Karnataka about impact assessment.

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct : Jog Falls is created by the Sharavathi River falling from a height of 253 m (830 ft), making it the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.

  It is also called by alternative names of Gerusoppa falls, Gersoppa Falls and Jogada Gundi.

• Statement 3 is not correct : Located near Sagara, Shimoga District of Karnataka state.

• Statement 1 is correct. UNSDF 2018-2022 outlines development cooperation strategy between Union Government and United Nations Country Team in India in support of achievement of India’s key national development priorities and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• Statement 2 is correct. The programmatic work outlined in the UNSDF targets the seven low- income states (Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, MP, Odisha, Rajasthan, UP), the North-East region, and the aspirational districts identified earlier this year by the NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog and United Nations in India signed the Sustainable Development Framework for 2018-2022 at a function in New Delhi. It was framed following highly participative process, in consultation with government entities, civil society representatives, academia, and the private sector. Focus areas include poverty and urbanization, health, water, and sanitation, education, climate change, nutrition and food security, clean energy, and disaster resilience; skilling, entrepreneurship, job creation, gender equality and youth development. UNSDF also includes set of UN flagship programs that are aligned with major government schemes. These flagship programs will be scalable innovative, multi-sectoral solutions to some of the most pressing development challenges that India faces and also serve as catalysts for increased investment of development finance. UNSDF programmes range from affordable housing for poor to increasing access to clean energy in rural off-grid areas, protecting all children from vaccine-preventable diseases, providing quality education for all children and skilling for young people, especially young girls and ending stunting to improving child sex ratio.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Rice: It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our country is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China. It is a kharif crop which requires high temperature (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation. Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Wheat: This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in north and north-western part of the country. This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan.

• Statement 1 is correct. Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission has included the on-going centrally sponsored schemes - Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme under its ambit.

• Statement 2 is correct. Ayushman Bharat is a National Health Protection Scheme which covers over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage upto 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. Statement 3 is correct. Benefits of the scheme are portable across the country and a beneficiary covered under the scheme is allowed to take cashless benefits from any public/private enlisted hospitals across the country.

• Salient features of Ayushman Bharat include: Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission will be an entitlement-based scheme with entitlement decided on the basis of deprivation criteria in the SECC database.

• The beneficiaries can avail benefits in both public and empanelled private facilities.

• To control costs, the payments for treatment will be done on package rate (to be defined by the Government in advance) basis. One of the core principles of Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission is to cooperative federalism and flexibility to states.

• For giving policy directions and fostering coordination between the Centre and States, it is proposed to set up Ayushman Bharat National Health Protection Mission Council (AB- NHPMC) at apex level Chaired by Union Health and Family Welfare Minister. States would need to have State Health Agency (SHA) to implement the scheme.

• To ensure that the funds reach SHA on time, the transfer of funds from Central Government through Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission to State Health Agencies may be done through an escrow account directly. In partnership with NITI Ayog, a robust, modular, scalable and interoperable IT platform will be made operational which will entail a paperless, cashless transaction.

• Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. Government e Marketplace is the National Public Procurement Portal offering an online, end-to-end solution for procurement of common use goods and services by government departments. GeM provides an open, inclusive, transparent and efficient online marketplace.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. It is used by Central and State Government Ministries and Departments, Central and State Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs & SPSUs), autonomous institutions and local bodies. The National Mission on GeM (NMG) was launched on 5th September 2018 till 17^th October 2018. The objective of the Mission was to accelerate the adoption and use of Procurement by Major Central Ministries, States and UTs and their agencies (including CPSUs/PSUs, Local Bodies) on the GeM platform. The objectives GeM are: Promote inclusiveness by catapulting various categories of sellers and service providers Highlight and communicate the ‘value addition’ by way of transparency and efficiency in public procurement, including corruption free governance. Achieve cashless, contactless and paperless transaction in line with Digital India objectives. Increase overall efficiency leading to significant cost savings on government expenditure in Procurement. Maximizing ease in availability of all types of products and services bought by the Government.

• Statement 1 is correct. The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons. By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low-pressure trough of the Ganga plain starts moving southward in response to the southward movement of the sun. By the beginning of October, the low pressure covers northern parts of the Bay of Bengal and by early November, it moves over Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. By the middle of December, the centre of low pressure is completely removed from the Peninsula. The retreating Southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months of the year. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 3 is correct because during the winter monsoon or retreating monsoon, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from Northeast to South and southwest, takes place.

  So, option B is correct.

Coastlines of Submergence:

Ria Coast: During the Ice Age a great deal of water was locked up in ice. The warmer climate that followed melted much of the ice. Subsequently there was an increase in the waters of the oceans and the sea level rose appreciably.

In some cases it is estimated that there was a rise of almost 300 feet! In upland coastal regions where the mountains run at right angles to the sea, that is transverse or discordant to the coast, a rise in the sea level submerges or drowns the lower parts of the valleys to form long, narrow branching inlets separated by narrow head­lands.

Statement 1 is incorrect. They differ from fiords in two important respects, i.e. they are not glaciated, and their depth increases seawards. A Ria coast is typical of the Atlantic type of coast like those of north-west France, north-west Spain, south-west Ireland, Devon and Cornwall. As Rias are generally backed by highland, they support few large commercial ports though they have deep water and offer sheltered anchorage. They have been

extensively used for siting fishing ports and naval bases such as Plymouth and Brest.

Fiord Coast: Fiords are submerged U-shaped glacial troughs. They mark the paths of glaciers that plunged down from the highlands. They have steep walls, often rising straight from the sea, with tributary branches joining the main inlet at right angles.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the greater intensity of ice erosion fiords are deep for great distances inland but there is a shallow section at the seaward end formed by a ridge of rock and called the threshold. Off the fiord coast are numerous islands or skerries which, with the shallow thresholds, sometimes only 200 feet deep, complicate coastal navigation. Fiord coasts are almost entirely confined to the higher latitudes of the temperate regions which

were once glaciated e.g. Norway, Alaska, British Columbia, southern Chile and the South Island of New Zealand.

Some of the large fiords are extremely long and deep. For example, the Sogne Fiord of Norway is 110 miles long, 4 miles wide and almost 4,000 feet deep in its mid-channel. Despite their deep and sheltered water, few large ports are located in fiords. Their mountainous background with poor accessibility inland, attract few settlements.

Agriculture is confined to the deltaic fans, built up where streams flow down to the fjords. The few towns that exist either as fishing or market centres e.g. Trondheim, are only of local importance.