Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 5 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct. Meghalaya became 1st state in India to ensure conservation of water and have its own State Water Policy. This move comes following a nod given by State Cabinet for the purpose.

• Statement 2 is correct. Policy also seeks to ensure the protection and conservation of catchment areas of all water sources in state so as to prevent degradation of quantity and quality of water sources. It also outlines issue of river pollution. Implementation: For the purpose of implementation of the policy via active participation of the community a Water Sanitation Village Council at the village level would be constituted.

Therefore, all three statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct because people can be exposed to arsenic through contaminated water, food, and tobacco smoke. Statement 2 is correct because long-term exposure to arsenic can cause cancer and skin lesions. Statement 3 is correct because arsenic is naturally present at high levels in the groundwater of some countries. Therefore, the correct answer is option (d).

• It was established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Statement 3 is correct: It is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and State Governments.

  • The Central Government, through the Food Corporation of India (FCI), purchases, stores, transports and allocates food grains to States. ○ The States identify eligible families, issue Ration Cards and supervise the functioning of Fair Price Shops (FPSs) etc.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched a Jan Jagrukta Abhiyaan in Delhi to accelerate vector control measures.

• Statement 2 is correct. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is all set to launch a special campaign in Delhi to sensitize and mobilise the community on measures for prevention and control of Vector Borne Diseases (VBDs) like Malaria, Dengue and Chikungunya.

• Statement 3 is correct. This is probably the first time that three governments-national, state and local bodies- will converge in their efforts to mobilise the community for a public health activity. All Members of Parliament of Delhi and Mayors of all three Delhi Municipal Corporations for their active involvement in this campaign. A total of 286 ward-wise teams (in all 272 Municipal wards and 14 locations of NDMC) have been constituted with 20-25 members per team including officers of the Municipal Corporation along with officers from Central Government and Government of NCTD. The Northern Railways and Delhi Cantonment Board will also carry out the activities in campaign mode for prevention and control of VBDs in their areas.

• It is based on first-time collection of additional data during the annual round of Periodic Labour Force Survey for July 2020-June 2021.

• It is released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

• It separates the categories of ‘temporary visitors’ and ‘migrants’.

• While ‘temporary visitors’ have been defined as the ones who arrived in households after March 2020 and stayed continuously for a period of 15 days or more but less than 6 months,

• The ‘migrants’ have been defined as those, for whom the last usual place of residence, any time in the past, is different from the present place of enumeration.

• The survey block was introduced in July 2020 and the period of survey for asking this information was July 2020-June 2021.

InvITs, or Infrastructure Investment Trusts, are investment vehicles that gather funds from investors to invest in infrastructure projects. As pass-through entities, InvITs pass their income and expenses directly to the unitholders. According to the latest budget for 2023-24, all income distributed by InvITs—including interest income, dividend income, and rental income—will be taxable for unitholders. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

The exemption of interest income from tax is intended to encourage investment in InvITs and promote infrastructure development in the country. In contrast, dividends received from InvITs are treated as regular income and are taxed according to the investor's applicable income tax slab rates.

InvITs are specifically recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002' (SARFAESI Act). The SARFAESI Act deals with the securitization and reconstruction of financial assets and the enforcement of security interests by banks and financial institutions, making statement 2 correct.

InvITs pool funds from investors to invest in income-generating infrastructure assets and are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. The regulatory framework for InvITs differs from that of traditional borrowers under the SARFAESI Act.

• Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Repo Rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.

  • Repo stands for ‘repurchase option’ or ‘repurchase agreement’.

  • The central bank provides these short term loans against securities such as treasury bills or government bonds.

  • Reverse Repo Rate: This is the rate the central bank of a country pays its commercial banks to park their excess funds in the central bank. The reverse repo rate provided by RBI is generally lower than the repo rate.

  • While repo rate is used to regulate liquidity in the economy, reverse repo rate is used to control cash flow in the market.

  • When there is inflation in the economy, RBI increases the reverse repo rate.

• It encourages commercial banks to make deposits in the central bank and earn returns. Marginal Standing Facility: MSF or marginal standing facility is a system of the Reserve Bank of India that allows scheduled commercial banks to avail funds overnight.

  • It was introduced by the RBI as a provision for banks to avail overnight funds during a revision of the country’s monetary policy in 2011-12.

  • It is usually higher than the repo rate.

  • Banks can use their SLR or statutory liquidity ratio to take loans under MSF.

• This is a short-term loan used to maintain the liquidity of banks.

• Consumer Price Index (CPI) Inflation:

  • It measures changes in the price level of a weighted average market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.

  • It also represents retail inflation

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices (or constant prices).

• Since these prices remain fixed, if the Real GDP changes, the volume of production undergoes changes.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect. Nominal GDP is the value of GDP at the current prevailing prices. The ratio of nominal to real GDP is called GDP Deflator.

• Statement 3 is correct. The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP (GDP Deflator) gives an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year. Nominal GDP

  • It is an assessment of economic production in an economy but includes the current prices of goods and services in its calculation.

  • GDP is typically measured as the monetary value of goods and services produced.

  • Since nominal GDP doesn't remove the pace of rising prices when comparing one period to another, it can inflate the growth figure.

• Real GDP

  • It is a measure of a country's total economic output that is adjusted for price changes.

  • Real GDP makes comparing of GDP in different years more meaningful, because it allows comparisons of the actual volume of goods and services without inflation.

  • Real GDP is calculated using a deflator or price index, a number that expresses prices in each year relative to a base year.

• The correct answer is option (b), 1, 2, 3, and 4. The Marginal Cost of funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) is a methodology used by banks in India to determine the interest rates on loans. The MCLR is the minimum interest rate that a bank must charge on a loan, and it is based on the marginal cost of funds, which is the cost of the bank's most expensive source of funds. The MCLR was introduced in 2016 to improve the transmission of policy rates into the lending rates of banks, and to ensure the availability of bank loans at interest rates that are fair to both borrowers and banks.

• All four statements provided are correct. Statement 1 is correct because the MCLR aims to improve the transmission of policy rates into the lending rates of banks. Statement 2 is correct because the MCLR helps banks to become more competitive and enhance their long-run value. Statement 3 is correct because the MCLR ensures the availability of bank loans at interest rates that are fair to both borrowers and banks. Statement 4 is correct because the MCLR aims to improve transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining interest rates. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

• The correct answer is option (b), 2 only. The Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme is a government-backed scheme that allows individuals and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) to invest in gold without physically holding the metal. The SGBs are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India, and they are denominated in units of one gram of gold.

• With regard to the statements provided, statement 1 is not correct, as the SGBs are not restricted for sale to individuals and HUFs only. The SGBs can also be purchased by banks, trusts, universities, charitable institutions, and other eligible entities. Statement 2 is correct, as the capital gains tax arising on the redemption of an SGB has been exempted. The capital gains tax on the sale of SGBs is the same as the capital gains tax on the sale of physical gold, which is currently taxed at a rate of 20% with indexation. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SEQI has been developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector. It has been developed through a collaborative process including key stakeholders such as the Ministry of HumanResource Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.

• Statement 2 is correct. Among the large states ,Kerala bagged the top spot while UttarPradesh scored the lowest. Among the smaller states Manipur bagged the top spot whereas Arunachal Pradesh came last.

• The correct answer is option (b), Guillotine. In parliamentary procedures, the guillotine is a process where all the outstanding demands of the budget are directly put to vote without further discussion in the House. The guillotine is used as a time-saving measure when there is a large volume of outstanding budget demands that need to be voted on, and it allows the House to proceed to the next stage of the budget process without having to debate each demand individually.

• The other options provided are not correct. A Policy Cut Motion is a motion introduced by the opposition in the legislature to cut the allocation for a particular policy or program. The simple closure and the kangaroo closure are parliamentary procedures that allow the House to close the debate on a motion and proceed to a vote without further discussion. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

2 and 3 only

Explanation:
1. NBFCs are not necessarily the largest net borrowers of funds from the financial system. The extent of their borrowing depends on their size, operations, and market conditions. It is not accurate to generalize them as the largest net borrowers.

2. NBFCs can acquire shares, stocks, and other securities issued by the government. They often invest in government securities as part of their asset portfolio.

3. NBFCs are not part of the Payment and Settlement system, which is the system that deals with the transfer of funds between parties, such as banks and other financial institutions. NBFCs are primarily involved in providing financial services, such as loans, investments, and leasing, but they do not have the authority to facilitate payments and settlements between parties.

• The correct answer is option (c), both 1 and 2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) are two measures of inflation in India. The WPI is a measure of the average change in the prices of goods traded between businesses, while the CPI is a measure of the average change in the prices of goods and services consumed by households.

• With regard to the statements provided, statement 1 is correct. The WPI basket does not cover services, such as housing, education, and recreation, while the CPI basket does. This means that the WPI measures the change in prices of only a subset of the goods and services consumed by households, while the CPI measures the change in prices of a broader range of goods and services. Statement 2 is also correct, as the weightage of the food group is higher in the CPI basket than in the WPI basket. This reflects the fact that food is a larger share of household consumption compared to business expenditure. Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).

• Statement 1 is correct: G-secs practically carry no risk of default and, hence, are called riskfree gilt-edged instruments. Gilt-edged securities are high-grade investment bonds offered by governments and large corporations as a means of borrowing funds.

• Statement 2 is not correct: Such securities are of two types:

  • Treasury Bills

    • They are short term instruments

    • With original maturities of less than one year- presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 days, 182 days and 364 day

    • Government bonds or dated securities

    • They are Long term instruments.

    • With original maturity of one year or more.

• In India, the Central Government issues both treasury bills and bonds or dated securities

  • while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).

• Statement 1 and 2 is incorrect. Andhra Pradesh, with a score of 98.42 per cent, topped the 'ease of doing business' ranking among states prepared by the World Bank and the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP).

• Statement 3 is correct. In 3rd edition of the annual ranking of all states and UTs under the Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) conducted by DIPP and the World Bank (not WTO). Last year, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana had jointly topped the chart.

• This year, Telangana has slipped to the second spot with a score of 98.33 per cent. Haryana came third with 98.07 per cent.

• The government floated the move to rank states last year with the aim of triggering competition among states to attract investments and improve business climate.

• The parameters include areas such as construction permit, labour regulation, environmental registration, access to information, land availability, and single window system. Others in the top ten are Jharkhand (4), Gujarat (5), Chhattisgarh (6), Madhya Pradesh (7), Karnataka (8), Rajasthan (9) and West Bengal (10). Meghalaya was ranked last at 36th position.

• Only 43.5 percent of entrepreneurs face no problem relating to corruption in their states, while 30.8 percent consider it to be moderate and the rest say it is very serious, according to NCAER State Investment Potential Index 2017.

• DIPP in collaboration with the World Bank conducts an annual reform exercise for all States/UTs under the Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP).

• The assessment under the BRAP 2017 is based on a combined score consisting of reform evidence score that is based on evidence uploaded by States/UTs and feedback score that is based on response garnered from the actual users of the services provided to the businesses.

• DIPP said 17 states have achieved a reform evidence score of more than 90 per cent and 15 have achieved a combined score of 90 per cent and more. About Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP)

• The aim of this exercise is to improve delivery of various Central Government regulatory functions and services in an efficient, effective and transparent manner.

• The reform plan has expanded from 285 to 372 action points till 2017.

• States and UTs have conducted reforms to ease their regulations and systems in areas such as labour, environmental clearances, single window system, construction permits, contract enforcement, registering property and inspections. States and UTs have also enacted Public Service Delivery Guarantee Act to enforce the timelines on registrations and approvals.

• The current assessment under the BRAP 2017 is based on a combined score consisting of Reform evidence score that is based on evidences uploaded by the States and UTs and Feedback score that is based on the feedback garnered from the actual users of the services provided to the businesses.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 1 is correct because the NIIF is an investment vehicle that funds infrastructure projects, and statement 2 is correct because the NIIF manages three funds that are registered as AIFs with SEBI. Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).

Option (b) is the correct answer. Blood vessels: There are different types of blood vessels in the body. You know that during inhalation a fresh supply of oxygen fills the lungs. Oxygen has to be transported to the rest of the body. Also, the blood picks up the waste materials including carbon dioxide from the cells. This blood has to go back to the heart for transport to the lungs for removal of carbon dioxide. So, two types of blood vessels, arteries and veins are present in the body.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body. Since the blood flow is rapid and at a high pressure, the arteries have thick elastic walls.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Veins are the vessels which carry carbon dioxide-rich blood from all parts of the body back to the heart. The veins have thin walls. There are valves present in veins which allow blood to flow only towards the heart.

All statements are correct. With rapid increase in human population, conventional agricultural may not be able to meet the demand of food. One of the alternate sources of proteins for animal and human nutrition is Single Cell Protein (SCP).

Single - cell protein (SCP) refers to edible unicellular microorganisms. The biomass or protein extract from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria may be used as an ingredient or a substitute for protein-rich foods, and is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds. It has a very high rate of biomass production and growth. Incidentally, industrial agriculture marked by a high-water footprint, high land use, biodiversity destruction, general environmental degradation and contributes to climate change by emission of a third of all greenhouse gases. Production of SCP does not necessarily exhibit any of these serious drawbacks

Statement 1 is correct. Vitamins are organic substances made by plants and animals that are essential for the human body to grow and function properly. They help us in protecting our body against diseases. They also help in keeping our eyes (Vitamin A), bones (Vitamin D), teeth and gums (Vitamin C) healthy.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Vitamins are both water and fat soluble. Vitamins A, D, E, K are fat-soluble. These can dissolve in fats and oils. They are absorbed along with fats in the diet and can be stored in the body's fatty tissue. Vitamin C and members of the vitamin B complex are water-soluble. They can dissolve in water. Water-soluble vitamins are carried to the body's tissue but are not stored in the body.

The heart is an organ which beats continuously to act as a pump for the transport of blood, which carries other substances with it.

Statement 1 is correct. Heart is divided into 4 chambers, two upper and two lower.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The two upper chambers are called the atria (singular: atrium) and the two lower chambers are called the ventricles. The partition between the chambers helps to avoid mixing up of blood rich in oxygen with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The walls of the chambers of the heart are made up of muscles. These muscles contract and relax rhythmically. This rhythmic contraction followed by its relaxation constitutes a heartbeat. While the pulse is due to the blood flowing in the arteries. The number of beats per minute is called the pulse rate. A resting person, usually has a pulse rate between 72 and 80 beats per minute.

Statement 1 is correct. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times. These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation. The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as satellite DNA.

Statement 2 is incorrect. 99.9 percent of base sequence among humans is the same. It is these differences in sequence of DNA which makes every individual unique in their phenotypic appearance. If one aims to find out genetic differences between two individuals or among individuals of a population, sequencing the DNA every time would be a daunting and expensive task. Imagine trying to compare two sets of 3 × 106 base pairs. DNA fingerprinting is a very quick way to compare the DNA sequences of any two individuals.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

● Atlas will facilitate the development of better drugs and more accurate predictions of unintended toxicity.

● It will also aid regenerative medicine — the process of replacing, engineering or regenerating human cells, tissues or organs to establish normal function. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

IndiGen Project

● This programme, an initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research’s (CSIR), is about undertaking whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.

● It is an independent project of CSIR. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

All three are asexual mode of reproduction in plants. Budding in Yeast, Fragmentation in Algae, Spore formation in Moss and Ferns results in reproduction. Budding, in biology, a form of asexual reproduction in which a new individual develops from some generative anatomical point of the parent organism. In some species buds may be produced from almost any point of the body, but in many cases, budding is restricted to specialized areas.

The initial protuberance of proliferating cytoplasm or cells, the bud, eventually develops into an organism duplicating the parent. The new individual may separate to exist independently, or the buds may remain attached, forming aggregates or colonies. Fragmentation in multicellular organisms is a form of asexual reproduction in which an organism is split into fragments. Each of these fragments develop into matured fully grown individuals that are identical to their parents.

Fragmentation, also known as splitting, as a method of reproduction is seen in many organisms such as filamentous cyanobacteria, molds, lichens, many plants, and animals such as sponges, acoel flatworms, some annelid worms and sea stars. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which is found in non-flowering plants such as fungi (Rhizopus) and bacteria. In this method of reproduction, the parent plant produces hundreds of tiny spores which can grow into new plants.

Statement 1 is correct. Transfer of pollen from the Anther to the Stigma of a flower is called pollination.

Statement 2 is incorrect. When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of a flower of a different plant of the same kind, it is called cross-pollination KB) Reproductive Part of a Plant Flowers are the reproductive parts of a plant. Male and female gametes are produced in the flower.

The flower consists of four main parts-

• Sepals: They are the green leaf-like structures which protect the flower in the bud stage.

• Petals: They are the coloured structures. They are the most beautiful part of the flower that attracts the birds and insects for pollination Stamens: They are the male reproductive parts. Stamens consist of two parts – anther and filament. Anther is a swollen part of the stamen. The filament is a long, slender stalk which attaches the stamen to the flower. Pollen grains are formed inside the anther which produces the male gametes.

• Pistil or Carpel: It is the female reproductive part of the flower. It consists of three parts – stigma, style and ovary. The stigma is at the top of the pistil. It receives the pollen grains during pollination. The style is a long, tube-like structure which passes the pollen grains to the ovary. The ovary is the swollen part present at the basal part of the pistil. The ovary consists of the ovule which bears the female gamete. Uni-sexual and Bisexual Flowers Flowers can be of two types depending upon whether both the sexual parts – male and female are present in the same flower or different flower.

• Bisexual flowers: Flowers which contain both the stamens and the pistil are known as bisexual flowers. For example- Rose, Hibiscus, Gulmohar, Mustard etc.

• Uni-sexual flowers: The flowers which contain either the stamens or the pistil are known as unisexual flowers. For example- Maize, Papaya, Cucumber etc.

Statement 1 is correct. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids found in living systems. DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms. RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, mostly functions as a messenger. RNA has additional roles as well. It functions as an adapter, structural, and in some cases as a catalytic molecule.

Statement 2 is incorrect. RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters. DNA, however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising machinery has evolved around RNA. Both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. For the transmission of genetic information, RNA is better.

Statement 1 is correct- Genetic modification has made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses like cold, drought, salt, heat, etc.

Statement 2 is correct. Genetically Modified Crops are pest-resistant crops, therefore it reduces reliance on chemical pesticides.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Genetic modification has increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants thereby preventing early exhaustion of fertility of soil. Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). GM plants have been useful in many ways. Apart from the benefits mentioned above, Genetic modification has helped to reduce post-harvest losses and enhanced nutritional value of food.

According to Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), India has over 2.3 Crore people suffering from disabilities caused due to ‘Lymphatic Filariasis’ commonly known as ‘Elephantiasis’.

Statement 1 is correct. WHO recommended the Triple Drug Therapy which is a combination of three drugs known as Ivermectin, Diethylcarbamazine citrate and Albendazole (IDA) to eradicate Lymphatic filariasis.

Statement 2 is correct. Maharashtra government has launched Triple Drug Therapy in Nagpur on recommendation of WHO to eliminate Lymphatic filariasis. KB) Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasitic worms living in the lymphatic system. The larval stages of the parasite (microfilaria) circulate in the blood and are transmitted from person to person by mosquitoes. Manifestation of the disease after infection takes time and can result in an altered lymphatic system, causing abnormal enlargement of body parts, and leading to severe disability and social stigmatization of those affected. The parasites are transmitted by four main types of mosquitoes: Culex, Mansonia, Anopheles and Aedes.

Statement 1 is correct- Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas that allows your body to use sugar (glucose) from carbohydrates in the food that you eat for energy or to store glucose for future use. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges.

Statement 2 is incorrect-Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets (pancreas). Insulin helps keeps your blood sugar level from getting too high (hyperglycemia) or too low (hypoglycemia). The cells in your body need sugar for energy. However, sugar cannot go into most of your cells directly. After you eat food and your blood sugar level rises, cells in your pancreas (known as beta cells) are signaled to release insulin into your bloodstream. Insulin then attaches to and signals cells to absorb sugar from the bloodstream. Insulin is often described as a “key,” which unlocks the cell to allow sugar to enter the cell and be used for energy. Insulin is considered to be the main anabolic hormone of the body. It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein by promoting the absorption of carbohydrates, especially glucose from the blood into liver, fat and skeletal muscle cells. If you have more sugar in your body than it needs, insulin helps store the sugar in your liver and releases it when your blood sugar level is low or if you need more sugar, such as in between meals or during physical activity. Therefore, insulin helps balance out blood sugar levels and keeps them in a normal range. As blood sugar levels rise, the pancreas secretes more insulin. If your body does not produce enough insulin or your cells are resistant to the effects of insulin, you may develop hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), which can cause long-term complications if the blood sugar levels stay elevated for long periods of time.