Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

The Maldives has formally requested India's troop withdrawal by March 15, 2024. This request signifies a potential shift in the Maldives' foreign policy, particularly under the current administration, which has shown a pro-China stance.

The Himalayan Wolf has been newly assessed and classified as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List. This classification is a concern for conservationists, as the population is threatened by habitat loss and illegal hunting.

Manoj Kumar, the CMD of Vekoli, was honored with the IMMA Lifetime Achievement Award, recognizing his significant contributions to the industry.

The theme for Indian Army Day 2024 is "In Service of the Nation," which aligns with the Army's motto of prioritizing national service over personal interests, emphasizing the dedication of soldiers to the country.

The British Museum opened its doors in 1759. It was the first public museum in the world and has since become a major center for historical artifacts and cultural heritage.

On January 15, 1949, Lieutenant General K. M. Cariappa took command of the Indian Army, marking a pivotal moment in India's military history as he was the first Indian to do so after independence.

The 2024 World Economic Forum Annual Meeting in Davos focuses on 'Rebuilding Trust' and includes discussions on pressing global issues such as climate change, conflicts, and misinformation, reflecting the challenges faced by nations today.

Ayodhya's Hanuman Garhi Besan Ladoo received GI Tag recognition, which protects the product's unique identity and signifies its geographical origin, thus promoting local cuisine.

Cyclone Alvaro was the first cyclone to hit Madagascar in 2024. Such natural disasters often have significant impacts on local communities and ecosystems.

Maharashtra declared a new Atpadi Conservation Reserve in Sangli district in January 2024, highlighting the state's commitment to biodiversity and environmental conservation.

The three Indian ministers participating in the WEF Davos meeting are Smriti Irani, Ashwini Vaishnaw, and Hardeep Puri. Their presence underscores India's active role in global economic discussions.

The estimated population of the Himalayan Wolf is between 2,275 and 3,792 mature adults. This decline in numbers highlights the urgent need for conservation efforts to protect their habitats.

The 'PRASADAM' food street initiative aims to enhance tourism at pilgrimage sites by offering diverse culinary experiences, thus attracting visitors and promoting local culture.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 10th Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit, which serves as a platform for global business leaders to explore investment opportunities in India.

• Transfer payments is the payment by the government in grants, allowances, pensions etc., to people such as pensioners, widows, sick or unemployed people or others with little or no income. 
• Transfer payment doesn’t involve returning any productive service from the beneficiaries to the government. A transfer payment is a one-way payment to a person or organization that has been given. It is a type of public expenditure made for purposes other than procuring goods and services. 
• Some of the transfer payments include Social Security benefits, unemployment allowances for youth, welfare payments, government subsidies for certain businesses, and scholarships for students. Salaries to government employees do not come under transfer payments because payment is being made for the service provided by the employees. 
• So, Statement (d) is correct.

• Countervailing duty (CVD) is a specific duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies. CVD is an import tax by the importing country on imported products, which is considered a country-specific duty. For example, export subsidies given by the Chinese government will make Chinese products low-priced in the Indian market. This will be a disadvantage for the competing Indian products. To overcome this situation, the government of India can impose a countervailing duty on Chinese imports. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Dumping occurs when a country exports goods to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice that can have a distortive effect on international trade. Antidumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising from the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, antidumping duty aims to rectify the distortive trade effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade. Anti-dumping and anti-subsidy duties are levied against exporter/country as much as they are country- specific and exporter specific. The WTO permits using antidumping measures as an instrument of fair competition. It provides relief to the domestic industry against the injury caused by dumping. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Safeguard duty is levied irrespective of the country to protect domestic industry temporarily from the surge of cheap imports. As per section 8B(1) of the Customs Tariff Act, safeguard duty is imposed to protect the interests of any domestic industry in India, and it is product specific. This aspect distinguishes Safeguards from antidumping and anti-subsidy measures, which are always country-specific and exporter specific. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Operation Twist is a monetary policy of the central banks used to bring down interest rates and control investments in a country. Under this operation, the RBI twisted the yield of government securities to bring liquidity into the markets. If the interest rate is low, then the money circulation increases, that leads to increase in purchasing power of people which will lead to more import, whereby it shall not reduce the current account deficit. So, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• The repo rate is used by the central bank of India to control the supply of money in the Indian market. A higher repo rate helps reduce the borrowing power of commercial banks, which, in turn, reduces the cash flow in the market, thereby reducing the purchasing power of consumers. This has a positive impact on the reduction of the Current Account deficit. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Export subsidies are government payments to exporters to help them develop new sales markets or sell surpluses on the world market to keep the domestic market price stable. A government providing export incentives/ subsidies often does so to keep domestic products competitive in the global market. Reducing the export subsidy reduces a country's exports on the world market, which does not help in the reduction of the current account deficit. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• Import duties have two distinct purposes: to raise local government income and give a market advantage to locally grown or produced goods that are not subject to import duties. Increasing the import duty would lead to an increase in imports, leading to a low current account deficit. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) gives the picture from the consumers' angle or demand perspective. In contrast, the GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the producers' perspective or the supply side. So, Option (a) is correct. It is the total value of GDP which is higher comparing the value of GVP and not the opposite. GDP = (GVA) + (Taxes earned by the government) — (Subsidies provided by the government). So, Option (b) is not correct. 
• In situations where the GDP fails to measure the real economic scenario, the Gross Value Added (GVA) is a better gauge. Many economists consider GVA to be a more important indicator of the economy's progress than the GDP. In fact, even the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the GVA data to decide the economy's future outlook. So, Option (c) is not correct. It is GVA at basic price and not factor cost that is calculated and used as Gross Value Added (GVA) parameter to measure the economic growth. So, Option (d) is not correct.

• Fiscal policy is the policy under which the government uses the instrument of taxation, public spending and public borrowing to achieve various economic policy objectives. Simply put, it is the government spending and taxation policy to achieve sustainable growth. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank. It involves the management of the money supply and interest rate. It is the demand side economic policy used by the government of a country to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption, growth and liquidity. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• The increase in government expenditure is likely to cause a crowding-out effect on the economy. The crowding-out effect theory suggests that rising public-sector spending drives down private-sector spending. To spend more, the government needs more revenue, which it gets through higher taxes or sales of Treasuries. Increased government spending can lead to inflation. To keep inflation under control, the Central Bank raised the repo rate, increasing the cost of borrowing for the private sector. This can reduce private sector income and loan demand, thus decreasing spending and borrowing. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Lab-grown diamonds are diamonds produced using specific technology that mimics the geological processes that lead to the formation of natural diamonds. They are not the same as “diamond simulants.” Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are chemically, physically and optically diamonds and thus are difficult to identify as “lab-grown.” The lab-grown diamond is produced using 100% renewable electricity, i.e., renewable energy is used during the lab-grown diamond synthesis and the final cutting and polishing. LGDs have a lower carbon footprint compared to natural diamonds. The total carbon footprint is 8.17 kg CO2e per grown, cut, and a polished 1-carat lab-grown diamond. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are manufactured in laboratories with either of the two methods — chemical vapor deposition (CVD) or high pressure, high temperature (HPHT) using a chemical composition. Lab- grown diamonds (LGDs) take less than a month to make a distinctively-shaped crystal. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• While materials such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, (Yttrium Aluminium Garnet) YAG, etc. are “diamond simulants” that attempt to “look” like a diamond, they lack the sparkle and durability of a diamond and are thus easily identifiable. A diamond simulant, diamond imitation or imitation diamond is an object or material with gemological characteristics similar to a diamond. Simulants are distinct from synthetic diamonds, which are actual diamonds exhibiting the same material properties as natural diamonds. However, differentiating between an LGD and an Earth Mined Diamond is hard, with advanced equipment required. The only difference between lab-grown and natural diamonds is that lab-grown diamonds are created synthetically in laboratories, while natural ones are mined from the earth. LGDs have physical and optical properties similar to that of natural diamonds. A common eye can’t distinguish between a natural diamond and an LGD, requiring a trained gemologist and sophisticated equipment to differentiate the two. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are Pure synthetic diamonds with high thermal conductivity but negligible electrical conductivity. Therefore, Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) have high thermal conductivity. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

• Vidyanjali (School Volunteer Programme) is an initiative led by the Ministry of Education (Shiksha Mantralay) to provide students with non-educational practices (through volunteers). This initiative would connect school students with varied volunteers from the Indian diaspora, namely (but not limited to) Retired teachers, Retired Government officials, Retired professional women etc. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Vidyanjali aims to strengthen Schools through community and private sector involvement in schools across the country. Apart from enabling mentors to directly interact with institutions and impart relevant knowledge and skill set, the Vidyanjali platform also allows the volunteers/citizens/alumni etc., to contribute services at schools and their management through various categories of contribution, namely ICT, Construction, school facilities like furniture, amenities etc. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• At 3,000 sq miles, Lake Titicaca is the largest freshwater lake in the Andes mountains on the border of Bolivia and Peru. There are more than 40 floating islands sprinkled across it. It is often called the highest navigable lake in the world. Lake Baikal freezes during winter rendering it impassable. Besides the poles, the Atacama desert is the driest place in the world. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Poles are the driest places on the earth. Other than the poles, The Atacama is the driest place on earth. It receives less than 1 mm of precipitation each year, and some areas haven't seen a drop of rain in more than 500 years. The Poles, mainly Antarctica, are dry because cold air can hold less water vapor than warm air exponentially, which is why heavy snowfall occurs when temperatures are closer to freezing than extremely cold. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Government of India has established National Water Mission as one of the eight National Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change. The Mission will consider the provisions of the National Water Policy and develop a framework to optimize water use by increasing water use efficiency by 20% through regulatory mechanisms with differential entitlements and pricing. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is not a part of the National Water Mission, whereby its vision is to provide a tap water supply to every rural household by 2024. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti is responsible for the implementation of this project. So, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) (not the Bureau of Energy Efficiency) has been set up for the promotion, regulation and control of efficient use of water in irrigation, industrial and domestic sectors. The Bureau will be a facilitator for the promotion of improving water use efficiency across various sectors, namely irrigation, drinking water supply, power generation, industries, etc., in the country. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act 2001, with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Cryptocurrency:

• It is a digital currency that can be used in place of conventional money.

• In cryptocurrencies, cryptography is used to secure and verify transactions. It is also used to control the supply of cryptocurrencies. It is supported by a decentralised peer-to-peer network called the blockchain. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The first cryptocurrency: Bitcoin, was launched in 2009 by Satoshi Nakamoto.

• Cheaper to transfer:

  • Some coins are used to transfer value (measured in a currency like dollars) cheaper and faster than using credit or conventional means.

  • Meaning the cost to send someone crypto, which can be converted into regular currency, is cheaper than something like a check or wire transfer. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Challenges:

  • Security Risks: Cyberattacks on wallets, exchange mechanism (Cryptojacking). Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • They are prone to issues like Hijacking, Routing Attacks, Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.

  • Shield to Crime: Used for illicit trading, criminal activities and organised crimes.

NITI Aayog unveiled the “Status Paper and Way Forward on Resource Efficiency & Circular Economy”.

Objective- To make recommendations for enhancing the resource-use efficiency in the Indian economy, develop indicators for monitoring progress, and create an ecosystem for minimizing environmental impacts. A circular economy (often referred to simply as "circularity") is an economic system aimed at eliminating waste and the continual use of resources. Circular systems employ reuse, sharing, repair, refurbishment, remanufacturing and recycling to create a closed-loop system, minimizing the use of resource inputs and the creation of waste, pollution and carbon emissions. This regenerative approach is in contrast to the traditional linear economy, which has a 'take, make, dispose' model of production. Some of the major recommendations identified as priority areas are

1. Formulation of a National Policy on Resource Efficiency (RE) /Circular Economy (CE)

2. Establishment of Bureau of Resource Efficiency (BRE)

3. Mainstreaming RE&CE in existing flag ship missions

4. AModern Recycling Industry with level playing between primary and secondary producers

5. Development and promotion of skill and capacity building programmes forinformal sector

Gig economy:

• The gig economy is about individual workers carrying out tasks for clients through the intermediation of a platform attributing those tasks and taking care of the transfer of payment on a task-by-task basis.

• Significance:

  • The gig economy is based on temporary, or freelance jobs, often involving connecting with clients or customers through an online platform.

  • The gig economy can benefit workers, businesses, and consumers by making work more adaptable to the needs of the moment and the demand for flexible lifestyles.

    • Time flexibility: Workers operating in the gig economy are allowed to work any of the hours they desire.

    • Income flexibility: It is an increasingly attractive market due to the sheer flexibility that allows individuals to earn extra income.

• Definition of gig worker:

  • The report defines a gig worker as “someone who engages in income-earning activities outside of a traditional employer-employee relationship, as well as in the informal sector”.

  • Additionally, it defines those working with platforms such as Ola, Uber, Dunzo, Swiggy, Zomato and Urban Company as platform workers.

a) GST subsumed both central taxes and state taxes.

• This statement is correct. GST consolidated multiple indirect taxes levied by the central and state governments into a single tax.

b) States were to get compensation for 5 years for loss of revenue due to the implementation of GST.

• This statement is correct. The GST Act provides for compensation to states for revenue loss for a period of five years.

c) States will assess 90 percent of all goods and services while the remaining 10 percent will be assessed by the centre.

• This statement is not correct. Under the GST framework, the division of assessment does not strictly adhere to a 90:10 ratio. The assessment is based on the nature of the goods and services, with certain items being under the jurisdiction of the central government and others under the states.

d) Minor changes in rules and regulations may be permitted with the approval of the chairperson.

• This statement is  correct. Changes can be made with the approval of relevant authorities, including the GST Council, which may include the chairperson.

Conclusion: Option C is not correct

Noise pollution refers to the presence of excessive noise in the surroundings. Noise pollution may cause many health-related problems such as:

• Hypertension (high blood pressure). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hearing disability - A person who is exposed to a loud sound continuously may get temporary or even permanent impairment of hearing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Sleeping disorders. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Anxiety. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Plants do not grow well when the soil is either too acidic or too basic.

  • If the soil is basic, organic matter (compost) is added to it. Organic matter releases acids which neutralises the basic nature of the soil.

  • Excessive use of chemical fertilisers makes the soil acidic. When the soil is too acidic, it is treated with bases like quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide).

• Statement 2 is correct: Indigestion is caused by release of too much of acid by our stomach. Milk of Magnesia, which contains magnesium hydroxide, helps in relieving indigestion by neutralising the effect of excessive acid.

• Statement 1 is correct: Transgenic animals are those animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The trade of Transgenic animals across international borders is not referred to as Biopiracy. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. For instance, some companies in the United States tried to patent a variety of Basmati rice, whose knowledge has been traditionally present in the rice communities of India since historical times.

• Statement 3 is correct: Transgenic animals can be used for testing for vaccine safety as well as chemical safety.

  • Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. If successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches of the vaccine.

  • Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time.

• Other benefits of the Transgenic animals:

  • Normal physiology and development: Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development, e.g., study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin-like growth factor. By introducing genes from other species that alter the formation of this factor and studying the biological effects that result, information is obtained about the biological role of the factor in the body.

  • Study of disease: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute to the development of disease. These are specially made to serve as models for human diseases so that investigation of new treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s.

  • Biological products: Medicines required to treat certain human diseases can contain biological products, but such products are often expensive to make. Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a particular product such as human protein (α-1-antitrypsin) used to treat emphysema. Similar attempts are being made for treatment of phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre). The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk.