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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 (80 Questions)

You can boost your UPSC 2026 exam preparation with this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of UPSC 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 80
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

A sum of money is invested at a certain rate of interest per annum. After 2 years, the amount becomes 2.25 times the original sum. If the interest is compounded annually, what is the rate of interest?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Let the original sum of money be P, and the rate of interest per annum be R%
After 2 years, the amount becomes 2.25 times the original sum.
So, the amount after 2 years is 2.25P.
The formula for compound interest:
Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate/100)Time
So, 2.25P = P x (1 + R/100)2
or 2.25 = (1 + R/100)2
or √2.25 = 1 + R/100
or √2.25 - 1 = R/100
or 1.5 - 1 = R/100
or 0.5 = R/100 or R = 50
Therefore, the rate of interest is 50%.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow it. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage – 1 There is growing evidence that organic farming is a rapidly expanding economic sector in the U.S. However, an unanswered question is whether organic farmers are better off than conventional farmers when it comes to farm household income. Using large farm-level data and a matching estimator, one of the studies explores the relationship between organic certification and farm household income with its various components. Contrary to expectations, certified organic farmers do not earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers. Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue, they incur higher production expenses as well. In particular, certified organic producers spend significantly more on labour, insurance, and marketing charges than conventional farmers. The results suggest that the lack of economic incentives can be an important barrier to conversion to organic farming.

Q. Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

  1. Research on farm-level data is required to reduce the cost of organic farming in comparison with conventional farming.
  2. The net profit in organic farming is significantly higher than conventional farming due to higher revenues from certified organic crops.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 2

  • Inference 1 is incorrect. The line “Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue, they incur higher production expenses as well”, shows that the production cost of organic farming is high. However, nowhere has it been mentioned in the passage that research on farm level data will help in reducing the cost of organic farming. Therefore, this inference is not correct.
  • Inference 2 is incorrect. Refer to the line: ―Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue, they incur higher production expenses as well” and “Contrary to expectations, certified organic farmers do not earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers.” The revenue might be high in organic farming sector, but the input cost is also high. So, the net profit (revenue – input cost) might not be significantly higher in organic farming.  Therefore, this inference is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow it. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage – 1 There is growing evidence that organic farming is a rapidly expanding economic sector in the U.S. However, an unanswered question is whether organic farmers are better off than conventional farmers when it comes to farm household income. Using large farm-level data and a matching estimator, one of the studies explores the relationship between organic certification and farm household income with its various components. Contrary to expectations, certified organic farmers do not earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers. Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue, they incur higher production expenses as well. In particular, certified organic producers spend significantly more on labour, insurance, and marketing charges than conventional farmers. The results suggest that the lack of economic incentives can be an important barrier to conversion to organic farming.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

  • Option (a) is incorrect. As per the passage “Contrary to expectations, certified organic farmers do not earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers.” Conventional farming is not more profitable than organic farming but is mildly less profitable. So, to say that conventional farming is highly profitable is not correct.
  • Option (b) is incorrect. Refer to the lines “There is growing evidence that organic farming is a rapidly expanding economic sector in the U.S.” Clearly, organic farming is expanding rapidly in the U.S. It is incorrect to say that organic farming is witnessing reduced growth in the U.S.
  • Option (c) is correct. The lines “Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue; they incur higher production expenses as well. In particular, certified organic producers spend significantly more on labour, insurance, and marketing charges than conventional farmers”, reflect that organic farming involves higher input costs which reduces the net profits. Therefore, as per the passage, it would be correct to say that rationalising these expenses will help in making organic farming more profitable.
  • Option (d) is incorrect. The passage deals mostly with the economic aspects of organic farming vis-à-vis conventional farming. The environmental aspects are not touched upon in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Anurag gains a profit of 25% by selling an item at ₹ 3920. What is the profit earned by him?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Profit = 25%
Selling price = ₹ 3920
∴ Cost price = ₹ {(3920/125) × 100} = ₹ 3136
Profit = Selling price – Cost price = 3920 - 3136 = ₹ 784
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Ramesh and Suresh bought mangoes from the market at the same price. Ramesh made a profit of 20% by selling his mangoes. What must be the profit percentage earned by Suresh if he sold his mangoes at double the selling price of Ramesh?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Let cost price of mangoes be ₹ x
Ramesh’s profit is 20%.
∴ Selling price = 120% of x = 6x/5
Suresh sells the mangoes at double the price.
So, selling price of Suresh = 12x/5
Profit = SP – CP = (12x/5) – x = ₹ 7x/5
∴ Profit percent = (Profit / CP) × 100 = (7x/5) × (1/x) × 100 = 140%
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

A person has invested some money in a policy that gives 10% return for the first year and 20% return for the subsequent years. What will be the value of the money for the amount a person invests after a period of six years?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Let the initial amount invested be A.
Return on investment for the first year is 10% and for subsequent years is 20%.
Amount after 1 year = (110/100) × A = 1.1A
Amount after second year = (120/100) × 1.1A = 1.1A × 1.2
Similarly, amount after six years = 1.1 × (1.2)5 A
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the breadth is increased by 25%. What will be the net percentage increase in the area of the rectangle?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Let the initial length and breadth of a rectangle be l and b respectively.
Initial area of rectangle = l × b = lb
New Length after it got increased by 20% = 120/100 × l = 1.2l
New Breadth after it got increased by 25%= 125/100 × b = 1.25b
New Area = 1.2l × 1.25 b = 1.5lb
Net change in area = New Area – Initial area = 1.5lb – lb = 0.5lb
Percentage increase in area = Net increase in area / original area × 100 = 0.5lb/lb × 100 = 50%
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Salary of A and B is 30% and 40% more than the salary of C respectively. If A’s salary is X% of the salary of B, then X is equal to -

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Let salary of C = ₹ 100
Salary of A = ₹ 130
Salary of B = ₹ 140
According to the question,
(130/140) × 100 = X
Or X = 650 / 7
Or X = 92 (6/7)
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage
Governments, organisations, and individuals increasingly generate, collect and process personal data.
Data protection seeks to balance the benefits and the risks of personal data processing so that individuals have confidence that their data is collected and stored safely and used solely for legitimate purposes. Data protection laws typically require personal data processing to be lawful, limited, transparent, accurate and secure. They often seek to protect individuals’ privacy and grant some control over how personal data about them is processed. They also typically establish institutions with powers to conduct investigations and enforce obligations. A strong data protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and innovation in the digital economy and uptake of digital government and private sector services.

Q. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. India already has in place a robust data protection framework which balances the benefits and the risks of personal data processing.
  2. Data protection is important not only for privacy concerns, but also for the economic growth of a country.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

  • Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage talks about data protection in general, and the need to balance the benefits and the risks of personal data processing. There is no mention about whether or not India has a robust data processing framework. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
  • Assumption 2 is correct. The given assumption is correct as it validates the line “A strong data protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and innovation in the digital economy and uptake of digital government and private sector services.” Therefore, it is correct to say that data protection is important both for privacy concerns and economic growth of the country.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage
Governments, organisations, and individuals increasingly generate, collect and process personal data.
Data protection seeks to balance the benefits and the risks of personal data processing so that individuals have confidence that their data is collected and stored safely and used solely for legitimate purposes. Data protection laws typically require personal data processing to be lawful, limited, transparent, accurate and secure. They often seek to protect individuals’ privacy and grant some control over how personal data about them is processed. They also typically establish institutions with powers to conduct investigations and enforce obligations. A strong data protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and innovation in the digital economy and uptake of digital government and private sector services.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

  • Option (a) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct because the passage does not mention the context of “high incidences” of the misuse of personal data. The author only says that data processing frameworks should ensure that individuals have confidence that their data is collected and stored safely and used solely for legitimate purposes. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
  • Option (b) is correct. Refer to the line: ―Governments, organisations, and individuals increasingly generate, collect and process personal data.” There are diverse stakeholders. Furthermore, data protection laws typically require personal data processing to be lawful, limited, transparent, accurate and secure. On top of it individuals’ need some control over how personal data about them is processed. All this makes the development of a strong data protection regime is a complex process. This answer option is correct.
  • Option (c) is incorrect. As discussed above, framing a strong data protection regime is a complex task.
  • Despite this complexity, the author is optimistic about the formulation of this regime. The author says that a strong data protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and innovation. Had it been impossible to achieve, the author would not talk about the benefits of having a data protection regime. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a strong data protection framework is impossible to achieve.
  • Option (d) is incorrect. The author mentions that governments, organisations, and individuals increasingly generate, collect and process personal data. So, they are important stakeholders in data processing framework. The passage also mentions the concerns of individuals – privacy concerns, some control over how personal data about them is processed, etc. However, we cannot say that the concerns of the individuals should be ranked higher than that of governments and private sector.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

If Sanjeev invests a certain amount of money at simple interest, it will get doubled in 12.5 years. In how much time will this money get tripled?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Let principal be ₹ P.
Amount = ₹ 2P, Time = 12.5 = 25/2 years, Rate = R%
Simple interest = 2P – P = ₹P
Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100
Or P = (P × R × 25)/(2 × 100) Or R = 8%
New Amount = ₹ 3P, Principal = ₹ P, R = 8%
Simple interest = 3P – P = ₹ 2P
So, Time = (Simple interest × 100)/(Principal × Rate) = (2P × 100)/(P × 8) = 25 years
Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Animesh purchased a certain number of lemons. He sold one-third of the lemons at a profit of 20%.
Consider the following statements.

  1. To gain an overall profit of 25%, he needs to make a profit of 27.5% on the remaining lemons.
  2. To gain an overall profit of 25%, he needs to sell the remaining two-third lemons at double the selling price of the one-third lemons he sold earlier.

Which of the statements given above is/are right?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Let total cost price of lemons be ₹ 300.
Statement 1: According to statement 1, overall profit should be 25%.
∴ Total selling price = 300 + 300 × 25/100 = 300 +75 = ₹ 375
Now, C.P. of 1/3rd lemons, CP1 = ₹100
and C.P. of 2/3rd lemons, CP2 = ₹200
Selling price of 1/3rd lemons, SP1 = 100 × 20/100 = ₹ 120
∴ Selling price of 2/3rd lemons,
SP2 = Total selling price – Selling price of 1/3rd lemons = 375 – 120 = ₹255
So, Required percentage = {(255 – 200) / 200} × 100 % = 27.5%
So, statement 1 is right.
Statement 2: SP2 = 255 and SP1 = 120 So, SP2 is more than double of SP1.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Study the graph given below carefully and answer the question that follows.

Increase in profit in scheme A in year 2016 with respect to the previous year was what percent of the increase in profit in scheme B in 2018 with respect to the previous year?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Increase in profit in scheme A in 2016 = 100 - 45 = 55
Increase in profit in scheme B in 2018 = 70 - 45 = 25
Required percent = (55 × 100)/25 = 55 × 4 = 220%
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

By selling 16 articles, a seller loses the selling price of 4 articles. Find his loss percent.

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Let the selling price of 1 article = Rs. 1.
So the selling price of 16 articles = Rs. 16.
And loss = Rs. 4 So the cost price = 16 + 4 = Rs. 20.
Hence the percentage of loss = 4/20 × 100 = 20%
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Satya buys a pair of slippers for ₹500 and sells them to Sachin at a profit of 20%. Therafter, Sachin sells those slippers to Nitin at a profit of 10%.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Sachin paid ₹100 more than Satya.
(ii) Nitin gave ₹660 to Satya.
(iii) Sachin gave ₹600 to Satya.
Which of the statements given above is/are right?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Satya buys a pair of slippers for ₹500 and sells them to Sachin at a profit of 20%.
∴ Cost price for Sachin = 120% of 500 = (500 x 120)/100 = ₹ 600
Sachin sells the slippers to Nitin at a profit of 10%.
Cost price for Nitin = 110% of 600 = (600 × 110)/100 = ₹ 660
Checking each statement.
Statement (i): Sachin paid ₹ 600, which is ₹ 100 more than what Satya paid.
Statement (ii): Nitin gave ₹ 660 to Sachin, not Satya.
Statement (iii): Sachin gave ₹600 to Satya
So, statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.  

Passage
The IPCC Land Report estimates that land serves as a large CO2 sink. There is a growing body of evidence that a large proportion of the required removals could be achieved by conserving natural sinks, improving biodiversity protection, and restoring ecosystems. Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems and natural sinks and transformative agricultural practices under the leadership of indigenous people and local communities is a far more equitable and cost-effective way of tackling the climate crisis than it is being done now. We need to realize that the climate crisis is just a symptom; our real problem is that human consumption and activity have exceeded the regenerative. Technology, at best, can assist us, not lead us, on the pathway to a sustainable, regenerative and equitable world. 

Q. Which of the following is the most rational and logical inference from the above passage? 

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems and natural sinks is more equitable and cost-effective for addressing the climate crisis than current methods. This approach involves:

  • Conserving natural sinks.
  • Enhancing biodiversity protection.
  • Restoring ecosystems.
  • Involving indigenous people and local communities in agricultural practices.

Ultimately, the real issue is that human consumption has surpassed the planet's regenerative capacity, not merely the climate crisis itself.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.  

Passage

The IPCC Land Report estimates that land serves as a large CO2 sink. There is a growing body of evidence that a large proportion of the required removals could be achieved by conserving natural sinks, improving biodiversity protection, and restoring ecosystems. Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems and natural sinks and transformative agricultural practices under the leadership of indigenous people and local communities is a far more equitable and cost-effective way of tackling the climate crisis than it is being done now. We need to realize that the climate crisis is just a symptom; our real problem is that human consumption and activity have exceeded the regenerative. Technology, at best, can assist us, not lead us, on the pathway to a sustainable, regenerative and equitable world. 

Q. According to the author of the above passage which of the following is the real problem of which climate crisis is only a symptom: 

Detailed Solution: Question 17

(d) Straight from the passage but with different words. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

In a box of pens, there are three less red pens than the black ones and five more red pens than the blue ones. If there are a total of 10 Red pens, how many pens are there in the box?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The number of red pens = 10  
The number of black pens = 10 + 3 = 13  
The number of blue = 10 - 5 = 5  
Total number pens in the box = 10 + 13 + 5 = 28  
Hence, 28 pens are there in the box.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

From a metal rod of 30 m long, a person cuts off as many pieces as possible, each 31/4 m long. What fraction of the whole will be left? 

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Length of each piece = 31/4 = 13/4 m
Maximum pieces that can be cut = 30/(13/4) = 9
∴ Rod left = 30 - (13/4 )x 9 = (120 – 117)/4 = 3/4 m
∴ Required fraction = 3/4/30 = 1/40 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

30 Rose plants, 45 Hibiscus plants and 60 Jasmine plants have to be planted in rows such that each row contains the same number of plants of one variety only. What is minimum number of row in which the plants may be planted?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

First, find the largest row‐size that divides 30, 45, and 60.

  • The common divisors of 30, 45, and 60 are 1, 3, 5, and 15.

  • The greatest is 15.

So each row can have 15 plants (all of the same variety).

  • Number of rose‐rows = 30 ÷ 15 = 2

  • Number of hibiscus‐rows = 45 ÷ 15 = 3

  • Number of jasmine‐rows = 60 ÷ 15 = 4

Total rows = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9.

Hence, the minimum number of rows required is 9.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.

Eight Optional books are arranged in a row one above the other. Two books are on Physical Geography, two books are on Governance, three books on Sociology and one book is on Economics. Counting from the top, the second, fifth and sixth books are on Sociology. Two books on Sociology are between two books on Governance. One book Sociology is between two books on Physical Geography while the book above the book of Economics is a book of Governance.  

Q. Which book is the last book from the top?  

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Solution:

  1. Mark the three Sociology positions

    • Clue: “Second, fifth, and sixth books are Sociology.”

    • So:
      1 – – – – – – –
      2 → SOC
      3 – – – – – –
      4 – – – – – –
      5 → SOC
      6 → SOC
      7 – – – – – –
      8 – – – – – –

  2. Place the two Governance books

    • Clue: “Two Sociology books are between two Governance books.”

    • The only adjacent SOC pair is at positions 5 and 6, so Governance must be at 4 and 7 (bracketing those two Sociologies).

    • Now:
      1 – – – – – –
      2 → SOC
      3 – – – – – –
      4 → GOV
      5 → SOC
      6 → SOC
      7 → GOV
      8 – – – – – –

  3. Place the two Physical Geography books

    • Clue: “One Sociology book is between two Physical Geography books.”

    • Only the SOC at position 2 can lie between two as‐yet unassigned slots (positions 1 and 3).

    • So: 1 → PG, 2 → SOC, 3 → PG.

  4. Place the single Economics book

    • Clue: “The book above Economics is a Governance book.”

    • GOVERNANCE slots are at 4 and 7.

    • If GOV at 4, ECO would go at 5—but 5 is already SOC, so that fails.

    • GOV at 7 means ECO must be at 8 (directly below 7), which is free.

  5. Final arrangement (top → bottom, positions 1 to 8)
    1 → PG
    2 → SOC
    3 → PG
    4 → GOV
    5 → SOC
    6 → SOC
    7 → GOV
    8 → ECO

Answer: The last book from the top is the one on Economics.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.

Eight Optional books are arranged in a row one above the other. Two books are on Physical Geography, two books are on Governance, three books on Sociology and one book is on Economics. Counting from the top, the second, fifth and sixth books are on Sociology. Two books on Sociology are between two books on Governance. One book Sociology is between two books on Physical Geography while the book above the book of Economics is a book of Governance.  

Q. Which of the following book is not present within bottom four rows?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Solution : 

  1. From the earlier arrangement (top to bottom):
    1 → Physical Geography
    2 → Sociology
    3 → Physical Geography
    4 → Governance
    5 → Sociology
    6 → Sociology
    7 → Governance
    8 → Economics

  2. The bottom four positions (5, 6, 7, 8) are:
    – 5 → Sociology
    – 6 → Sociology
    – 7 → Governance
    – 8 → Economics

  3. Among the four subjects (Physical Geography, Governance, Sociology, Economics), Physical Geography does not appear in positions 5–8.

Answer: A Physical Geography book is not present within the bottom four rows.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.

Eight Optional books are arranged in a row one above the other. Two books are on Physical Geography, two books are on Governance, three books on Sociology and one book is on Economics. Counting from the top, the second, fifth and sixth books are on Sociology. Two books on Sociology are between two books on Governance. One book Sociology is between two books on Physical Geography while the book above the book of Economics is a book of Governance.

Q. Which of the following books are available in both odd and even positions? 

Detailed Solution: Question 23


Solution:

From the arrangement (top → bottom):

1 – Physical Geography
2 – Sociology
3 – Physical Geography
4 – Governance
5 – Sociology
6 – Sociology
7 – Governance
8 – Economics

  • Odd positions (1, 3, 5, 7) hold: PG, PG, SOC, GOV

  • Even positions (2, 4, 6, 8) hold: SOC, GOV, SOC, ECO

Sociology appears at odd (5) and even (2, 6).
Governance appears at odd (7) and even (4).

Answer: Sociology and Governance

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Introducing a girl, Prabhu said “She is the only daughter of only daughter of my grandparents”. How is the girl related to prabhu? 

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Explanation of Relationship:

  1. “My grandparents” are Prabhu’s grandparents.

  2. “The only daughter of my grandparents” therefore refers to Prabhu’s mother (she is the sole female child born to those grandparents).

  3. The girl in question is “the only daughter of [that only daughter of my grandparents],” meaning she is the only daughter of Prabhu’s mother.

  4. Thus the girl is Prabhu’s mother’s daughter—i.e., Prabhu’s sister.


Answer Option C – Sister 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

Q. Who amongst the following works as an Accounts Officer? 

Detailed Solution: Question 25


 

Solution:

  1. List people, institutions, and known jobs

    • Persons: Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook, Guna

    • Institutions: L, M, N, P, Q, R, S

    • Jobs: Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call Center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel Manager, Quality Inspector

  2. Fill in the clues one by one

    • Chandru → Institution N; job is neither Quality Inspector nor Teacher.

    • Ezhil → Institution R; job = Doctor.

    • Ajay → job = Hotel Manager; institution ≠ L, Q.

    • “Accounts Officer works for M.”

    • “Call Center Assistant works for L.”

    • Farook → Institution Q.

    • Guna → Institution P; job = Quality Inspector.

    • Dinesh ≠ Accounts Officer.

  3. Assign M (Accounts Officer)

    • If Bala were at M, she’d be Accounts Officer.

    • Dinesh cannot be Accounts Officer, so Dinesh ≠ M.

    • Ajay is Hotel Manager, so he can’t be Accounts Officer → Ajay ≠ M.

    • Therefore Bala must occupy M and hold Accounts Officer.

  4. Assign L (Call Center Assistant)

    • The only unassigned candidate for L is Dinesh (everyone else has an institution or can’t be L).

    • So Dinesh → L, job = Call Center Assistant.

  5. Place Ajay

    • Remaining institutions are S (since N, R, Q, P, M, L are taken).

    • Ajay cannot be L or Q, so Ajay → S, job = Hotel Manager.

  6. Assign remaining jobs and institutions

    • Unfilled persons: Chandru (N), Farook (Q), Guna (P) is already filled, Ezhil (R) is done, Bala (M) is done, Dinesh (L) is done, Ajay (S) is done.

    • Available jobs now are Engineer and Teacher.

    • Chandru (N) cannot be Teacher (clue), so Chandru → N, job = Engineer.

    • That leaves Farook → Q, job = Teacher.

  7. Verify all assignments

    • Ajay: S, Hotel Manager

    • Bala: M, Accounts Officer

    • Chandru: N, Engineer

    • Dinesh: L, Call Center Assistant

    • Ezhil: R, Doctor

    • Farook: Q, Teacher

    • Guna: P, Quality Inspector

All clues are satisfied.

Answer: Bala works as the Accounts Officer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

Q. For which institution does Dinesh work? 

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Dinesh works for Institution L.

  1. Accounts Officer at M: Since “the Accounts Officer works for M,” whoever fills M must hold that post. Dinesh is explicitly ruled out as Accounts Officer, so Dinesh cannot be at M.

  2. Call Center Assistant at L:

    • Clue: “The one who works for Institution L works as a Call Center Assistant.”

    • That means whichever friend ends up at L must be the Call Center Assistant.

  3. Assigning Ajay and Others:

    • Ajay is Hotel Manager and cannot be at L or Q.

    • Farook is at Q.

    • Guna is at P (as Quality Inspector).

    • Ezhil is at R (as Doctor).

    • Bala, as Accounts Officer, must be at M.

    This leaves only Dinesh and Chandru to fill the remaining institutions L and N.

  4. Chandru’s Role Rules Out L for Him:

    • Chandru works at N and is neither Quality Inspector nor Teacher.

    • Therefore, Chandru cannot occupy L (because L’s slot is the Call Center Assistant).

  5. Conclusion for Dinesh:

    • Since Chandru must take N, the only open institution left for Dinesh is L.

    • At L, Dinesh automatically becomes the Call Center Assistant (per the clue).

Hence, Dinesh works for Institution L (as the Call Center Assistant).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

Q. What is the profession of Chandru? 

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Chandru’s profession is Engineer.

Brief Reasoning:

  • We know Chandru is at institution N.

  • The roles already assigned to other institutions are:

    • R → Doctor (Ezhil)

    • Q → Teacher (Farook)

    • P → Quality Inspector (Guna)

    • M → Accounts Officer (Bala)

    • L → Call Center Assistant (Dinesh)

    • S → Hotel Manager (Ajay)

  • The only remaining profession for institution N is Engineer.
    Hence, Chandru works as an Engineer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

Q. Who amongst the following works as a Teacher? 

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Farook works as a Teacher.

Brief Reasoning:

  • Ezhil → Doctor at R

  • Guna → Quality Inspector at P

  • Bala → Accounts Officer at M

  • Dinesh → Call Center Assistant at L

  • Ajay → Hotel Manager at S

  • Chandru → Engineer at N

The only institution left is Q, and the only remaining profession is Teacher. Since Farook works for Q, Farook must be the Teacher.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

Q. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and Institution is correct? 

Detailed Solution: Question 29


 

A correct combination is:

Guna – Quality Inspector – Institution P

(Other valid triples are:

  • Ezhil – Doctor – R

  • Bala – Accounts Officer – M

  • Dinesh – Call Center Assistant – L

  • Ajay – Hotel Manager – S

  • Farook – Teacher – Q

  • Chandru – Engineer – N )

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

3 boys take three more days for a work which can be completed in 2 days by 5 men. How much time it would take for the same work to be completed by 10 men and 3 boys? 

Detailed Solution: Question 30

General form : m1 x d1 = m2 x d2
Men complete work in 2 days whereas boys take 2 days more than men.
So 3 boys take 5 days to compete the same work. Convert all values in terms of men or boys
m1 = 5m, d= 2 :: m2 = 3b, d2 = 5
5m x 2 = 3b x 5
2m = 3b

Substitute m value in 10m + 3b = ?  

If 3 boys (m1) take 5 days (d1) to complete a work, then 18 boys (m2) takes how many days? (d2) 

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