Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 Free Online Test 2026

The shore temple, built by Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, is dedicated to Shiva in the form of 'Somaskanda'. The complex consists of three temples. Sandwiched between two Shiva temples is a Vishnu temple where you can see Vishnu as 'Anantashayana'. Vishnu is known as Anantashayana when he is recumbent on the king of the Nagas (serpents), Anantashesha.

• During Shah Jahan’s reign, Aurangazeb, as governor of Deccan, followed an aggressive Deccan policy. Shah Jahan carved four Mughal provinces in the Deccan – Khandesh, Berar, Telungana and Daulatabad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• To contain the spread of the Marathas, Aurangzeb decided to invade Bijapur and Golkonda. He defeated Sikandar Shah of Bijapur and annexed his kingdom. Then, he proceeded against Golkonda and eliminated the Kutb Shahi dynasty. It was also annexed by him. In fact, the destruction of the Deccan kingdoms was a political blunder on the part of Aurangazeb. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Aurangzeb was a staunch and orthodox Muslim in his personal life. His idea was to transform India into an Islamic state. He created a separate department to enforce moral codes under a high-powered officer called Muhtasib. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• He was also not tolerant of other Muslim sects. The celebration of Muharram was stopped. His invasions against the Deccan sultanates were partly due to his hatred of the Shia faith. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The important non-Harappan chalcolithic cultures lay mainly in western India and Deccan. These include Banas culture (2600BC–1900 BC) in south-east Rajasthan, with Ahar near Udaipur and Gilund as its key sites; Kayatha culture (2100BC–2000 BC) with Kayatha in Chambal as its chief site in Madhya Pradesh; Malwa Culture (1700BC–1400BC) with Navdatoli in Western Madhya Pradesh as an important site, and Jorwe culture (1400BC– 700BC) with Inamgaon and Chandoli near Pune in Maharashtra as its chief centers.
• The non-Harappan Chalcolithic cultures though flourished in different regions they were marked by basic uniformity in various aspects such as their mud structures, farming and hunting activities, use of wheelmade pottery, etc. The pottery of these chalcolithic cultures included ochre-colored pottery (OCP), and black-and-red ware (BRW) and has been found in the shape of various kinds of bowls, basins, spouted jars with concave necks, dishes on stands, etc.
• To this culture belonged a large number of very small-sized stone tools known as microliths. Also, people knew the art of spinning and weaving because spindle whorls have been discovered in Malwa.
• The non-Harappan chalcolithic communities founded the first villages in India and cultivated far more cereals than is known in the case of neolithic communities. Despite this, the rate of infant mortality was very high. This general weakness of these communities is evident from the burial of a large number of children in western Maharashtra. Hence, option (c ) is the correct answer.

Trabeate style was used in the construction of temples, mosques, tombs and in buildings attached to large stepped-wells (baolis) between the eighth and thirteenth centuries in India.

Trabeate style of architecture refers to where the roofs, doors and windows are made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns”.

Statement 2 is correct. There are two technological and stylistic developments are noticeable from the twelfth century (since the medieval age) -

• Limestone cement was increasingly used in construction. This was very high-quality cement, which, when mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete. This made construction of large structures easier and faster.

Arcuate style of architecture- In this type of architecture, the weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was carried by arches.

• During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common during the rainy season. These breaks in the different regions are due to different reasons:

• Statement 1 is correct (i) In northern India rains are likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are not very frequent along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ over this region. It also occurs if the ITCZ shifts northward over the foothills of Himalayas and causes heavy rainfall along the foothills of himalayas.

• This northward shift of the ITCZ creates a high pressure over the plains and thus the South West monsoon winds are not able to flow Statement 2 is correct (ii) Over the west coast the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the coast. This fails to produce an orographic effect and thus leads to a break in monsoon. Such breaks are likely to occur in the month of August.

Important Passes of Western Ghats

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Thal Ghat: It links Nasik to Mumbai.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Bhor Ghat: It links Mumbai to Pune.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Pal Ghat: It connects Kerala to Tamil Nadu (link Kochi to Chennai).

• Senkota pass: It is located between the Nagercoil and the Cardamom hills links Thiruvananthapuram and Madurai.

• Sub-Polar low-pressure belt is located between 60-65 degree latitudes in both the hemispheres. The low-pressure belt does not appear to be thermally induced because there is low temperature throughout the year. The surface air spreads outward from this zone due to the rotation of the earth and low pressure is caused. Instead of a regular and continuous belt, there are well-defined low-pressure centres or cells over the oceans in the northern hemisphere e.g. in the neighbourhood of the Aleutian Islands in the Pacific Ocean and between Greenland and Iceland in the Atlantic Ocean. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• The sub-tropical highs extend from near the tropics to about 35°N and S. After saturation (complete loss of moisture) at the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), the air moving away from equatorial low pressure belt in the upper troposphere becomes dry and cold. This dry and cold wind subsides at 30°N and S. So the high pressure along this belt is due to subsidence of air coming from the equatorial region which descends after becoming heavy.

• Equatorial Low Pressure Belt lies between 10°N and 10°S latitudes. This belt is the zone of convergence of trade winds from two hemispheres from sub-tropical high pressure belts. As this region lies along the equator, it receives highest amount of insolation. Due to intense heating, air gets warmed up and rises over the equatorial region (convection).Whenever there is vertically upward movement of air, the region at the surface will be at low pressure. Thus the belt along the equator is called equatorial low pressure belt.

• The polar highs are small in area and extend around the poles. They lie around poles between 80 – 90° N and S latitudes. The air from sub-polar low pressure belts after saturation becomes dry. This dry air becomes cold while moving towards poles through upper troposphere. The cold air (heavy) on reaching poles subsides creating a high pressure belt at the surface of earth.

• The subjects that do not fall in any three lists are categorized as residuary subjects. According to Article 248 of the Constitution, the Union government can legislate on residuary subjects.

• This feature was borrowed from the Canadian Constitution. So, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Parliament cannot on its own change the arrangement of sharing of powers between the Union Government and the State governments. Any change has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least a two-thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total States. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore option (d) is the correct answer

The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.

• Statement 1 is Correct: The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the president

• Statement 2 is Correct: The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president.This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

• Statement 3 is Correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘objective Resolution’ drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946. It was adopted unanimously by Constituent Assemble on 22 January 1947. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• After adopting the Preamble, it stands as part of the Constitution. Therefore, the current opinion on the preamble held by the Supreme Court is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers.

• The preamble was enacted only after the rest of the constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The reason for enacting the preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio: The statutory liquidity ratio refers to that proportion of total deposits which the commercial banks are required to keep with themselves in a liquid form. Commercial banks generally make use of this money to purchase government securities. Thus, the statutory liquidity ratio, on the one hand, is used to siphon off the excess liquidity of the banking system, and on the other, it is used to mobilize revenue for the government. SLR is a tool for controlling liquidity in the domestic market via manipulating bank credit. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Marginal Standing Facility: Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate refers to the rate at which the scheduled banks can borrow funds overnight from RBI against government securities. MSF is a very short-term borrowing scheme for scheduled commercial banks. Banks may borrow funds through MSF during severe cash shortage or acute shortage of liquidity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The MSF is the last resort for banks once they exhaust all borrowing options including the liquidity adjustment facility by pledging through government securities, which have a lower rate (i.e. repo rate) of interest in comparison with the MSF. 
• The MSF would be a penal rate for banks and the banks can borrow funds by pledging government securities within the limits of the statutory liquidity ratio. The scheme has been introduced by RBI with the main aim of reducing volatility in the overnight lending rates in the inter-bank market and to enable smooth monetary transmission in the financial system.
• MSF, being a penal rate, is always fixed above the repo rate. The MSF would be the last resort for banks once they exhaust all borrowing options including the liquidity adjustment facility by pledging government securities, where the rates are lower in comparison with the MSF. Hence statement 3 is correct. o MSF represents the upper band of the interest corridor with repo rate at the middle and reverse repo as the lower band.

• Primary deficit refers to the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and interest payments on previous borrowings. It indicates the borrowing requirements of the government, excluding Interest. It also shows how much of the government's expenses, other than interest payments, can be met through borrowings. A fiscal deficit is a difference between the government's total expenditure and total income. When the government spends more than its total income, such a situation is called a fiscal deficit. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Off-Budget borrowings are loans obtained by government entities, such as P.S.U.s or special purpose vehicles, on behalf of the government to finance its expenditure. According to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, these borrowings are not included while computing the debt and the fiscal deficit of the State governments. However, the State government is responsible for repaying the loan and servicing the debt from its Budget. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• A proportional tax is a taxing mechanism in which the taxing authority charges the same rate of tax from each taxpayer, irrespective of income. This means that lower, middle, or upper-class people pay the same tax. Since the tax is charged at a flat rate for everyone, whether earning higher income or lower income, it is also called a flat tax. Indian Income-tax levies tax on individual taxpayers on the basis of a slab system. A slab system means different tax rates are prescribed for different ranges of income. It means the tax rates keep increasing with an increase in the income of the taxpayer. This type of taxation enables progressive and fair tax systems in the country. Such income tax slabs tend to undergo a change during every Budget. Thus, the tax slabs of the new tax regime are not an example of proportional taxation. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The PDS is a food security program that provides subsidized food grains to eligible beneficiaries.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: JanDhan Yoiana is a financial inclusion program aimed at providing access to banking services to the unbanked population of India.

Indian Welfare Economy

• The Indian welfare economy refers to the economic system in India that incorporates social welfare policies and programs to address the needs of its citizens.
• India has adopted a mixed economy approach, blending elements of both capitalism and socialism, with a strong emphasis on social welfare measures to promote inclusive growth and reduce economic disparities.

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

• MGNREGA is a flagship social welfare program in India that guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households. It aims to provide livelihood security and enhance the purchasing power of rural workers.
• Through this program, millions ofhouseholds have been able to access employment opportunities, which not only uplift their economic condition but also contribute to rural development.

Public Distribution System (PDS)

• The PDS is a food security program that provides subsidized food grains to eligible beneficiaries. It ensures access to essential commodities like rice, wheat, and sugar for those who are economically disadvantaged.
• By making staple food items affordable, the PDS plays a crucial role in reducing hunger and malnutrition among the poor and vulnerable sections of society.

Jan Dhan Yojana

• Jan Dhan Yojana is a financial inclusion program aimed at providing access to banking services to the unbanked population of India. 
• Under this initiative, bank accounts are opened for individuals who previously did not have access to formal banking facilities.
• This program facilitates direct benefit transfers, enables individuals to save money, and promotes financial stability among the marginalized sections of society.

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)

• PMUY is a scheme launched by the Government of India to provide clean cooking fuel to households below the poverty line.
• It aims to replace traditional cooking fuels like wood and coal with Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), thus reducing indoor air pollution and health hazards.
• By providing LPG connections to economically disadvantaged households, PMUY has had a positive impact on the lives of millions of women and children in rural areas.

National Health Mission (NHM)

• NHM is a comprehensive healthcare program that focuses on improving public health infrastructure, enhancing access to quality healthcare services, and reducing maternal and child mortality rates.
• It aims to provide affordable and accessible healthcare to all sections of society, with a particular emphasis on rural areas and underprivileged communities.
• The NHM has contributed significantly to the expansion of healthcare facilities and the provision of essential services across the country.

Nitrogen cycle:

• Nitrogen is an essential component of protein and is required by all living organisms including human beings. Our atmosphere contains nearly 79% of nitrogen but it can not be used directly by the majority of living organisms. Broadly like carbon dioxide, nitrogen also cycles from the gaseous phase to solid phase then back to gaseous phase through the activity of a wide variety of organisms. Cycling of nitrogen is vitally important for all living organisms. There are five main processes in the nitrogen cycle which are,

Nitrogen fixation:

• This process involves conversion of gaseous nitrogen into Ammonia, a form in which it can be used by plants. Atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed by the following three methods:-
  • Atmospheric fixation: Lightening, combustion and volcanic activity help in the fixation of nitrogen.
  • Industrial fixation: At high temperatures (400oC) and high pressure (200atm.), molecular nitrogen is broken into atomic nitrogen which then combines with hydrogen to form ammonia.
  • Bacterial fixation: There are two types of bacteriaSymbiotic bacteria: E.g. Rhizobium in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
  • Freeliving: e.g. 1. Nostoc 2. Azobacter 3. Cyanobacteria can combine atmospheric or dissolved nitrogen with hydrogen to form ammonia.

Nitrification:

• It is a process by which ammonia is converted into nitrates or nitrites by Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus bacteria respectively. Another soil bacteria Nitrobacter can convert nitrate into nitrite. Hence Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Assimilation:

• Assimilation involves the conversion of gaseous nitrogen, typically atmospheric nitrogen (N2), into ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is vital because most plants cannot directly use atmospheric nitrogen. Hence Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Ammonification:

• Ammonification is the process by which nitrogenous waste products, such as urea and uric acid, and the remains of dead organisms are converted into inorganic ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is carried out by various decomposer organisms, particularly ammonifying bacteria. By breaking down organic nitrogen-containing compounds into ammonia, ammonification recycles nitrogen back into the ecosystem. This ammonia can then be further transformed in the nitrogen cycle. Hence Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Denitrification:

• The conversion of nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen is called denitrification. Denitrifying bacteria live deep in soil near the water table as they like to live in oxygen-free medium. Denitrification is the reverse of nitrogen fixation. Hence Pair 4 is not correctly matched.

• An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other chemicals. Carbon and energy requirements of the autotrophic organism are fulfilled by photosynthesis.
• Photosynthesis is the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside and convert them into stored forms of energy. This material is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water which is converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll. Carbohydrates are utilised for providing energy to the plant.
• The carbohydrates which are not used immediately are stored in the form of starch, which serves as the internal energy reserve to be used as and when required by the plant.
• The following events occur during this process of photosynthesis –
  • Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
  • Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
  • Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
• These steps need not take place one after the other immediately. For example, desert plants take up carbon dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Domestic Electric Circuit:

• In our homes, we receive a supply of electric power through a main supply (also called mains), either supported by overhead electric poles or by underground cables.
• One of the wires in this supply, usually with red insulation cover, is called live wire (or positive). Another wire, with black insulation, is called neutral wire (or negative).
• In our country, the potential difference between the two is 220 V. At the meter board in the house, these wires pass into an electricity meter through a main fuse. Through the main switch, they are connected to the line wires in the house. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• These wires supply electricity to separate circuits within the house. Often, two separate circuits are used, one of 15 A current ratings for appliances with higher power ratings such as geysers, air coolers, etc. The other circuit is of 5 A current rating for bulbs, fans, etc. The earth wire, which has insulation of green color, is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is used as a safety measure, especially for those appliances that have a metallic body, for example, electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator, etc.
• The metallic body is connected to the earth wire, which provides a low-resistance conducting path for the current. Thus, it ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the appliance keeps its potential to that of the earth, and the user may not get a severe electric shock. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Home appliances are connected in parallel to each other. The reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel are: All the appliances get their rated voltage so that they function efficiently. All the components can have their independent switch to control them. If one appliance gets faulty, it doesn't affect the other appliances. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statement Analysis:

• While ICICI Bank maintains its previous categorization, SBI and HDFC Bank have moved to higher buckets
• About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
• The BCBS finalized its framework for dealing with D-SIBs in October 2012. The D-SIB framework focuses on the impact that the distress or failure of banks will have on the domestic economy.
• As opposed to the G-SIB framework, D-SIB framework is based on the assessment conducted by the national authorities, who are best placed to evaluate the impact of failure on the local financial system and the local economy.
• The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in 2014. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
• The indicators which are used for assessment are: size, interconnectedness, substitutability and complexity.
• Based on their systemic importance scores in ascending order, banks are plotted into four different buckets and are required to have additional Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1) requirements ranging from 0.20% to 0.80% of risk weighted assets (RWA).
• CET1 is the highest quality of regulatory capital, as it absorbs losses immediately when they occur. It is a capital measure introduced in 2014 globally as a precautionary means to protect the economy from a financial crisis.
• RWA, are used to link the minimum amount of capital that banks must have, with the risk profile of the bank’s lending activities (and other assets).
• In case a foreign bank having branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain additional CET1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB, proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in India.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released its list of domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs) for 2023, including the State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.

King Ajatashatru was the ruler of Magadha, one of the most powerful Mahajanapadas.

• Magadha was a prominent kingdom located in present-day Uttar Pradesh and parts of Bihar.
• It played a significant role in the history of ancient India.
• Under Ajatashatru's rule, Magadha expanded its territory and increased its influence.

The Gathasaptasati, comprising 700 verses in Prakrit, is attributed to a Satavahana king named Hala.

Xuanzang, the famous Chinese pilgrim, described the reign of Harsha in detail in his travel accounts. His writings provide valuable insights into the political and cultural aspects of the Vardhana Dynasty.

Mahapadmananda was the greatest king of the Nanda dynasty. He conquered Kalinga and brought an image of Jina as a victory trophy. He claimed to be Ekarath (the sole sovereign).

The powerful class of zamindars was known by different names, such as deshmukhs, patils, nayaks, etc., during the Mughal period.

Tibet was influenced by Indian culture from the seventh century. The famous Buddhist king Gampo founded the city of Lhasa and introduced Buddhism to Tibet. The Tibetan alphabet was devised with the help of Indian scholars, and later, Indian scholars helped with the establishment of Lamaism in Tibet.

Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March, also known as the Salt March, in 1930. The march was a nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly and became a significant event in the civil disobedience movement.

The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed during the reign of King George III. It was an important legislative measure enacted by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the British East India Company in India. The act aimed to address issues of governance and administration, as well as to establish greater control over the company's operations in India.

The Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament in 1947. It marked the culmination of the Indian independence movement and led to the partition of British India into two separate nations: India and Pakistan. The act granted independence to both countries and established the framework for their respective governance. It also provided the legal basis for the transfer of power from British rule to the newly formed governments of India and Pakistan.

Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, in 1930. It was a significant civil disobedience campaign organized as part of the Indian independence movement against the British colonial rule. Gandhi and a group of followers marched from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat, where they defied the British salt monopoly laws by producing salt from seawater. The Dandi March played a pivotal role in mobilizing the masses and raising awareness about the Indian independence struggle.