Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct. Currently, there are 247 JSSs working across the country imparting vocational skill training programmes and entrepreneurship benefits accessible to the underprivileged such as neo-literates, semi- literates, SCs, STs, women and girls, slum dwellers, migrant workers.

• Statement 2 is correct. Alignment of JSS course and curriculum to National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) is done to standardize training. Statement 3 is incorrect. Formerly under the Ministry of Human Resources Development, Jan Shikshan Sansthan has been transferred to the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship in 2018. The launch of Amrita University’s Blended Training System at Jan Shikshan Sansthans (JSSs) with e-content entailing selected skill courses. The Blended Training System is a comprehensive ICT -based platform that provides numerous benefits for trainees andtrainers.

• It is a constitutional body under Article 279A, introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.

• It is empowered to modify, reconcile or to procure any law or regulation based on the context of GST in India.

• It is also considered as a federal body where both the centre and the states get due representation.

• Functions: It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to GST.

• Composition

  • Chairperson: Union Finance Minister.

  • Members: Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.

• Every decision of the GST Council shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, in accordance with the following principles, namely:

  • Vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one third of the total votes cast.

  • Votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a Weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.

• Transfer payments is the payment by the government in grants, allowances, pensions etc., to people such as pensioners, widows, sick or unemployed people or others with little or no income. 
• Transfer payment doesn’t involve returning any productive service from the beneficiaries to the government. A transfer payment is a one-way payment to a person or organization that has been given. It is a type of public expenditure made for purposes other than procuring goods and services. 
• Some of the transfer payments include Social Security benefits, unemployment allowances for youth, welfare payments, government subsidies for certain businesses, and scholarships for students. Salaries to government employees do not come under transfer payments because payment is being made for the service provided by the employees. 
• So, Statement (d) is correct.

• Countervailing duty (CVD) is a specific duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies. CVD is an import tax by the importing country on imported products, which is considered a country-specific duty. For example, export subsidies given by the Chinese government will make Chinese products low-priced in the Indian market. This will be a disadvantage for the competing Indian products. To overcome this situation, the government of India can impose a countervailing duty on Chinese imports. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Dumping occurs when a country exports goods to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice that can have a distortive effect on international trade. Antidumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising from the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, antidumping duty aims to rectify the distortive trade effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade. Anti-dumping and anti-subsidy duties are levied against exporter/country as much as they are country- specific and exporter specific. The WTO permits using antidumping measures as an instrument of fair competition. It provides relief to the domestic industry against the injury caused by dumping. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Safeguard duty is levied irrespective of the country to protect domestic industry temporarily from the surge of cheap imports. As per section 8B(1) of the Customs Tariff Act, safeguard duty is imposed to protect the interests of any domestic industry in India, and it is product specific. This aspect distinguishes Safeguards from antidumping and anti-subsidy measures, which are always country-specific and exporter specific. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Operation Twist is a monetary policy of the central banks used to bring down interest rates and control investments in a country. Under this operation, the RBI twisted the yield of government securities to bring liquidity into the markets. If the interest rate is low, then the money circulation increases, that leads to increase in purchasing power of people which will lead to more import, whereby it shall not reduce the current account deficit. So, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• The repo rate is used by the central bank of India to control the supply of money in the Indian market. A higher repo rate helps reduce the borrowing power of commercial banks, which, in turn, reduces the cash flow in the market, thereby reducing the purchasing power of consumers. This has a positive impact on the reduction of the Current Account deficit. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Export subsidies are government payments to exporters to help them develop new sales markets or sell surpluses on the world market to keep the domestic market price stable. A government providing export incentives/ subsidies often does so to keep domestic products competitive in the global market. Reducing the export subsidy reduces a country's exports on the world market, which does not help in the reduction of the current account deficit. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• Import duties have two distinct purposes: to raise local government income and give a market advantage to locally grown or produced goods that are not subject to import duties. Increasing the import duty would lead to an increase in imports, leading to a low current account deficit. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) gives the picture from the consumers' angle or demand perspective. In contrast, the GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the producers' perspective or the supply side. So, Option (a) is correct. It is the total value of GDP which is higher comparing the value of GVP and not the opposite. GDP = (GVA) + (Taxes earned by the government) — (Subsidies provided by the government). So, Option (b) is not correct. 
• In situations where the GDP fails to measure the real economic scenario, the Gross Value Added (GVA) is a better gauge. Many economists consider GVA to be a more important indicator of the economy's progress than the GDP. In fact, even the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the GVA data to decide the economy's future outlook. So, Option (c) is not correct. It is GVA at basic price and not factor cost that is calculated and used as Gross Value Added (GVA) parameter to measure the economic growth. So, Option (d) is not correct.

• The methodology of GDP Calculation is give by National Statistical Office (NSO). NSO calculates GDP by Value Added Method (or) Output method and Expenditure Method. Under Value Added Method, it calculates the value addition done by various economic activities viz: 
  • Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing 
  • Mining and Quarrying
  • Manufacturing. 
  • Electricity, Gas, water supply and other utility services.
  • Construction. 
  • Trade, Hotels and transport, and communication and services related to broadcasting. 3⁄4 Financial, Insurance, real estate and professional service
  • Public administration and defence and other services. Under Expenditure Method, it adds up the various components of expenditure viz: 
  • Private Final Consumption Expenditure (it is basically household expenditure) 
  • Government Final Consumption Expenditure. 
  • Gross Fixed Capital Formation (Investment expenditure of private and government
• Net of Exports and Imports. Though GDP measured from either side should be equal, since reliable data is not available for private consumption expenditure, there is always a difference in the two ways of measuring GDP but the values estimated in both the methods of GDP calculation are the same. So, Statement I is correct. Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual cause to another for which they are not paid (or penalized). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. For Example, There is a manufacturing industry named ABC Company. The Company produces certain products but in the process of production it is generating certain waste materials (chemicals) which are getting dumped in the nearby river. The products produced by the factory will be counted as part of the country's GDP. But dumping of waste in the river may cause harm to the people who use water of the river and their well-being will fall. Pollution may also kill fish or other organisms of the river on which fish survive. As a result, the fishermen of the river may be losing their livelihood. Such harmful effects that the refinery is inflicting on others, for which it will not bear any cost, are called externalities. Externalities can be a Positive externalities or Negative externalities. if we take GDP as a measure of welfare of the economy, we shall be overestimating the actual welfare. This is an example of negative externality. There can be cases of positive externalities as well. In such cases GDP will underestimate the actual welfare of the economy. So, Statement II is correct. 
• While Externalities affect the GDP Calculation, the two methods, that is, the Output and Expenditure method may vary as one part is calculated in GDP estimation (the producer manufacturing the products), and it affects only the welfare of the economy. Though externalities include calculating GDP, it does not affect the values calculated in GDP. Thus, Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. So, Option (b) is correct.

• Fiscal policy is the policy under which the government uses the instrument of taxation, public spending and public borrowing to achieve various economic policy objectives. Simply put, it is the government spending and taxation policy to achieve sustainable growth. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank. It involves the management of the money supply and interest rate. It is the demand side economic policy used by the government of a country to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption, growth and liquidity. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• The increase in government expenditure is likely to cause a crowding-out effect on the economy. The crowding-out effect theory suggests that rising public-sector spending drives down private-sector spending. To spend more, the government needs more revenue, which it gets through higher taxes or sales of Treasuries. Increased government spending can lead to inflation. To keep inflation under control, the Central Bank raised the repo rate, increasing the cost of borrowing for the private sector. This can reduce private sector income and loan demand, thus decreasing spending and borrowing. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Lab-grown diamonds are diamonds produced using specific technology that mimics the geological processes that lead to the formation of natural diamonds. They are not the same as “diamond simulants.” Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are chemically, physically and optically diamonds and thus are difficult to identify as “lab-grown.” The lab-grown diamond is produced using 100% renewable electricity, i.e., renewable energy is used during the lab-grown diamond synthesis and the final cutting and polishing. LGDs have a lower carbon footprint compared to natural diamonds. The total carbon footprint is 8.17 kg CO2e per grown, cut, and a polished 1-carat lab-grown diamond. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are manufactured in laboratories with either of the two methods — chemical vapor deposition (CVD) or high pressure, high temperature (HPHT) using a chemical composition. Lab- grown diamonds (LGDs) take less than a month to make a distinctively-shaped crystal. So, Statement 2 is correct. 
• While materials such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, (Yttrium Aluminium Garnet) YAG, etc. are “diamond simulants” that attempt to “look” like a diamond, they lack the sparkle and durability of a diamond and are thus easily identifiable. A diamond simulant, diamond imitation or imitation diamond is an object or material with gemological characteristics similar to a diamond. Simulants are distinct from synthetic diamonds, which are actual diamonds exhibiting the same material properties as natural diamonds. However, differentiating between an LGD and an Earth Mined Diamond is hard, with advanced equipment required. The only difference between lab-grown and natural diamonds is that lab-grown diamonds are created synthetically in laboratories, while natural ones are mined from the earth. LGDs have physical and optical properties similar to that of natural diamonds. A common eye can’t distinguish between a natural diamond and an LGD, requiring a trained gemologist and sophisticated equipment to differentiate the two. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are Pure synthetic diamonds with high thermal conductivity but negligible electrical conductivity. Therefore, Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) have high thermal conductivity. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

• Vidyanjali (School Volunteer Programme) is an initiative led by the Ministry of Education (Shiksha Mantralay) to provide students with non-educational practices (through volunteers). This initiative would connect school students with varied volunteers from the Indian diaspora, namely (but not limited to) Retired teachers, Retired Government officials, Retired professional women etc. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Vidyanjali aims to strengthen Schools through community and private sector involvement in schools across the country. Apart from enabling mentors to directly interact with institutions and impart relevant knowledge and skill set, the Vidyanjali platform also allows the volunteers/citizens/alumni etc., to contribute services at schools and their management through various categories of contribution, namely ICT, Construction, school facilities like furniture, amenities etc. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• At 3,000 sq miles, Lake Titicaca is the largest freshwater lake in the Andes mountains on the border of Bolivia and Peru. There are more than 40 floating islands sprinkled across it. It is often called the highest navigable lake in the world. Lake Baikal freezes during winter rendering it impassable. Besides the poles, the Atacama desert is the driest place in the world. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Poles are the driest places on the earth. Other than the poles, The Atacama is the driest place on earth. It receives less than 1 mm of precipitation each year, and some areas haven't seen a drop of rain in more than 500 years. The Poles, mainly Antarctica, are dry because cold air can hold less water vapor than warm air exponentially, which is why heavy snowfall occurs when temperatures are closer to freezing than extremely cold. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Government of India has established National Water Mission as one of the eight National Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change. The Mission will consider the provisions of the National Water Policy and develop a framework to optimize water use by increasing water use efficiency by 20% through regulatory mechanisms with differential entitlements and pricing. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is not a part of the National Water Mission, whereby its vision is to provide a tap water supply to every rural household by 2024. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti is responsible for the implementation of this project. So, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) (not the Bureau of Energy Efficiency) has been set up for the promotion, regulation and control of efficient use of water in irrigation, industrial and domestic sectors. The Bureau will be a facilitator for the promotion of improving water use efficiency across various sectors, namely irrigation, drinking water supply, power generation, industries, etc., in the country. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act 2001, with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Capital Account: After the recommendations of the S.S.Tarapore Committee (1997) on Capital Account Convertibility, India has Been moving in the direction of allowing full convertibility in this account ,but with required precautions. India is still a country of partial convertibility (40:60) in the capital account, but inside this overall policy, enough reforms have been made and to certain levels of foreign exchange requirements, it is an economy allowing full capital account convertibility0

(i) Indian corporate are allowed full convertibility in the automatic route upto $ 500 million overseas ventures (investment by Ltd. companies in foreign countries allowed) per annum.

(ii) Indian corporate are allowed to prepay their external commercial borrowings (ECBs) via automatic route if the loan is above$ 500million per annum.

(iii) Individuals are allowed to invest in foreign assets,shares, etc., upto the level of $ 2,50,000 per annum.

(iv) anunlimited amount of gold is allowed to be imported (this is equal to allowing full convertibility in capital account via current account route, but not feasible for everybody). The Second Committee on the Capital Account Convertibility

(CAC) - againchairedbyS.S.Tarapore - handedoverits reportinSeptember 2006 on which the RBI/the government is having consultations. No target has been set for full convertibility of capital account.

Cryptocurrency:

• It is a digital currency that can be used in place of conventional money.

• In cryptocurrencies, cryptography is used to secure and verify transactions. It is also used to control the supply of cryptocurrencies. It is supported by a decentralised peer-to-peer network called the blockchain. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The first cryptocurrency: Bitcoin, was launched in 2009 by Satoshi Nakamoto.

• Cheaper to transfer:

  • Some coins are used to transfer value (measured in a currency like dollars) cheaper and faster than using credit or conventional means.

  • Meaning the cost to send someone crypto, which can be converted into regular currency, is cheaper than something like a check or wire transfer. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Challenges:

  • Security Risks: Cyberattacks on wallets, exchange mechanism (Cryptojacking). Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • They are prone to issues like Hijacking, Routing Attacks, Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.

  • Shield to Crime: Used for illicit trading, criminal activities and organised crimes.

NITI Aayog unveiled the “Status Paper and Way Forward on Resource Efficiency & Circular Economy”.

Objective- To make recommendations for enhancing the resource-use efficiency in the Indian economy, develop indicators for monitoring progress, and create an ecosystem for minimizing environmental impacts. A circular economy (often referred to simply as "circularity") is an economic system aimed at eliminating waste and the continual use of resources. Circular systems employ reuse, sharing, repair, refurbishment, remanufacturing and recycling to create a closed-loop system, minimizing the use of resource inputs and the creation of waste, pollution and carbon emissions. This regenerative approach is in contrast to the traditional linear economy, which has a 'take, make, dispose' model of production. Some of the major recommendations identified as priority areas are

1. Formulation of a National Policy on Resource Efficiency (RE) /Circular Economy (CE)

2. Establishment of Bureau of Resource Efficiency (BRE)

3. Mainstreaming RE&CE in existing flag ship missions

4. AModern Recycling Industry with level playing between primary and secondary producers

5. Development and promotion of skill and capacity building programmes forinformal sector

Gig economy:

• The gig economy is about individual workers carrying out tasks for clients through the intermediation of a platform attributing those tasks and taking care of the transfer of payment on a task-by-task basis.

• Significance:

  • The gig economy is based on temporary, or freelance jobs, often involving connecting with clients or customers through an online platform.

  • The gig economy can benefit workers, businesses, and consumers by making work more adaptable to the needs of the moment and the demand for flexible lifestyles.

    • Time flexibility: Workers operating in the gig economy are allowed to work any of the hours they desire.

    • Income flexibility: It is an increasingly attractive market due to the sheer flexibility that allows individuals to earn extra income.

• Definition of gig worker:

  • The report defines a gig worker as “someone who engages in income-earning activities outside of a traditional employer-employee relationship, as well as in the informal sector”.

  • Additionally, it defines those working with platforms such as Ola, Uber, Dunzo, Swiggy, Zomato and Urban Company as platform workers.

a) GST subsumed both central taxes and state taxes.

• This statement is correct. GST consolidated multiple indirect taxes levied by the central and state governments into a single tax.

b) States were to get compensation for 5 years for loss of revenue due to the implementation of GST.

• This statement is correct. The GST Act provides for compensation to states for revenue loss for a period of five years.

c) States will assess 90 percent of all goods and services while the remaining 10 percent will be assessed by the centre.

• This statement is not correct. Under the GST framework, the division of assessment does not strictly adhere to a 90:10 ratio. The assessment is based on the nature of the goods and services, with certain items being under the jurisdiction of the central government and others under the states.

d) Minor changes in rules and regulations may be permitted with the approval of the chairperson.

• This statement is  correct. Changes can be made with the approval of relevant authorities, including the GST Council, which may include the chairperson.

Conclusion: Option C is not correct

In News : The 47th meeting of the Goods and Services Tax Council began in Chandigarh .

• Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : In order to implement GST, the Constitutional (122nd Amendment) Bill (CAB for short) was passed by both houses of parliament in 2016 .It is a joint forum of the Centre and the states which was set up by the President as per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution.

  • The Union Finance Minister (chairperson), the Union Minister of State (Finance) from the Centre.

    • Each state can nominate a minister in-charge of finance or taxation or any other minister as a member.

• The Council, according to Article 279, is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”.

Noise pollution refers to the presence of excessive noise in the surroundings. Noise pollution may cause many health-related problems such as:

• Hypertension (high blood pressure). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hearing disability - A person who is exposed to a loud sound continuously may get temporary or even permanent impairment of hearing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Sleeping disorders. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Anxiety. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Plants do not grow well when the soil is either too acidic or too basic.

  • If the soil is basic, organic matter (compost) is added to it. Organic matter releases acids which neutralises the basic nature of the soil.

  • Excessive use of chemical fertilisers makes the soil acidic. When the soil is too acidic, it is treated with bases like quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide).

• Statement 2 is correct: Indigestion is caused by release of too much of acid by our stomach. Milk of Magnesia, which contains magnesium hydroxide, helps in relieving indigestion by neutralising the effect of excessive acid.

• Statement 1 is correct: Transgenic animals are those animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The trade of Transgenic animals across international borders is not referred to as Biopiracy. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. For instance, some companies in the United States tried to patent a variety of Basmati rice, whose knowledge has been traditionally present in the rice communities of India since historical times.

• Statement 3 is correct: Transgenic animals can be used for testing for vaccine safety as well as chemical safety.

  • Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. If successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches of the vaccine.

  • Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time.

• Other benefits of the Transgenic animals:

  • Normal physiology and development: Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development, e.g., study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin-like growth factor. By introducing genes from other species that alter the formation of this factor and studying the biological effects that result, information is obtained about the biological role of the factor in the body.

  • Study of disease: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute to the development of disease. These are specially made to serve as models for human diseases so that investigation of new treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s.

  • Biological products: Medicines required to treat certain human diseases can contain biological products, but such products are often expensive to make. Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a particular product such as human protein (α-1-antitrypsin) used to treat emphysema. Similar attempts are being made for treatment of phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre). The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk.

- Statement 1: Correct. The Old Pension Scheme (OPS) provided a pension calculated as 50% of the last drawn salary of government employees. It was a defined benefit scheme where the pension amount was predetermined based on the employee's last salary.

- Statement 2: Incorrect. The OPS was specifically for government employees, not all citizens or NRIs. It was not open to the entire public.

Thus, the correct answer is C: 1 only.

• Statement 1 is correct: E-cigarettes are battery-powered devices that heat a solution of nicotine and different flavours to create aerosol, which is then inhaled. These devices belong to a category of vapour-based nicotine products called ENDS.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament passed the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes (Production, Manufacture, Import, Export, Transport, Sale, Distribution, Storage, and Advertisement) Bill, 2019, which makes production, manufacture, import, export, transport, sale, distribution or advertisements of e-cigarettes a cognizable offence.

• Harmful effects of the use of e-cigarettes: In May 2019, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) released a white paper stating that the uses of ENDS, or e-cigarettes. It stated the “documented adverse effects” which include DNA damage; carcinogenesis (initiation of cancer formation); cellular, molecular and immunological toxicity; respiratory, cardiovascular and neurological disorders. It also impacts foetal development and pregnancy. Accordingly ICMR recommended a “complete prohibition” of these products.

• Statement 1 is correct: Space-based internet can provide low cost internet to everywhere on Earth, even to remote areas, or places with difficult terrain, where it is difficult to set up cables or mobile towers. Signals from satellites in space can overcome this obstacle easily.

• Statement 2 is correct: It can increase light pollution on Earth as light reflected from these man-made satellites can interfere with and be mistaken for light coming from other heavenly bodies.

• Statement 3 is correct: Satellites used in space based internet are placed in the low Earth orbit (LEO), around 200-2000 km from the Earth’s surface. Low and medium earth orbits lie at considerably lower altitudes than the geostationary orbit. This reduces the latency or the time lag of the internet signals.

• The key difference in the newly envisaged space-based internet services and the older ones:

  • While most of the existing systems use satellites in geostationary orbit, the new space-based internet services will be provided from constellations of satellites placed in low-earth or medium-earth orbits.

• Advantage: Low and medium earth orbits lie at considerably lower altitudes than the geostationary orbit. This reduces the latency or the time lag of the internet signals. Latency refers to the time lag between a user seeking data, and the server sending that data. While the older systems have a time latency of about 600 ms, the new systems will have latency of about 20-30 ms, which is close to what is provided by the traditional internet systems at present on the earth.

• Disadvantages:

  • More number of satellites needed: Since, lower the altitude of satellite, lower is the area on Earth it can cover, the number of satellites needed in the low and medium earth orbits are higher. Another reason contributing to increase in the number of satellites needed for the new space-based internet systems is that the time for which a particular satellite will remain at a location is much less, thus making it necessary that there are a greater number of satellites in the orbits to provide uninterrupted internet services.

  • Problem of Space debris: Such higher number of satellites in Earth’s orbit can greatly contribute of space debris problem.

  • Light Pollution: Light pollution is excessive, misdirected, or obtrusive artificial (usually outdoor) light. Light reflected from these satellites can be confused for light coming from the heavenly bodies by the astronomers. An American company, Space-x has been aiming to put close to 42,000 satellites in low-earth orbit as part of its Starlink project. The Starlink project aims to provide global space internet by 2021. Other companies also aim to provide space-based internet services.

• Statement 1 is correct: Typhoid fever is a systemic infection caused by Salmonella Typhi, a bacterium, usually through ingestion of contaminated food or water. Typhoid fever is an acute illness characterized by prolonged fever, headache, nausea, loss of appetite, and constipation or sometimes diarrhoea.

• Statement 2 is correct: Typhoid can be prevented by using vaccination. There are three typhoid vaccines that are currently recommended by World Health Organization (WHO) for control of endemic and epidemic typhoid fever:

  • an injectable typhoid conjugate vaccine (TCV- licensed for children from 6 months of age and adults up to 45 years of age;

  • an injectable unconjugated polysaccharide vaccine for persons aged two years and above; and

  • an oral live attenuated Ty21a vaccine in capsule formulation for those over six years of age.

• About TCV:

  • Among the available typhoid vaccines, TCV is preferred at all ages for routine programmatic use in view of its improved immunological properties, suitability for use in younger children and expected longer duration of protection. Typbar TCV, short for typhoid conjugate vaccine was recently approved by the WHO against typhoid fever. It is the only vaccine deemed safe enough for use in infants starting at 6 months of age.

  • This vaccine is the first conjugate vaccine — a vaccine in which a weak antigen (of the typhoid germ) is attached to a strong antigen (from the tetanus germ) to elicit antibody responses — against a bacterial disease (typhoid) that “affects up to 20 million people annually”.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Coke is used in the manufacture of steel. Coke is a tough, porous and black substance. It is an almost pure form of carbon. It is also used in the extraction of many metals.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Earlier, coal tar was used for metalling the roads, however these days, bitumen, a petroleum product, is used for road surfacing.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: PET (polyethylene terephthalate) is a polyester that is used for making bottles, utensils, films, wires and many other useful products.

• What are Polyesters?

  • Polyester is a synthetic fibre. Fabric made from this fibre does not get wrinkled easily. It remains crisp and is easy to wash. So, it is quite suitable for making dress material. Terylene is a popular polyester. It can be drawn into very fine fibres that can be woven like any other yarn. PET is also a popular polyester. Polyester is made up of the repeating units of a chemical called an ester. Esters are the chemicals which give fruits their smell. Fabrics sold by names like polycot, polywool, terrycot, etc. are made by mixing two types of fibres. Polycot is a mixture of polyester and cotton. Polywool is a mixture of polyester and wool.

• Statement 1 is correct: The microorganisms like aerobic and anaerobic bacteria are used in sewage treatment plants. They breakdown the organic matter, thereby reducing the organic content of the sewage along with the Biological Oxygen Demand of the treated sewage water. The treated sewage water then becomes fit to be released to the natural water bodies. Cleaning of environment - In nature, microorganisms decompose dead organic waste of plants and animals converting them into simple substances. These substances are again used by other plants and animals. Thus, microorganisms can be used to degrade the harmful and smelly substances and thereby clean up the environment.

• Statement 2 is correct: Many medicines are sourced from microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.

  • Such medicines called, antibiotics, kill or stop the growth of the disease-causing microorganisms.

  • These days a number of antibiotics are being produced from bacteria and fungi. Streptomycin, tetracycline and erythromycin are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria.

  • The antibiotics are manufactured by growing specific microorganisms and are used to cure a variety of diseases.

• Statement 3 is correct: Bacteria can be used for increasing the fertility of soils as some bacteria are able to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere to enrich soil with nitrogen and increase its fertility. These microbes are commonly called biological nitrogen fixers.

• Statement 4 is correct: Vaccination development is one of the most important uses of bacteria. These days vaccines are made on a large scale from microorganisms to protect humans and other animals from several diseases.

  • Several diseases, including cholera, tuberculosis, smallpox and hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination. A vaccine works by training the immune system to recognize and combat pathogens, either viruses or bacteria.

  • To do this, certain molecules from the pathogen must be introduced into the body to trigger an immune response. These molecules are called antigens, and they are present on all viruses and bacteria.

• Other benefits of micro-organisms:

  • Commercial production of alcohol and wines use Yeast. Yeasts are the main fermenter and alcohol producer in the production of wine, beer and other alcohol drinks. The main yeast species used is Saccharomyces cerevisiae. It ferments the sugars, coming from different sources, e.g., grapes for wine, barley for beer, to alcohol and carbon dioxide.

  • Bacteria and yeast are helpful for fermentation of rice idlis and dosa batter.

  • Formation of curd: Curd contains several microorganisms. Of these, the bacterium, Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd. Bacteria are also involved in the making of cheese, pickles and many other food items.

• Statement 1 is correct: Manure provides humus to soil while fertilizer does not provide any humus to soil.

• Statement 2 is correct: While fertilizers are man-made inorganic salts, manure is an organic substance.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Fertilizers are very rich in plant nutrients while manure is relatively less rich.

Only the first statement is correct. The changes that occur at adolescence, such as physical growth, development of secondary sexual characteristics, and changes in mood and behavior, are largely controlled by hormones, including testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone. However, the second statement is incorrect. While the pituitary gland does secrete several important hormones, not all hormones in the body are secreted by the pituitary gland. Other organs and glands in the body also secrete hormones, including the adrenal glands, thyroid gland, pancreas, and ovaries/testes, among others.

• Statement 1 is correct: Cell membrane is present in both the plant and animal cells. The cell membrane, also called as the plasma membrane, encloses the cytoplasm and nucleus of the cell. It is porous and allows the movement of substances or materials both inward and outward. The cell membrane gives shape to the cell.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Vacuoles are present both in plant and animal cells, though they are bigger in plant cells than in animal cells. A plant cell contains a large, singular vacuole that is used for storage and maintaining the shape of the cell. In contrast, animal cells have many, smaller vacuoles. The vacuoles perform functions such as storage, ingestion, digestion, excretion, and expulsion of excess water.

• Statement 3 is correct: Cell wall is present only in the plant cells, it is not found in animal cells. In plants, in addition to the cell membrane, there is an outer thick layer in cells called cell wall. This additional layer surrounding the cell membrane is required by plants for protection. Plant cells need protection against variations in temperature, high wind speed, atmospheric moisture etc. as they are exposed to these variations because they cannot move.