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APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - APSC CCE (Assam) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 for APSC CCE (Assam) 2024 is part of APSC CCE (Assam) preparation. The APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the APSC CCE (Assam) exam syllabus.The APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for APSC CCE (Assam) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 below.
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APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The school dropout rate in many parts of the district has risen sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by rich farmers to earn enough to get at least one meal a day. What would you suggest be done in the circumstances?
 

1. To treat child labour and the deprivation of the right of education of a child as a crime and arrest the defaulting parents
2. Get the government to create a mechanism for the provision of free food grains to the poor in the district so that parents need not send their children to work
3. Make arrangements for the schools to provide free mid-day meals for children so that they are encouraged to come to school and also get the nutrition they require
4. Put in place a food-for-work programme for the adults from among the poor that could supplement their income and they would not be forced to send their children to work

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

I is not only authoritarian, it reflects an insensitivity to and a lack of understanding of the real situation. II appears to be a solution, but it is not long-term arrangement. As soon as the scheme is withdrawn, as it simply cannot be permanent, the situation will be back to square one. Ill and IV, on the other hand, seem feasible and possible ways to solve the problem.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Krishna Narayan has been transferred recently to handle a new task. There were initial problems with the productivity of the new team. But, with his skill of interpersonal engagements, Krishna Narayan has brought about observable increase in the performance of the team. He is successfully making all members aware of their roles and standards. What should Krishna Narayan do to keep increasing the productivity?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

It is clear that Krishna Narayan is a good leader, but leadership is a continuous requirement of any team, hence (a) is ruled out. As he has been successful in increasing the performance, he should now try to make his team members identify with their roles. Once it is done then the individual is intrinsically motivated to perform their role in better ways. Their involvement will follow then. And deadlines can be easily emphasized. Hence (d) is the best option

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APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Consider the following assumptions:
1. Illegal immigrants wait for the offers of amnesty of the UAE government to either legalize their stay or leave without paying fines.
2. A lot of the people seeking amnesty are workers who may have been detained in the UAE against their better judgement.

Which of the given assumptions are valid?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Statement 1 is an invalid assumption as there is no mention of people waiting to avail of the offer of amnesty by the UAE government to either legalize their stay or to leave without having to pay a fine. Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence "It is well known that....the quantum of pay." Which particularly implies that the emigrant workers who are being offered amnesty and regularisation are being given this option because the UAE government may not be able to place the blame of illegal stay on the individuals, as it is the recruiting agents who make false promises to the emigrants and dupe them. This is also why the Indian government has been advised to be sensitive and to allow for a free air passage for returnees.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

If TEACHING is written as CHEATING, how will BANKINGS be written?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

TEACHING:CHEATING ⇔ 12345678:45231678 

BANKING:? ⇔ 12345678:45231678

Thus, BANKINGS will become KIANBNGS

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A draft bill released in September, by the Ministry of social justice and empowerment speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of society. It has been largely hailed as a progressive legislation aligned to the spirit of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, of which India is a signatory. This convention acknowledges PWDs as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them.
Javed Abidi, disability rights activist, welcomes the draft's provision to grant PWDs full legal capacity. PWDs can make their own financial decisions, take bank loans, inherit or own property. Earlier those deemed incapacitated were often at the mercy of a plenary guardianship wherein someone substituted for them before law. This has been reduced to limited guardianship with PWDs having a say. They also have a say regarding their reproductive choices for example they cannot be subject to any medical procedure which could result in infertility without their free and informed consent.
The draft bill also carves out a rightful share by way of reservations for PWDs when it comes to education, housing and jobs or allocation of agricultural land. It clearly spells out penal provisions for defaulters. For instance, penalties are prescribed not only for assault or sexual harassment but even mistreatment of PWDs by denying them food or water- in this case the offender should be sentenced toa3 month imprisonment. Accessibility is vital for PWDs and the bill requires that all public buildings should be disabled friendly within 5 years of the Act coming into force.
Mithu Alur, founder of the Spastics Society of India, is pleased with the draft but points out that it is rhetoric on paper unless operationalized at the earliest. "We need to come together and empower PWDs about their rights and how to exercise them" she adds.

Even as urban India continues to grow, the vast majority of the population (which would include the PWD populace) hails from the hinterlands. It is felt that the draft bill may not best serve the rural PWDs. For instance, a grievance often has to be filed by a PWD at far away district headquarter. The litmus test of this progressive bill, when enacted, will hinge on its effective implementation.
It can be inferred from the passage that the draft bill by the ministry of social justice and empowerment aims to-
(a) fight for the right of PWDs to be accepted in society
(b) integrate PWDs into the mainstream society
(c) bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs
(d) strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs

 

Q.

Which of the following options can be considered to truly represent the cautionary tone that the author sets in the last two paragraphs?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

The note of caution set by the author has to do with the extent of inclusiveness will be hampered unless the provisions of the bill are effectively implemented. Thus option d is the answer. Option a is incorrect as it does not present a note of caution. Option b is incorrect as it concerned with access to the rural population and not rural PWDs. Option c is incorrect as the passage does not mention the complexities of the bill, so it is beyond the scope of the passage

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 4: 1. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 15 km/hr completes one round in 10 minutes, then the length of the park (in sq. m) is:

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Perimeter = Distance covered in 10 min.

= (15000/60)*10 =2500 m  

Let h = 4x and b = x  

Then, 2(4x + x) = 2500  x = 250.

Then length = 4 * 250 =1000.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Consider the following assumptions:
1. The 2 parties in the dispute should favour the setting up of the tribunal as it will bring some resolution to the issue
2. The dispute between the 2 parties is best solved through the judicial route.

Which of the following assumptions are valid?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Statement 1 can be inferred from the sentences "The biggest gain....inter-state river water" and "It is in the same for sharing to work." Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence, "It is in the spirit ..................................................................................................... and distress years " in the 2nd paragraph of the passage wherein it is indicated that both states should approach the larger problem as per a judicially determined solution. Thus option c

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

In a certain code FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for SHOT.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

F - 2 = D
I - 2 = G
R - 2 = P
E - 2 = C
FIRE →DGPC

Similarly,
S - 2 = Q
H - 2 = F
O - 2 = M
T - 2 = R
QFMR → SHOT.

Hence, the last letter of the coded word is R.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

 

The passage suggests that the potential applications of this experiment are huge as-

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Refer to the last paragraph.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Two boys starts from the same place walking at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph respectively in the same direction. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

In this type of question, we need to get the relative speed between them.

The relative speed of the boys = 5.5 – 5 = 0.5 km/h

The distance between them is 8.5 km.
Time = Distance/Speed
Time = 8.5/0.5 = 17 hrs

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
There has been significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the city.

 

Courses of action
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of water.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The second step is favourable. As water is among the most essential commodities, partial cut off of supply is not wise. But an appeal to minimise the use, though may not be so effective, can be done without any repercussion.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the rank of P from the bottom in a class of 50 students?
 

Statements:
I. M is third from the top and there are five students between M and P.
II. The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there are 37 students between K and P.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

From I, we conclude that P is 9th from the top. Thus, in a class of 50 students, P ranks 42nd from the bottom.

From II, we conclude that P is 42nd from the bottom.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What time did the train leave today?

Statements:
I. The train normally leaves on time.
II. The scheduled departure is at 18: 30.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Even both I and II together do not reveal the exact time of departure of the train today, as "normally" word is used. So it is not necessary that train left at time today.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The shape of hemi helices in nature was first observed by

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The passage has not mentioned that Mr. Darwin was the 1st one to observe hemi helices. The Harvard team came out with the explanation of formation of hemi helices.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is Rakesh's position from the right end in a row of children?
Statements:
I. There are 10 children between Rakesh and Rohan.
II. Rohan is twentieth from the left end of the row of children.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Clearly, neither the number of children in the row is given nor the position of Rakesh relative to Rohan is mentioned in any one of I or II.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is S's rank from the top in a class of 35 students?
Statements:
I. S ranks three ranks above A, who ranks 18th from the bottom.
II. S's rank from the top is two ranks below D who ranks 23rd from the bottom.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

From I, We know that in a class of 35 students, A ranks 18th from the bottom and 18th from the top.
S is three ranks above A and so, S ranks 15th from the top.
From II, D ranks 23rd from the bottom and hence she is 13th from the top. S, being 2 ranks below D, is thus 15th from the top.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
 

A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Which train did Anuj catch to go to office?
Statements:
I. Anuj missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Anuj did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

From I and II, we conclude that Anuj went to office by either 10.30 a.m. or 10.35 a.m. train.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which three villages are accessible by road?

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Government deregulation of the long-distance telephone business has resulted in increased competition among telephone carriers, thus resulting in lower prices for consumers. This process, however, will ultimately result in lower-quality service for consumers, because as the telephone carriers drop their prices to compete with one another for customers, they will be forced to cut corners on nonessential items like customer service.Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the argument that government deregulation of the telephone business will result in lower-quality customer service?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Directly challenges the assumption made in the passage that market forces will drive telephone companies to cut corners on customer service in order to cut costs, because (c) implies that market forces will give these companies at least as much of an incentive to improve customer service as to cut costs. None of the other answers challenge this assumption. The cost savings mentioned in (a) and (d) do not actually give the companies any incentive to devote more resources to customer service.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow.

A pharmaceutical company tested a new painkiller on 1,000 lab rats that were fed large doses of the painkiller for a two-month period. By the end of the experiment, 39 of the rats had died. The company concluded that the painkiller was sufficiently safe to test on humans.Q.Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the pharmaceutical company's conclusion?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

A disproportionately high percentage (about 1 in 60 versus 1 in 600,000) of rats developing a rare and lethal form of liver cancer during a drug trial should be cause for considerable alarm. If the drug's effect on rats is in any way comparable to its effect on humans and if it is not, why test it on rats in the first place? then the drug is clearly unsafe to test on humans.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

​The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, "Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.

What does collective responsibility mean as per the passage above?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Collective responsibility means that the executive shall be responsible to the parliament for their action and policies. Thus, the principle of ministerial responsibility ensures that for every act or wrong act in his Ministry / department, the minister has to answer in the parliament and protect the civil servants working under him from the criticism of the parliament. So, the executive is responsible to the parliament for all its actions and policies.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on this passage only.

Passage
Recent findings show that changing climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways. The most obvious one- assessed by analysing temperature data over the last 35 years from 11 meteorological stations in seven states across the region- is an increase in the occurrence of ‘warm nights'. This trend is likely to worsen, according to computer based climate models that were used to predict future climate trends. According to recent research exercises conducted at the Centre forAtmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi., there has even been a rise of about two degrees, huge by climate change standards, in the average might time temperature between 1971 and 2005. The annual mean temperature over northeast India also displays a markedly upward trend.
An increase in the frequency and intensity of' warm nights' does not just mean discomfort for local communities used to temperatures that range from cool to cold after sunset over the course of the year. Such warming has far more serious ramifications. As Dash puts it. "We have not assessed the impact ofwarm events on biodiversity. But we can say that the ecosystem, including the glaciers in the region, could be affected by the temperature rise."

Communities in the North eastern states are realising what the fallout of such change means, but in different ways. "The fact that the temperature is increasing is being felt for the past 2 decades. But the trends vary in different regions. I think the impact is slightly more intense in the Northeast region than other parts of India. Even though there are several scientific studies based on different computer models, their predictions are different from each other. The community though, has a consensus on certain trends that they are experiencing," says Partha Das osAranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati.
Three trends are clear; an overall warming across all seasons; heat waves in summer; and shrinking winters. In Meghalaya, for one, such climate is gradually being registered. B.K. Tiwari of the Northeastern Hill University conducted a study on people's perception of climate change in the region a few years ago. "But the responses were not conclusive. There was a consensus only on 1 aspect; most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent. But these perceptions have no scientific backing. They are just people's assessments. So I think relying on the IMD data of at least 30 years is a more practical method of understanding climate change." He says

 

Consider the following statements
1. Changing climate patterns will strip the Northeastern states of their picturesque beauty.
2. The average right time temperature will continue to grow at a rate of 10 per cent per decade.

Q.

What does the author mean when he states that communities in the Northeast are realising, in different ways, the fallout of climate change?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

The author states that communities in the northeast are realising the fallout of climate change in different ways. Furthermore the author mentions that "the trends vary in different regions." This means that the experiences of the impact of climate change differ from region to region. Option a can be ruled as the passage mentions that rather than varying perceptions regarding climate change ‘most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent'. Option c can be ruled out because the author quoted Partha J Das of Aranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati, as saying, "I think the impact....other parts of the country." This does not indicate that climate change in the northeast when viewed collectively is much more intense. Option d is incorrect as the sentence "But we can say....the temperature rise" in the second paragraph indicates that climate change in the northeast will affect the glaciers in the northeastern region itself- not the glaciers in the "far north of the country."

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Between I960 and 1970, ivory poachers in the African nation of Zinbaku killed over 6500 elephants. During that period, the total elephant population in Zinbaku fell from about 35000 to just under 30000. In 1970, new antipoaching measures were implemented in Zinbaku, and between 1970 and 1980 over 800 poachers were arrested and expelled from the country. Nevertheless, by 1980, the elephant population in Zinbaku had fallen to about 21000. Which of the following, if true, would best help to explain the apparent paradox presented above?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

The other options simply contradict the facts given in the passage.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Companies that advertise on television complain that digital television recording (DTR) services make it possible for consumers to watch television programs without viewing the commercials that these advertisers have paid the television networks to broadcast.The DTR service providers respond that their services may actually help the advertisers, because without their service, many consumers would not have been able to watch the programs or the commercials in them—in the first place.Which of the following, if true, offers the most support to the advertisers' claims that the DTR services are currently hurting their businesses?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Suggests that the defense stated by the DTR services providers works only in theory, not in practice. If most subscribers to these services are automatically avoiding all commercials, the companies that have paid to broadcast advertising messages to these viewers are going to get less of a return from their advertising investment, which will hurt their businesses.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Physician: The hormone melatonin has shown promise as a medication for sleep disorders when taken in synthesized form. Because the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown, however, I cannot recommend itsuseatthis time.

Patient: Your position is inconsistent with your usual practice. You prescribe many medications that you know have serious side effects, so concern about side effects cannot be the real reason you will not prescribe melatonin.

The patient's argument is flawed because it fails to consider that

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Argument Evaluation
Situation: The physician refuses to prescribe synthetic melatonin to treat sleep disorders despite this medication's promise. The reason the physician offers for this refusal is that the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown. The patient responds that because the physician prescribes other medications that are known to have serious side effects, it cannot be a concern for synthetic melatonin's side effects that is prompting the physician's refusal to prescribe that medication.

Reasoning: What does the patient's argument fail to consider? The patient says that the inconsistency in the physician's position lies in the physician's unwillingness to prescribe synthetic melatonin coupled with a willingness to prescribe other medications that are known to have serious side effects. But notice that the physician does not say that synthetic melatonin has serious side effects; rather, the physician points out that the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown. The physician most likely prescribes medications that have serious side effects because the medications' benefits outweigh the risks posed by their side effects. In the case of synthetic melatonin, however, this kind of decision cannot be made.
(a) The patient's argument has to do with whether the physician's refusal to prescribe synthetic melatonin is consistent with the physician's usual prescription practices. The question of whether naturally produced melatonin has different side effects than synthetic melatonin has no bearing on that argument.
(b) It is quite reasonable for the patient's argument not to mention this possibility, especially since the physician expresses a belief that synthetic melatonin may be effective—but expresses no belief about whether or not it has been conclusively shown to be effective.

(c) The patient makes clear that the physician prescribes medications that have serious side effects; the time those side effects take to manifest themselves is not relevant to the argument.
(d) Correct. The patient's argument is flawed in failing to consider this key difference between known risks and unknown risks. If the patient had considered this key difference, the patient would have realized that the physician's position is not at all inconsistent, and that the physician's refusal to prescribe is genuinely based on a concern about an unknown risk.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, "Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.

Which among the following is not implied by anonymity in the passage above?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Clearly, in the above passage nothing is mentioned about either their work should be hidden from public eyes or not so it is incorrect.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.

A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
 

Q.

The eighth person present.Jackie, must be:
I. the host

II. seated to Shobha's right

III. seated opposite Urmila

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Jackie is the host sitting on Shobha's right hence (c) is the correct answer.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A draft bill released in September, by the Ministry of social justice and empowerment speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of society. It has been largely hailed as a progressive legislation aligned to the spirit of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, of which India is a signatory. This convention acknowledges PWDs as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them.
Javed Abidi, disability rights activist, welcomes the draft's provision to grant PWDs full legal capacity. PWDs can make their own financial decisions, take bank loans, inherit or own property. Earlier those deemed incapacitated were often at the mercy of a plenary guardianship wherein someone substituted for them before law. This has been reduced to limited guardianship with PWDs having a say. They also have a say regarding their reproductive choices for example they cannot be subject to any medical procedure which could result in infertility without their free and informed consent.
The draft bill also carves out a rightful share by way of reservations for PWDs when it comes to education, housing and jobs or allocation of agricultural land. It clearly spells out penal provisions for defaulters. For instance, penalties are prescribed not only for assault or sexual harassment but even mistreatment of PWDs by denying them food or water- in this case the offender should be sentenced toa3 month imprisonment. Accessibility is vital for PWDs and the bill requires that all public buildings should be disabled friendly within 5 years of the Act coming into force.
Mithu Alur, founder of the Spastics Society of India, is pleased with the draft but points out that it is rhetoric on paper unless operationalized at the earliest. "We need to come together and empower PWDs about their rights and how to exercise them" she adds.

Even as urban India continues to grow, the vast majority of the population (which would include the PWD populace) hails from the hinterlands. It is felt that the draft bill may not best serve the rural PWDs. For instance, a grievance often has to be filed by a PWD at far away district headquarter. The litmus test of this progressive bill, when enacted, will hinge on its effective implementation.
It can be inferred from the passage that the draft bill by the ministry of social justice and empowerment aims to-
(a) fight for the right of PWDs to be accepted in society
(b) integrate PWDs into the mainstream society
(c) bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs
(d) strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs

 

Q.

Which of the following options have not been acknowledged as a rightful part of a PWD's life?
1. Full and free legal provisions
2. Financial independence
3. Right to the ability to procreate
4. Access to required luxuries Choose the correct option

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

It is clearly mentioned that the draft bill released by the ministry speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of the society. It is also in agreement with the objectives for the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which "acknowledges PWD as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them." Thus option b is correct. Options c and d are incorrect as the passage nowhere mentions that the bill aims to bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs or strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs. Option a is incorrect as there is no indication that the draft bill supports an activist ideology and fights for the rights of PWDs.

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

​Arctic Sunrise is

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Refer to the last line of the 5th para, which says that the ship is held by the Russian authorities not the Gazprom OAO

APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the monthly salary of Sachin?
Statements:
I. Sachin gets 15% more than Rakesh while Rakesh gets 10% less than Lokesh.
II. Lokesh's monthly salary is Rs 2500.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims (Paper 2) Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

From both I and II, we find that:
Sachin's salary = 115% of (90% of Rs 2500) = Rs 2587.50.

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