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NEET Exam  >  NEET Test  >   Mock Test Series - Updated 2026 Pattern  >  NEET Unit Test - 5 - NEET MCQ

NEET Unit Test - 5 Free Online Test 2026


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: NEET Unit Test - 5 (180 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for NEET NEET Mock Test Series - Updated 2026 Pattern with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "NEET Unit Test - 5". These 180 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of NEET 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 180 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 180

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NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 1
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In the circuit of Fig, the bulb will become suddenly bright if [1989]

Detailed Solution: Question 1

When contact is broken, current in the circuit decreases. To oppose the inductor releases current and emf is induced. This induced emf is having high value. Hence, The bulb will become suddenly bright.

The correct option is C.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 2
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The magnetic force acting on a charged particleof charge – 2μC in a magnetic field of 2T actingin y direction, when the particle velocity is  , is

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The magnetic force acting on the char ged paraticle is given by

∴  Force is of 8N along – z-axis.

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NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 3
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Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current i ampere each. The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Given, i1​=i2​=i
∴F=μ0​i2l​/2πb
Hence, force per unit length is F=μ0​i2​/2πb

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 4
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Radioactive decay of the nucleus leads to the emission of

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation (high-energy photons) with an extreme frequency and a high energy. They are created by the decay of nuclei as they travel from a high-energy state to a lower state; this process is called “gamma decay.” Most atomic responses are accompanied by gamma emission.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 5
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The magnetic induction left behind in the sample after the magnetizing field has been removed is called

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Remanence or remanent magnetization or residual magnetism is the magnetization left behind in a ferromagnetic material (such as iron) after an external magnetic field is removed. It is also the measure of that magnetization. Colloquially, when a magnet is "magnetized" it has remanence.The remanence of magnetic materials provides the magnetic memory in magnetic storage devices, and is used as a source of information on the past Earth's magnetic field in paleomagnetism.The equivalent term residual magnetization is generally used in engineering applications. In transformers, electric motors and generators a large residual magnetization is not desirable (see also electrical steel) as it is an unwanted contamination, for example a magnetization remaining in an electromagnet after the current in the coil is turned off. Where it is unwanted, it can be removed by degaussing.Sometimes the term retentivity is used for remanence measured in units of magnetic flux density.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 6
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Which compound is used as the cooling liquid in refrigerators?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

NH3  is used as cooling liquid in refrigerators.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 7
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Which has lower standard reduction potential (SRP) value?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The standard reduction potentials for the given couples are as follows:

  • Mn2+ + 2e- → Mn: E° = -1.18 V
  • Zn2+ + 2e- → Zn: E° = -0.76 V
  • Fe2+ + 2e- → Fe: E° = -0.44 V
  • Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni: E° ≈ -0.25 V

Among these, Mn2+/Mn has the lowest (most negative) SRP value of -1.18 V. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 8
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Among the following molecules: 
(i) XeO3​ (ii) XeOF4 ​(iii) XeF6​
those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are:

Detailed Solution: Question 8

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 9
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Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids? [2007]

Detailed Solution: Question 9

As the oxidation number of the central atom increases, strength of acid also increases.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 10
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The IUPAC name of the compound [Cr(NH3)5(NCS)][ZnCI4] is

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The lUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)5(NCS)][ZnCI4] is pentammine isothiocyanatochromium (III) tetrachlorozincate (II).

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 11
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Among [ Ni(CO)4],[ Ni(CN) 4]2- ,[ NiCl4]2- species, the hybridization states of the Ni atom are, respectively(At. No. of Ni = 28) [2004]

Detailed Solution: Question 11

28 Ni0 :

Remember CO is a strong ligand

Remember CN– is also a strong ligand

Cl– is a weak ligand, hence no pairing of electrons takes place.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 12
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Which among the following is an ambidentate ligand?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Ambidentate Ligand: Nitro

  • An ambidentate ligand is a type of polydentate ligand that can bind to a central atom in multiple ways because it has two or more donor atoms, but uses only one of them in forming a coordinate bond at a time.
  • Nitro (NO2-) is an example of an ambidentate ligand. It can coordinate to the central metal atom either through the nitrogen atom (forming a nitro complex) or through one of the oxygen atoms (forming a nitrito complex).
  • The other options provided do not have this property. Oxalate is a bidentate ligand, meaning it simultaneously uses both of its oxygen atoms to bind to the central atom. Carbonyl is a monodentate ligand, it can only bind through the carbon atom of the C=O group. Acetate is also a monodentate ligand, it can only bind through the oxygen atom of the C=O group.

Therefore, among the given options, only Nitro is an ambidentate ligand.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 13
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The formula of the complex hexamminecobalt (III) chloride sulphate is

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The formula of complex hexamminecobalt (III) chloride sulphate is [Co(NH3)6]CISO4.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 14
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Which one is not a sexually transmitted disease?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Encephalitis (en-sef-uh-LIE-tis) is inflammation of the brain.

  • There are several causes, but the most common is viral infection. 
  • Encephalitis often causes only mild flu-like signs and symptoms — such as a fever or headache — or no symptoms at all.
  • Common vectors include mosquitoes.
  • Diseases such as Syphilis, AIDS and Genital Herpes are considered as sexually transmitted disease.

Hence, the correct option is C.

NCERT Reference: topic “SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)” of chapter: Reproductive Health of NCERT.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 15
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Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?     [NEET 2025]

Detailed Solution: Question 15

  • Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total), with 22 pairs being autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (X and Y).
  • Chromosomes carry genes, which are the functional units of heredity made up of DNA. Each chromosome contains a unique set of genes that determine various biological functions.
  • Chromosome 1 is the largest human chromosome and contains the highest number of genes compared to other chromosomes in the human genome.
  • Chromosome 1 is the largest of all human chromosomes and contains approximately 2,968 genes, making it the chromosome with the highest number of genes.
  • Chromosome Y has the fewest ~231 genes.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 16
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Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

In test tube baby or in vitro fertilisation technique, the ovum is fertilised with the sperm outside the body of a woman providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the uterus. The zygote formed is grown inside a culture and when embryo (having 8 or more blastomeres) is formed, it is then implanted into uterus where it develops into foetus.

Topic in NCERT: ASSISTED REPRODUCTIVE TECHNOLOGIES (ART)

Line in NCERT: "In Vitro fertilisation followed by transfer of embryo into the female genital tract is one such method and is commonly known as the Test Tube Baby' Programme."

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 17
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The gene which controls many characters is called

Detailed Solution: Question 17

A single gene may have two or more phenotypic expressions. The multiple phenotypic effect of a single gene is called pleiotropism. Hence the gene associated with this phenomenon is called Pleiotropic gene.

Topic in NCERT: PLEIOTROPY

Line in NCERT: "There are however instances where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expression. Such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene."

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 18
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Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
Statement 2: Cancer arising from epithelial tissues of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma e.g., breast cancer, cervical cancer etc.

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Benign tumour remains confined to the site of its orgin and does not spread to other parts of the boyd. It causes limited damage to the body and is non-cancerous. Malignant tumor is a cancerous tumour and spreads to other parts of the body from the site of its origin. Cancer arising from epithelial tissues is referred to as carcinoma e.g., breast cancer, cervical cancer, etc.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 19
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Identify A-D in the given enlarged view of one microsporangium showing wall layers:

Detailed Solution: Question 19

The correct answer is: (A)
In the given enlarged view of the microsporangium, the layers are identified as follows:
- A: Epidermis - the outermost protective layer
- B: Endothecium - the specialized cell layer surrounding the sporogenous tissue
- C: Middle layers - various layers lying between the endothecium and tapetum
- D: Tapetum - the innermost layer responsible for nourishing developing pollen grains

Topic in NCERT: Anther Structure
Line in NCERT: "four wall layers (Figure 1.3b)- the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum."

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 20
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Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given :
Given figure represents the DNA double helix model is proposed by Watson and Crick (1953). Select the option that shows correct measurements of A, B and C.
image

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The DNA helix makes one complete spiral turn every 3.4 nm and has a diameter of 2nm. The distance between adjacent stacks is 0.34 nm.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 21
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In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green, If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

  • Since the yellow seeds are dominant to green, the allele for yellow seeds should be represented with upper case letter while the one for green seeds should be written in lower case letter.
  • Let's suppose that the allele for yellow seed is Y and that for green seeds is y. Hence the genotype of the heterozygous yellow seeded plant will be "Yy" and that for green seeded plant will be "yy" (as the recessive allele is expressed only in homozygous conditions).
  • The cross between heterozygous yellow seeded plant and green seeded plant will produce 50% yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.

Hence, the correct option is C
In pea, yellow seed colour is dominant over green colour. Heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with green seeded plant. The ratio of yellow to green seeded offspring will be ______.9 : 11 : 33 : 150 : 50.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 22
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Which of the following is a technique of direct introduction of gametes into the oviduct?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The technique of direct introduction of gametes into oviduct is called GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer).

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 23
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Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).     [NEET 2025]
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 23

  • Assertion (A): True
    Flowers pollinated by wind (anemophily) and water (hydrophily) are generally not showy, lack fragrance or nectar, and are not brightly coloured, since they do not need to attract pollinators like insects or animals.
  • Reason (R): True
    To compensate for the lack of targeted pollination, such flowers produce a very large quantity of pollen grains to increase the chance that some will reach the female flower.
  • R is the correct explanation of A because the absence of showy structures and nectar is an adaptation linked to the indiscriminate pollination mechanisms (wind/water), and high pollen production ensures successful pollination despite low efficiency.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 24
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By which bonds the purine & pyrimidine pairs of Complementary Strands of DNA held together?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

In complementary strands of DNA, purines and pyrimidine are held together by Hydrogen bond (H-bond). Adenine and Thymine have double hydrogen bond and cytosine and guanine are held by triple hydrogen bond.

Topic in NCERT: Base pairing in dna

Line in NCERT: "adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa. similarly, guanine is bonded with cytosine with three h-bonds."

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 25
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A test-tube baby means a baby born when

Detailed Solution: Question 25

In this technique the ovum taken from donor female and sperm from male is taken and fertilised in test tube medium to form zygote and then zygote transferred to fallopian tube.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 26
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All of the following are true of gametes except

Detailed Solution: Question 26

  • Gametes are formed by meiosis of germ cells. Hence, they are haploid.
  • Gametes are produced through the process of meiosis.
  • In males, gametes are produced in testes and in females, gametes are produced in ovaries.
  • Since gametes are formed through meiosis, they undergo two set of divisions: meiosis I and meiosis II. 
  • During meiosis, recombination occurs in which homologous pairs of chromosomes exchange their segments. Since gametes are formed through meiosis, therefore they have chromosomes that have undergone recombination.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 27
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Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Family planning programmes were initiated in 1951
(ii) According to WHO, reproductive health means total well being in the physical, social, behavioural and emotional aspects of reproduction
(iii) Saheli was developed at CDRI in Lucknow
(iv) Amniocentesis should not be banned as it is a foetal sex determination test

Detailed Solution: Question 27

In India, family planning programmes were initiated in 1951 at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. According to World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health means total well-being of an individual in the physical, social behavioural and emotional aspects of reproduction "Saheli', an oral contraceptive pill for the females was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow. Amniocentesis is being misused to determine the sex of the foetus and kill the normal female foetuses. Therefore, it should be legally banned to avoid female foeticide

Topic in NCERT: Reproductive health

Line in NCERT: "Reproductive health refers to a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social."

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 28
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What would happen, if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

UAA is a nonsense codon. It signals for polypeptide chain termination. Hence, only 24 amino acids chain will be formed.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 29
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‘When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters’. This is the statement of:

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The Law of Independent Assortment states that the segregation of one pair of alleles for a trait is independent of the segregation of another pair of alleles for a different trait during gamete formation.

NEET Unit Test - 5 - Question 30
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What process needs to be avoided for carrying of efficient crosses?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Self-pollination leads to fertilization by the pollen from the same flower. A cross desires pollination and fertilization by pollen from a different plant. Hence self-pollination needs to be avoided.

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This test contains 180 MCQs on NEET Unit Test - 5 with detailed solutions for each question. It is part of the NEET Mock Test Series - Updated 2026 Pattern course on EduRev, designed to align with the current NEET syllabus. Each solution explains not just the correct answer but also gives you an understanding of the topic — not just to attempt the question but also help you prepare for the exam with practice.

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