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NEET Unit Test - 3 Free Online Test 2026


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: NEET Unit Test - 3 (180 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for NEET NEET Mock Test Series - Updated 2026 Pattern with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "NEET Unit Test - 3". These 180 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of NEET 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 180 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 180

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NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 1

Which one of the following quantities can be zero on an average for the molecules of an ideal gas in equilibrium?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

In case of ideal gases the average velocity is always zero. Hence the average momentum is zero. 
Whereas average speed is non- zero so the kinetic energy is also non-zero,  as these two are scalar quantities.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 2

A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air-column is now:

Detailed Solution: Question 2

As we know, f=v/2l
Now, it will act as one end and one end closed.
So, f0=v/2l’=v/4½=v/2l=f

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 3

Under what condition angular frequency ω of the damped oscillator would be equivalent to angular velocity Ω of the undamped oscillator.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

https://cn.edurev.in/ApplicationImages/Temp/540819_35a9020e-7226-406e-8bca-888c5ad60d29_lg.png

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 4

In the case of real gases, the equation of state, PV = RT (where P, V and T are respectively the pressure, volume and absolute temperature), is strictly satisfied only if corrections are applied to the measured pressure P and the measured volume V. The corrections for P and V arise respectively due to

Detailed Solution: Question 4

According to kinetic theory of gases there is no intermolecular force of attraction between the molecule of gases but its not true as gases liquifise, at high pressure molecular interaction starts due to which pressure on the walls decreases as molecule dragged back so pressure exerted by real gas is less than ideal gas, due to repulsive forces molecule behave as small spheres and hence volume decreases

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 5

A lens of power + 2.0 D is placed in contact with another lens of power – 1.0 D. The combination will behave like

Detailed Solution: Question 5

P=P1​+P2​=+2−1=+1 dioptre, lens behaves as convergent
F=1​/P=1/1​=1m=100cm

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 6

Which one of the following phenomena is notexplained by Huygen’s construction ofwavefront? [1988]

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Huygen's construction of wavefront does not apply to origin of spectra which is explained by quantum theory

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 7

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-13) This section contains 13 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q. Given the reactions, If one mole each of A and B are take in 5 L flask at 300 K, 0.7 mole of C are formed. Molar concentration of each species at equilibrium, when one mole of each are taken initially is

Detailed Solution: Question 7

None of the provided options exactly match these concentrations.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 8

For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K, 

Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 1 M) || M4+ (aq, M2 (aq)| Pt (s)

The value of x is:

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 9

Which of the following reactions is not a disproportionation reaction?      [NEET 2024]

Detailed Solution: Question 9

disproportionation reaction is a type of redox reaction where a single substance undergoes both oxidation and reduction, forming two different products.
Let's analyze each option:
(a) 2 F2(g) + 2 OH-(aq) → 2 F-(aq) + OF2(g) + H2O(l)

  • This reaction involves fluorine (F2), which is reduced to F- and oxidized to OF2. Therefore, fluorine undergoes both oxidation and reduction.
  • This is a disproportionation reaction.

(b) Cl2(g) + 2 OH-(aq) → ClO-(aq) + Cl-(aq) + H2O(l)

  • In this reaction, chlorine (Cl2) is reduced to Cl- and oxidized to ClO-.
  • This is a disproportionation reaction.

(c) 2 NO2(g) + 2 OH-(aq)→ NO3-(aq) + NO2-(aq) + H2O(l)

  • In this reaction, NO2 undergoes both oxidation and reduction to form NO3- and NO2-.
  • This is a disproportionation reaction.

(d) 2 H2O2(aq)→ 2 H2O(l) + O2(g)
In this reaction, hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) decomposes into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2). Here, hydrogen peroxide undergoes reduction to form H2O and oxidation to form O2, but since it does not involve two different products from a single reactant, it is not a disproportionation reaction. It's a simple decomposition reaction.
Conclusion:The reaction in (a) is the disproportionation reaction, so the correct answer is (d) 2 H2O2(aq) → 2 H2O(l) + O2(g).

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 10

In the primary batteries,

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Primary batteries cannot be recharged and reused.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 11

Which of the following is not acid-base conjugate pair?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Acid ⇋ Conjugate Base  +  H+
By this definition,
HNO2 ⇋ NO2- + H+
CH3NH3+ ⇋ CH3NH2 + H+
C6H5COOH ⇋ C6H5COO- + H+
H3O+ ⇋ H2O + H+
We can see that the conjugate base of H3O+ is H2O. But it is given that OH- is the C.B. So option d is incorrect.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 12

For the following equilibrium,

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Option A is correct.

log10Kp = 8 - 6400/T.

Convert temperature: T = 527 °C = 527 + 273 = 800 K.

Substitute T = 800 K into the formula: log10Kp = 8 - 6400/800 = 8 - 8 = 0.

Therefore Kp = 100 = 1.

For an equilibrium that involves only pure solids and CO2(g), the activities of solids are unity, so Kp = pCO2 (with pressure in atm). Hence pCO2 = 1 atm, matching option A.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 13

When an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is electrolysed, the ion discharged at anode is-

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Electrolysis of H2SO4
Cathode:-
2H+  +  2e-  -  H2    (Reduction)

Anode:-
4OH-  -  2H2O  +  O2  + 4e-  (Oxidation)

OHions discharged at anode.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 14

the oxidation number of sulphur in S8,S2F2,H2S respectively are

Detailed Solution: Question 14

(i) Oxidation state of element in its free state is zero.

(ii) Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in compound is zero.

O.N of S in S8=0;    O.N of S in S2F2=+1

O.N of S in H2S=-2

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 15

Solution of 0.1 N NH4OH and 0.1 N NH4Cl has pH 9.25. Then find out pKb of NH4OH [2002]

Detailed Solution: Question 15

but pOH+ pH = 14  or pOH = 14 – pH

14 – 9.25 – 0 = pKb pKb = 4.75

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 16

 At 300K molar conductivity of solution A is 350 units, and at infinite dilution the molar conductivity of the same sample is 480 unit. Predict the percentage dissociation of the electrolyte.

Detailed Solution: Question 16

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 17

The given figure represents different factors affecting population density (N) If B = nasality, D = mortality, E = emigration and I = immigration; then select the incorrect option regarding these.

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Answer: D. Immigration (I) is not generally equal to emigration (E).

  • Births (B) and deaths (D) are the primary factors determining population density (N) under normal conditions; immigration and emigration become important only in special situations.

  • When a habitat is newly colonised, immigration (I) can be more important than natality (B) because individuals arriving from outside increase the population.

  • B and I both increase N (positive contributions), while D and E decrease N (negative contributions).

  • I equals E only at a dynamic equilibrium or in a perfectly closed and stable population; this is not generally true for most real populations, so the statement I is generally equal to E is incorrect.

Therefore, option D is incorrect.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 18

Primitive atmosphere was made up of the mixture of : 

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The primitive atmosphere of earth was reducing atmosphere with little or no oxygen but was rich in water vapour, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and hydrogen. Thus, oxygen was not present in primitive atmosphere. The high temperature, UV light and lightening provided energy for chemical reactions between hydrogen and free oxygen, nitrogen and carbon to form, ammonia, methane and cyanides. Owing to the high temperature of earth, water was present in form of superheated steam and ammonia, methane and cyanides were present in gaseous form. 

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Topic in NCERT: Origin of life

Line in NCERT: "oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, co2 and others."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 19

Which of the following statements about predation is correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Predators help control prey populations, often preventing prey from reaching excessively high densities. This is a natural ecological balance.

Topic in NCERT: Predation and its Ecological Role

Line in NCERT: "Some predators help in controlling their prey populations."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 20

Match List-I with List-II:     [NEET 2025]
2025
Choose the options with all correct matches.

Detailed Solution: Question 20

A. The Evil Quartet - III. Causes of biodiversity losses:

  • The "Evil Quartet" refers to four major causes of biodiversity loss: habitat destruction, overexploitation, invasive species, and co-extinctions.
  • These factors collectively threaten the survival of various species and ecosystems globally.

B. Ex situ conservation - I. Cryopreservation:

  • Ex situ conservation involves conserving biodiversity outside their natural habitats, such as in seed banks, botanical gardens, or through cryopreservation.
  • Cryopreservation is a technique used for freezing and storing genetic material (like seeds or embryos) at very low temperatures for future use.

C. Lantana camara - II. Alien species invasion:

  • Lantana camara is an invasive alien species that disrupts native ecosystems by competing with native flora and causing ecological imbalances.
  • Alien species invasions are a major contributor to biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation.
  • The environmental damage caused and threat posed to our native species by invasive weed species like carrot grass (Parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth (Eicchornia).

D. Dodo - IV. Extinction:

  • The Dodo is an example of a species that has gone extinct due to human activities such as hunting and habitat destruction.
  • Extinction is the complete loss of a species, often driven by factors like overexploitation, invasive species, and habitat destruction.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 21

Correct sequence of stages of succession on a bare rock is

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The various serai stages of lithosere (succession on bare rock) are as follows:
Lichens (Pioneer community) → Mosses → Annual grasses→ Perennial grasses → Shrubs → Trees (Climax community).

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 22

Stanley Miller synthesised in his experiment :

Detailed Solution: Question 22

In his experiment, Stanley Miller synthesised the following:
- Virus: Not synthesised by Stanley Miller in his experiment.
- Protein: Not synthesised by Stanley Miller in his experiment.
- Amino acid: Stanley Miller successfully synthesised amino acids in his experiment. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are essential for life.
- Cell: Stanley Miller did not synthesise cells in his experiment.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: Amino acid. Stanley Miller's experiment demonstrated that the conditions present in the early Earth's atmosphere can lead to the formation of amino acids, which is an important step in the origin of life on Earth.

Topic in NCERT: Origin of life
Line in NCERT: "he observed the formation of amino acids."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 23

By chemical nature, hormones are never :

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Hormones are generally proteincomponents having amino acids as well as steroids. Hormones are generally not monosaccharide derivatives in nature

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 24

Role of thymus in homo sepiens is chiefly concerned with :-

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is B: Immunology.

- The thymus is a crucial organ in the immune system of humans.
- It is primarily responsible for the maturation and differentiation of T-lymphocytes or T cells, which are essential for the immune response.
- T cells play a critical role in recognizing and attacking pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and other harmful substances in the body.
- The thymus helps in training T cells to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, thus preventing autoimmune reactions.
- Overall, the thymus is vital for the development and regulation of the body's immune responses.

Topic in NCERT: Thymus

Line in NCERT: "the thymus plays a major role in the development of the immune system. this gland secretes the peptide hormones called thymosins. thymosins play a major role in the differentiation of t-lymphocytes, which provide cell-mediated immunity."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 25

Assertion: The somatic nervous system regulates involuntary functions of the body.

Reason: The somatic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

Detailed Solution: Question 25

Correct option: D

The somatic nervous system primarily controls voluntary movements by transmitting motor commands to skeletal muscles and carrying sensory information to the central nervous system.

Functions that are involuntary (for example, heart rate, digestion, breathing rhythm and glandular secretion) are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, not the somatic system.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, which generally produce opposing effects on target organs to maintain physiological balance.

Hence, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is also incorrect; both statements are false.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 26

Which kind of pyramid is represented by the given figure?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Given pyramid is pyramid of numbers in a parasitic food chain. In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is inverted. This is due to the fact that a single plant may support the growth of many herbivores and each herbivore in turn may provide nutrition to several parasites, which in turn support many hyper-parasites. Thus, from the producer towards consumers, the number of organisms gradually increase, making the pyramid inverted in shape.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 27

Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Phosphorus has a sedimentary cycle of matter Its reservoir pool is phosphate rocks while cycling pool is terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Atmosphere or gaseous phase is absent.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 28

Which one of the following cells secrete androgen hormones in human beings?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is Cells of Leydig.

  • Cells of Leydig secrete androgen hormones in human beings.
  • Cells of Leydig constitute the endocrine tissue of the testes.
  • Androgens are a group of male sex hormones.

Topic in NCERT: Testis

Line in NCERT: "the leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are present in the intertubular spaces produce a group of hormones called androgens mainly testosterone."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 29

A hormone with seat of activity in liver-changing glucose into glycogen is produced by :-

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The hormone responsible for converting glucose into glycogen is produced by the pancreas.

This process is vital for regulating blood sugar levels. Here are some key points:

  • The pancreas secretes insulin, a hormone that facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells.
  • Once inside the liver, glucose is transformed into glycogen for storage.
  • When blood sugar levels drop, glycogen can be converted back into glucose, ensuring a steady energy supply.

In summary, the pancreas plays a crucial role in managing energy by producing insulin, which helps maintain healthy blood sugar levels.

Topic in NCERT: Pancreas

Line in NCERT: "glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis resulting in an increased blood sugar (hyperglycemia)."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 30

Q1: Given below are two statements:     (NEET 2024)
Statement I : Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventaully. Thus, statement I is correct.
Statement II is incorrect as in general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores. 

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