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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 is part of OPSC OCS (Odisha) preparation. The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the OPSC OCS (Odisha) exam syllabus.The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 MCQs are made for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 below.
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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

Lokahitawadi is the famous pen name of:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • An outstanding champion of new learning and social reform in Maharashtra was Gopal Hari Deshmukh, who became famous by the pen‟ name of “Lokahilawadi‟. He advocated the reorganization of Indian society on rational principles and modern humanistic and secular values.

  • Karsonda Mulji born to a family belonging to the Bhatias, a trading caste of western India, he was repudiated by his family because of his views on widow remarriage. He became a vernacular schoolmaster and started Satyaprakash, a weekly in Gujarati, in which he attacked what he perceived to be the immoralities of the Maharajas or hereditary high priests of the Pushtimarg Vaishnavism, to which the Bhatias belonged.

  • After a visit to England on business in connection with the cotton trade, which was not successful and brought on him excommunication from his caste, he was appointed in 1874 to administer a native state in Kathiawar during the minority of the chief.

  • WIDOW REMARRIAGE ASSOCIATION was founded by Vishnu Shastri Pandit and Mahadev Govind Ranade in Bombay in 1861. It promoted widow remarriage and campaigned against child marriages, the heavy cost of marriages and customs like the shaving of widow’s head, etc.

  • Dadabhai Naoroji was educated at Elphinstone College, Bombay, he was a professor of mathematics and natural philosophy there before turning to politics and a career in commerce that took him to England, where he spent much of his life.

  • He stood unsuccessfully for election to Parliament in 1886. In 1892, however, he was elected Liberal member of Parliament for Central Finsbury, London. He became widely known for his unfavourable opinion of the economic consequences of British rule in India and was appointed a member of the royal commission on Indian expenditure in 1895. In 1886, 1893, and 1906 he also presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress, which led the nationalist movement in India. In the session of 1906 his conciliatory tactics helped to postpone the impending split between moderates and extremists in the Congress Party. In his many writings and speeches and especially in Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1901), Naoroji argued that India was too highly taxed and that its wealth was being drained away to England.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

What position did Salim al-Hoss hold in Lebanon?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

Salim al-Hoss served as the Prime Minister of Lebanon four times. His leadership spanned a significant period in Lebanese history, and he was recognized as a moral compass for the nation.

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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Which film earned Utpalendu Chakrabarty a National Award for Best Feature Film?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Utpalendu Chakrabarty received the National Award for Best Feature Film for his work on "Chokh." This film is notable for its artistic merit and storytelling, showcasing Chakrabarty’s significant contribution to Bengali cinema.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

What age was Maria Branyas Morera when she passed away?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

Maria Branyas Morera died at the age of 117 years and 168 days. She was recognized as the world's oldest living person before her passing, marking a significant milestone in longevity records.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

Who was known as "Paddy" among his peers?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

General Sundararajan Padmanabhan, the 20th Chief of The Army Staff of India, was affectionately called "Paddy" by his peers. He led the Indian Army during 'Operation PARAKRAM,' a significant military operation in India's history.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

What was Rakesh Pal’s role in the Indian Coast Guard?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

Rakesh Pal served as the Director General of the Indian Coast Guard. His leadership spanned over three decades, during which he contributed significantly to India's maritime security and operational effectiveness.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

R N Agarwal was awarded which prestigious honor in 2000?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

R N Agarwal received the Padma Bhushan award in 2000 for his outstanding contributions to the field of aerospace engineering, particularly in the development of the Agni missile series.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Which Indian state did Salseng C Marak serve as Chief Minister?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Salseng C Marak served as the Chief Minister of Meghalaya. He was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and played a key role in the state's political landscape during his tenure.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

What notable book did K Natwar Singh publish?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

K Natwar Singh authored the autobiography "One Life is Not Enough." The book provides insights into his life as a diplomat and politician, reflecting on his experiences in Indian politics.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

Tsung-Dao Lee won the Nobel Prize for his work in which field?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

Tsung-Dao Lee was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics for his significant contributions to understanding the symmetry of subatomic particles. His work has had a lasting impact on the field of theoretical physics.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

What was Shobhana Ranade known for?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

Shobhana Ranade was renowned for her social work, particularly in uplifting underprivileged women and children. She dedicated her life to social causes and was awarded the Padma Bhushan for her contributions.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

Which year did Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee serve as Chief Minister of West Bengal?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee served as the Chief Minister of West Bengal from 2000 to 2011. His leadership marked a significant period in the state's political history, during which he was the second and last CPI(M) Chief Minister.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 13

Yamini Krishnamurthy was associated with which art form?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 13

Yamini Krishnamurthy was a celebrated exponent of Indian classical dance, particularly known for her performances in Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, and Odissi. She received multiple prestigious awards for her contributions to the arts.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Bhakti movement preached the principle of monotheism.

  2. Idol Worshiping started flourishing in this movement

  3. This movement advocated salvation and could obtain deep devotion and faith in guru.

Which of the given above statements are not correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14
  • Statement 1 is correct: The movement has traditionally been considered as an influential social reformation in Hinduism and provided an individual-focused alternative path to spirituality regardless of one’s caste of birth or gender. The bhakti reformers preached the principles of monotheism (oneness of God).

  • Statement 2 is not correct: They believed in freedom from the cycle of life and death. Theyadvocated that salvation could be attained only by deep devotion and faith in God. They advocated the principle of Universal brotherhood and criticized idol worship.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: They stressed the singing of hymns with deep devotion. Arguing that all living beings, including humans, were god’s children they strongly denounced the caste system which divided people according to their birth. They emphasized the self-surrender for obtaining the bliss and grace of God. Gurus could act as guides and preceptors.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

Consider the statements regarding Ashokan Edicts:

  1. These are written mainly in Brahmi and Prakrit script.

  2. The Third Major Rock Edict narrates the story of Kalinga war.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • The great Emperor Ashoka, the third monarch of the Maurya dynasty converted to Buddhism after witnessing the horrific effects of war in Kalinga.

  • He became a champion and patron of Buddhism and strove to spread Dhamma throughout his empire and beyond. He erected pillars and edicts all over the subcontinent and even in modern-day Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan to spread the Buddha’s word.

  • James Prinsep, a British antiquary and colonial administrator was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s edicts. These inscriptions are the first tangible evidence of Buddhism. They were kept in public places and along trade routes so that maximum number of people would read them.

  • More than religious discourses, they talk about the moral duties of the people, how to conduct life, Ashoka’s desire to be a good and benevolent ruler, and about Ashoka’s work towards this end.

  • These inscriptions can be classified into three: Pillar edicts, Major rock edicts and Minor rock edicts.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Asokan edicts are written mainly in Prakrit language and Brahmi script. In eastern part of the empire, Magadhi language in Brahmi script is used. (Magadhi is the dialect of Prakrit found in Magadha). In western parts of the Mauryan Empire, Prakrit in kharosthi script is used. Major Rock Edict XIII contains an extract in Greek and Aramaic as well.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: 13th Major Rock edict mentions victory over Kalinga. Mentions Ashoka’s Dhamma victory over Greek Kings Antiochus of Syria (Amtiyoko), Ptolemy of Egypt (Turamaye), Magas of Cyrene (Maka), Antigonus of Macedon (Amtikini), Alexander of Epirus (Alikasudaro). Also mentions Pandyas, Cholas, etc.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

“He was an important poet in the early phase of the Gupta period and wrote thirteen plays. He wrote in Sanskrit, but his dramas also contain a substantial amount of Prakrit. He was the author of a drama called Daridra Charudatta, which was later refashioned as Mrichchhakatika or the Little Clay Cart”.

He was:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Bhasa was an important poet in the early phase of the Gupta period and wrote thirteen plays. He wrote in Sanskrit, but his dramas also contain a substantial amount of Prakrit. He was the author of a drama called Daridra Charudatta, which was later refashioned as Mrichchhakatika or the Little Clay Cart.

  • Bhasa is one of the earliest and most celebrated Indian playwrights in Sanskrit, predating Kalidasa. The plays of Bhāsa had been lost for centuries, until the manuscripts were rediscovered in the early 20th century.

  • He was known only from the mentions in other works like the text Kavyamimamsa on poetics written during 880–920 AD. In the Kavyamimamsa, Rajashekhara attributes the play Swapnavasavadattam to Bhāsa.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

Consider the following regarding Asokan religious policy:

  1. He didn’t tried to disrupt existing social order by his dhamma policy.

  2. He disapproved rituals and killing of all animals and birds.

  3. He appointed officers named ‘rajukas’ for propagating dhamma.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17
Option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Asoka tried to teach compassion by way of live and let live. He tried to preserve social order and weed put unwanted rituals and cruelty.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Asoka disapproved rituals especially by women. He was against killing of certain birds and animals.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: He appointed officer named ‘‘dharma mahamatras' for propagating his idea of dhamma.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Thoda’ is a martial art of Himachal Pradesh.

  2. The earliest coins of Ancient India was punch marked coins, made up of gold.

  3. ‘Barygaza’ was the Ancient port situated in western India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Thoda is originated in the State of Himachal Pradesh, Thoda is a mixture of martial arts, sport and culture. It takes place during Baisakhi (13th and 14th April) every year. A number of community prayers are done so as to invoke the blessings of Goddesses Mashoo and Durga, the principal deities. The game is quite popular in various parts of the State including Narkanda block, Theong division (Shimla district), Chopal division, Solan and Sirmaur district. The martial art relies on a player’s skill of archery. Thoda can be dated back to the Mahabharata, the times when bows and arrows were used in the epic battle, in the valleys of Kullu and Manali. Hence, Thoda finds its genesis in Kullu. Its name is derived from the round wooden piece attached to the head of an arrow to minimise its lethal potential. The equipment required for this game, i.e. wooden bows and arrows, are prepared by traditional skilled artisans. The bow’s range is from 1.5 to 2 meters, depending.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The earliest coins were casted coins and were die-struck only on one side. One to five marks or symbols incused on single side and termed as ‘Punch Marked’ coins. Panini’s Ashtadhyayi cites that in punch marked coins, the metallic pieces were stamped with symbols. Each unit was called ‘Ratti’ weighing 0.11 gram. The first trace of this coin was available in the period between sixth and second century BC. Following two of its classifications are available: Punch marked coins issued by various Mahajanapadas (around 6th century BC): The first Indian punch marked coins called Puranas, Karshapanas or Pana were minted in the 6th century BC by the various Janapadas and Mahajanapadas of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. These coins had irregular shapes, standard weight and were made up of silver with different markings like Saurashtra had a humped bull, Dakshin Panchala had a Swastika and Magadha had generally five symbols. Magadhan punch-marked coins became.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Bharuch, formerly known as Broach, is a city at the mouth of the river Narmada in Gujarat in western India. In 3rd century BC it was a major trade route, through which Spice and silk was traded to Arab countries.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

Which of the following are characteristics of Hindustani music:

  1. Improvisations are not allowed.

  2. Influenced by Persian music.

  3. More emphasis on vocal music than on instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: There is scope for improvisations and variations in Hindustani music. Whereas in Carnatic music, it is not present.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Hindustani music is influenced by Arab, Persian and Afghan music. Carnatic music is indigenous.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Vocal music and instruments are equally important in Hindustani music. In Carnatic music, more emphasis is given on vocal music in comparison to instruments. Hindustani classical music is an Indian classical music tradition. It originated in North India around the 13th and 14th centuries. In contrast to Carnatic music, the other main Indian classical music tradition from South India, Hindustani classical music was not only influenced by ancient Hindu musical traditions and Vedic philosophy but also by the Persian elements. Hindustani classical music is the most popular stream of Indian music. Hindustani music is based on the raga system.

  • The Raga is a melodic scale, comprising of notes from the basic seven- Sa, Re, Ga, Ma Pa, Dha and Ni. On the basis of notes included in it, each raga attains a different character. The form of the raga is also determined by the particular pattern of ascent and descent of the notes, which may not be strictly linear. Hindustani classical music is primarily vocal-centric. The major vocal forms associated with Hindustani classical music are the khayal, Ghazal, dhrupad, dhammar, tarana and thumri. Dhrupad style of singing is traditionally performed by men with a tanpura and pakhawaj. The lyrics sung in Dhrupad are in a medieval form of Hindi and typically heroic in theme, or in praise of a particular deity.

  • A more adorned form is called dhamar. The place of dhrupad has been taken by somewhat less austere and more free-form khayal. Khayal consists of about 4-8 lines of lyrics set to a tune. The performer uses these few lines as the base for improvisation. The Khayal form of Hindustani classical music is ascribed to Hussain Shah Sharqui, the 15th century ruler of the Sharqi dynasty. It was made popular by the 18th century rule of Mohammed Shah. Some of the modern day vocalists are Bhimsen Joshi, Nagraj Havaldar, Kishori Amonkar, Ulhas Kashalkar, Ajoy Chakraborty, Prabakar Karekar, Pandit Jasraj, Rashid Khan, Aslam Khan, Shruti Sadolikar, Chandrasekhar Swami and Mashkoor Ali Khan. Another vocal form of Hindustani music is Tarana.

  • Tarana are songs that are used to convey a feeling of joy and are usually performed towards the end of a concert. Thumri is an informal vocal form of Hindustani classical music and is said to have begun with the court of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, the Nawab of Oudh. Originally, a Persian form of vocal music, Ghazal is an important part of Hindustani Classical music. Ghazal exists in multiple variations, including folk and pop forms. Some notable Ghazal performers include Ghulam Ali, Jagjit Singh, Mehndi Hassan and Pankaj Udhas. The themes of Ghazals range from love, joy and piety.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

  1. Mahatma Gandhi believed that Western education would make Indians more liable to attack the colonial misrule.

  2. Mahatma Gandhi strongly felt that Indian languages ought to be the medium of teaching in schools.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20
Mahatma Gandhi argued that colonial education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It made them see Western civilization as superior, and destroyed the pride they had in their own culture. There was poison in this education, said Mahatma Gandhi, it was sinful, it enslaved Indians, and it cast an evil spell on them. Charmed by the West, appreciating everything that came from the West, Indians educated in these institutions began admiring British rule.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi strongly felt that Indian languages ought to be the medium of teaching. Education in English crippled Indians, distanced them from their own social surroundings, and made them “strangers in their own lands”. Speaking a foreign tongue, despising local culture, the English educated did not know how to relate to the masses.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 21

Before 1765, the Company had purchased goods in India by importing gold and silver from Britain as Britain’s exports to India was miniscule. But after 1765, East India Company (EIC) managed to finance the purchase of goods for export. Which of the following reasons made this possible?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 21
The Company had obtained the Diwani rights, but it still saw itself primarily as a trader. It wanted a large revenue income but was unwilling to set up any regular system of assessment and collection. The effort was to increase the revenue as much as it could and buy fine cotton and silk cloth as cheaply as possible. Within five years the value of goods bought by the Company in Bengal doubled. Before 1765, the Company had purchased goods in India by importing gold and silver from Britain. Now the revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods for export.
OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 22

“It is a type of hand-painted or block- printed cotton textile, produced in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Only natural dyes are used in these prints. Floral designs are popular among these paintings and prints”.

Which of the following correctly describes the art mentioned above:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 22
Kalamkari is a type of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile, produced in Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Only natural dyes are used in Kalamkari and it involves twenty- three steps.

There are two distinctive styles of kalamkari art in India - Srikalahasti style and the

Machilipatnam style. The Srikalahasti style of Kalamkari (Kalankari), wherein the "kalam" or pen is used for freehand drawing of the subject and filling in the colors, is entirely hand worked. This style flowered around temples and their patronage and so had an almost religious identity - scrolls, temple hangings, chariot banners and the like, depicted deities and scenes taken from the Hindu epics - Ramayana, Mahabharata, Purana and the mythological classics. This style owes its present status to Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay who popularized the art as the first Chairperson of the All India Handicrafts Board.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

With reference to the caste movements in the 19th century, consider the following statements:

  1. The Satnami movement was founded by Ghasidas to improve the social status of leather workers.

  2. Shri Narayan guru proclaimed the idea of unity among the Brahmanical class.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Satnami movement in Central India was founded in 1820s by Ghasidas who worked among the leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social status. Ghasidas was a farm servant and member of the Chamar caste (a Dalit caste whose hereditary occupation was leather tanning, a task regarded by Hindus as polluting). His Satnam Panth (“Path of the True Name”) succeeded in providing a religious and social identity for large numbers of Chattisgarh Chamars (who formed one-sixth of the total population of the region), in defiance of their derogatory treatment by upper-caste Hindus and their exclusion from Hindu temple worship. Ghasidas is remembered for having thrown images of Hindu gods onto a rubbish heap. He preached a code of ethical and dietary self-restraint and social equality.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In what is present-day Kerala, a guru from Ezhava caste, Shri Narayana Guru, proclaimed the ideals of unity for his people. He argued against treating people unequally on the basis of caste differences. According to him, all humankind belonged to the same caste. One of his famous statements was: “oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, one god for humankind). Even as a child he had strong abhorrence toward the caste distinctions and untouchability and he always protested against injustice; he himself consecrated a temple dedicated to Lord Shiva in Aruvippuram in 1888. When questioned by the Brahmins, he replied that he had consecrated a Shiva belonging to his community. The irony of the message was very clear – how could Shiva be owned by any particular community? It was a strong warning to the upper castes and a bold proclamation that everyone irrespective of his caste or religion has the right to realize God; He opened a Sanskrit school at Sivagiri to teach poor students, irrespective of their caste;He believed that other than the freedom from the curse of untouchability, the downtrodden classes needed education and wealth. They needed opportunities to improve like others. He was a real Karma Yogi and his whole life was dedicated for the betterment of the suppressed.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding Rabindranath Tagore’s views on education:

  1. He believed that creative learning could be encouraged within a natural environment only.

  2. He wanted to combine the best of both Western and Indian education systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24
Tagore felt that childhood ought to be a time of self-learning, outside the rigid and restricting discipline of the schooling system set up by the British. Teachers had to be imaginative, understand the child, and help the child develop her curiosity. According to Tagore, the existing schools killed the natural desire of the Child to be creative, her sense of wonder.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Tagore was of the view that creative learning could be encouraged only within a natural environment. So he chose to set up his school 100 kilometers away from Calcutta, in a rural setting. He saw it as an abode of peace (santiniketan), where living in harmony with nature, children could cultivate their natural creativity.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Gandhi was highly critical of Western civilization and its worship of machines and technology. Tagore wanted to combine elements of modern Western civilisation with what he saw as the best within Indian tradition. He emphasized the need to teach science and technology at Santiniketan, along with art, music and dance.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) was signed between Congress and the British during the discussions at Round Table Conference in London.

  2. Viceroy Irwin assured gradual transition from dominion status to Poorna Swaraj under the Pact.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) was not signed during the discussions at Round Table Conference in London. Through this pact Irwin secured participation of Congress in the second Round Table Conference.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Through Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) Gandhiji secured certain economic and political concessions. There was no promise made by Irwin regarding Dominion status or Poorna Swaraj under the Pact.

    • By the terms “Gandhi-Irwin Pact’ the civil disobedience was to be called off, all prisoners were to be released, and salt manufactures were allowed along the coast.

    • The pact was criticised by radical nationalists, for Gandhiji was unable to obtain from the Viceroy a commitment to political independence for Indians; he could obtain merely an assurance of talks towards that possible end.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Which of the following were part of the Gandhian strategy during National freedom movement?

  1. Timely withdrawal of the movement.

  2. Direct confrontation with the British.

  3. Constitutional path to extract reforms.

  4. Building up social cohesion among all sections of the society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26
Gandhiji followed all the mentioned methods during freedom struggle.
  • Statement 1 is correct: He used to withdraw his movements when he found the people’s confidence and motivation coming down. E.g. Non Cooperation Movement.

  • Statement 2 is correct: He believed that Mass Movements could not be carried on for long durations. At time he used to confront the British directly in order to extract reforms.

  • Statement 3 is correct: He was a firm believer in constitution path particularly in initial phase.

  • Statement 4 is correct: He took with him all the sections of the society as he addressed the causes of all. For instance, NCM was a good example of Hindu Muslim unity and women and students also participated in the movement.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

What will happen if the Earth’s core cools down ?

1. The convection mechanism within the earth stops.

2. The Earth will lose its continental drift resulting in the absence of volcanic eruptions, earthquakes etc.,

3. The magnetic field of Earth will disappear.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

Earth's geomagnetic field originates in the fluid outer core. Like boiling water on a stove, convective forces (which move heat from one place to another, usually through air or water) constantly churn the molten metals, which also swirl in whirlpools driven by Earth's rotation. As this roiling mass of metal moves around, it generates electrical currents hundreds of miles wide and flowing at thousands of miles per hour as Earth rotates. This mechanism, which is responsible for maintaining Earth's magnetic field, is known as the geodynamo.

Cooling of the Earth's core leads to stopping the convection mechanism within the Earth and also leads to disappear the magnetic shield around the planet, which protects Earth from cosmic radiation. When the Earth has cooled completely, the movement in the mantle will also stop eventually. Then, the plates on the surface will no longer move, and Volcanoes will no longer erupt; the continents will stop drifting, clashing, and causing earthquakes. The magnetic field will disappear, and the planet will become similar to Mars. So, Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

Which of the following is/are not the effects of soil erosion ?

1. Increase in Frequency and intensity of floods and drought

2. Increase in water holding capacity of Rivers

3. Lowering of Groundwater level

4. Uneven Nutrient distribution

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

Soil erosion is the displacement of the upper layer of soil (called topsoil). It is a naturally occurring process that affects all landforms. However, certain human activities greatly enhance this process and contribute to significant soil loss. The intensity of soil erosion has also increased due to increased landslides, floods and drought. Soil erosion decreases soil fertility, which can negatively affect crop yields. It also sends soil-laden water downstream, which can create heavy layers of sediment that prevent streams and rivers from flowing smoothly and can eventually lead to flooding. The fertile soil on the top most surface of the dry agricultural land is easily blown away by the wind, which causes soil erosion. So, scarcity of water during drought increases soil erosion. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The raindrops dispersed the soil and washed away into the nearby streams and rivers. Regions with very heavy and frequent rainfall face a large amount of soil loss. When topsoil has eroded, the loss of organic matter can alter the soil's physical properties, especially soil density. Higher clay content at the surface can reduce infiltration of topsoil reducing soil recharge, thus reducing water availability to the plants. The flowing water during floods also erodes a lot of soil by creating potholes, rock-cut basins, etc. Thus, erosion decreases the water holding capacity of the rivers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Groundwater erosion is the process by which groundwater erodes part of the bedrock as it passes through. This is primarily due to carbonic acid in the groundwater, which forms when rainwater picks up carbon dioxide in the atmosphere as it falls. The soil erosion mechanisms affect how much water the soil can hold, how rapidly water flows over the soil and its movement below the surface. Soil erosion adversely hinders the growth of plants, agricultural yields, quality of water, and recreation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Soil erosion reduces the agricultural value of lands via physicochemical degradations. Soil nutrient loss through runoff and sediment is a major driver for soil fertility decline. The eroded sediments or soil are highly concentrated with crop nutrients, which are washed away from farmlands. Some conditions under which erosion can help distribute nutrients across a given area of land. The first condition under which this can occur is a condition of uneven soil nutrient distribution. In such a scenario, nutrients in the form of compost, mulch, or chemical fertilizer; are concentrated heavily in a defined area of land, while the concentration may be very low (relatively) in adjacent areas. A condition like this is unfavorable to the health of the soil and the optimal functioning of the entire ecosystem. Erosion can resolve the problem of uneven nutrient distribution when it occurs mildly or in a cyclic fashion. So, Statement 4 is correct.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

 Consider the following pairs : Features River Stage
1. Gorge - Youth
2. Meander - Middle
3. Oxbow lake - Old
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

 Upper, middle and lower are the three courses into which a river valley is divided. Young rivers ( (A) denotes the below picture for the formation of the Young river) close to their source tend to be fast-flowing, high-energy environments with rapid downward and headward erosion, despite the hardness of the rock over which they may flow. The land features carved by a river in its upper course are as follows:

  • Gorges,
  • Canyons,
  • V' shaped valleys,
  • Rapids,
  • Cataracts, and
  • Waterfalls A gorge is a narrow valley with steep, rocky walls between hills or mountains.

The term comes from the French word gorge, which means throat or neck. So, Pair 1 is correct.

Mature rivers or Middle ( (B) denotes the above picture for mature river formation ) are lower-energy systems. Erosion takes place outside bends, creating looping meanders in the soft alluvium of the river plain. Deposition occurs on the inside of the bends and the river bed. Some of the land features formed by a river in its middle course are alluvial fans and meanders. A meander is a bend in the course of a river channel. A meander is formed in the middle course of a river; when the river leaves the mountains, it encounters a sudden slope break and slows down. The plains are broad and gentle. So the river has more time to amble away down to the sea. So, Pair 2 is correct.

Oxbow lakes are formed when the neck of a looping meander is broken through, usually during times of flood. They are U-shaped or curved bends in a river that are cut off from the main river flow, forming a lake. In the lower course of the river, meanders become much more pronounced. The outer or concave bank is so rapidly eroded that the meander becomes almost a complete circle. A time comes when the river cuts through the narrow neck of the loop. The meander, now cut off from the mainstream, takes the form of an oxbow lake. In the lower course or the stage of old age, the land features produced by the river are meanders, flood plains, braided steam, oxbow lakes, deltas and estuaries. So, Pair 3 is correct.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

 With reference to the Danube River, consider the following statements:

1. It is the most international river in the world.

2. It is the longest River in Europe.

3. Major tributaries include the Tisza, Drava, Sava, Inn, and Prut rivers.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

Statement 1 is correct: Crossing through ten countries and draining some 817,000 km² and the territory of 18 countries, the Danube is the most international river in the world.

  • Flowing from Germany’s Black Forest to the Danube Delta in Romania and Ukraine and the Black Sea, the Danube is Europe’s only major river which flows west to east, from Central to Eastern Europe Statement 2 is not correct: The Danube is the longest river of the European Union and Europe’s second-longest after the Volga.
  • The European Commission now recognizes the Danube as the “single most important non oceanic body of water in Europe” and a “future central axis for the European Union”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Major tributaries of the Danube include the Tisza, Drava, Sava, Inn, and Prut rivers. 
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