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Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - CUET Humanities MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 for CUET Humanities 2024 is part of CUET Humanities preparation. The Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CUET Humanities exam syllabus.The Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for CUET Humanities 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 below.
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Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

According to the Preamble of Indian Constitution, what does India as a 'Sovereign State' imply?

  1. It implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of other nations, there is no other authority above it and it is both internally and externally free to conduct its own affairs.
  2. Extra constitutional declaration like continuation of full membership of Commonwealth of Nations does not affect Indian's Sovereignty.
  3. It implies that India can acquire a foreign territory, but cannot cede its territory in favour of a foreign state.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

India as a Sovereign State implies that India is free to conduct its affairs, both internally and externally. Membership of UNO and Commonwealth of Nations does not affect its sovereignty.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in apprehension of immediate harm. Assault thus criminalises the threat of harm itself, rather than requiring that actual harm has occurred. For this reason, it is sometimes also known as attempted battery. Since assault is an intentional act, it cannot be committed by accident. This means that a perpetrator must have intended to cause fear in another person, or that he or she acted in a way that was knowingly dangerous, even if a specific individual was not targeted. Assault does not require that the victim feared is subjected to severe bodily harm or death. Any reasonable fear is sufficient.
Assault also requires that an act be taken in furtherance of the threat of harm. This could be any variety of acts, including approaching someone with raised fists, scaring someone with a weapon, or attempting to push an individual into a crowded street. However, some sort of act is required. Simply stating a threat is not enough to create an assault unless the words are accompanied by an additional action that creates a fear of harm.
Battery is, in many ways, the completion of an assault. Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Since an assault is the threatening of harm, and a battery is the actual act of harm, the two crimes are often charged together. As with assault, battery requires that the perpetrator intended to commit the act.
The act of battery does not require that the victim is severely injured or traumatised. Any type of touching that the victim considers harmful or offensive can be sufficient. For example, if a woman pours a mug of hot water on someone else, this could be a battery. To go even further, a classic case of a battery that does not result in pain or injury is when the perpetrator spits on the victim. However, a defendant will not be held liable for contact that is deemed offensive only because the victim is abnormally sensitive. The standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
When the conduct of a defendant is particularly egregious, he or she may be charged with the elevated crime of aggravated assault or battery. This can vary by state, but it is generally meant to criminalise conduct that society finds particularly offensive. Thus, for instance, aggravated assault may apply to circumstances when a deadly weapon, such as a gun, is used, or when the victim is particularly vulnerable, such as a pregnant woman or an elderly individual. In some states, if the harm done to the victim is particularly severe and causes serious and lasting injury, the assault or battery will be charged as aggravated. If the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Assault and Battery, blog by justia]

Q. A man has a reputation of being a mean and violent drunk person. While walking down a street, he approached a woman. Can it be called an assault if the woman was intimidated by this act?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

On the careful reading of the passage, an assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in the apprehension of immediate harm.
Here, the intention was missing; hence, the above mentioned case won't be an assault.

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Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in apprehension of immediate harm. Assault thus criminalises the threat of harm itself, rather than requiring that actual harm has occurred. For this reason, it is sometimes also known as attempted battery. Since assault is an intentional act, it cannot be committed by accident. This means that a perpetrator must have intended to cause fear in another person, or that he or she acted in a way that was knowingly dangerous, even if a specific individual was not targeted. Assault does not require that the victim feared is subjected to severe bodily harm or death. Any reasonable fear is sufficient.
Assault also requires that an act be taken in furtherance of the threat of harm. This could be any variety of acts, including approaching someone with raised fists, scaring someone with a weapon, or attempting to push an individual into a crowded street. However, some sort of act is required. Simply stating a threat is not enough to create an assault unless the words are accompanied by an additional action that creates a fear of harm.
Battery is, in many ways, the completion of an assault. Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Since an assault is the threatening of harm, and a battery is the actual act of harm, the two crimes are often charged together. As with assault, battery requires that the perpetrator intended to commit the act.
The act of battery does not require that the victim is severely injured or traumatised. Any type of touching that the victim considers harmful or offensive can be sufficient. For example, if a woman pours a mug of hot water on someone else, this could be a battery. To go even further, a classic case of a battery that does not result in pain or injury is when the perpetrator spits on the victim. However, a defendant will not be held liable for contact that is deemed offensive only because the victim is abnormally sensitive. The standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
When the conduct of a defendant is particularly egregious, he or she may be charged with the elevated crime of aggravated assault or battery. This can vary by state, but it is generally meant to criminalise conduct that society finds particularly offensive. Thus, for instance, aggravated assault may apply to circumstances when a deadly weapon, such as a gun, is used, or when the victim is particularly vulnerable, such as a pregnant woman or an elderly individual. In some states, if the harm done to the victim is particularly severe and causes serious and lasting injury, the assault or battery will be charged as aggravated. If the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Assault and Battery, blog by justia]

Q. A man was very sensitive to touching as he suffered from an extremely rare illness. One day, he was caught up in a fight with his co-worker and the co-worker just touched him; as a consequence of which he ended in the hospital. As per the passage, decide.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

In the passage it has been clearly stated that where a man is not an ordinary individual, then the standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
Here, the man being over sensitive does not make the co-worker liable for any offence. Although (2) is a possible option, nothing can be said about the intention of the co-worker from the problem.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in apprehension of immediate harm. Assault thus criminalises the threat of harm itself, rather than requiring that actual harm has occurred. For this reason, it is sometimes also known as attempted battery. Since assault is an intentional act, it cannot be committed by accident. This means that a perpetrator must have intended to cause fear in another person, or that he or she acted in a way that was knowingly dangerous, even if a specific individual was not targeted. Assault does not require that the victim feared is subjected to severe bodily harm or death. Any reasonable fear is sufficient.
Assault also requires that an act be taken in furtherance of the threat of harm. This could be any variety of acts, including approaching someone with raised fists, scaring someone with a weapon, or attempting to push an individual into a crowded street. However, some sort of act is required. Simply stating a threat is not enough to create an assault unless the words are accompanied by an additional action that creates a fear of harm.
Battery is, in many ways, the completion of an assault. Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Since an assault is the threatening of harm, and a battery is the actual act of harm, the two crimes are often charged together. As with assault, battery requires that the perpetrator intended to commit the act.
The act of battery does not require that the victim is severely injured or traumatised. Any type of touching that the victim considers harmful or offensive can be sufficient. For example, if a woman pours a mug of hot water on someone else, this could be a battery. To go even further, a classic case of a battery that does not result in pain or injury is when the perpetrator spits on the victim. However, a defendant will not be held liable for contact that is deemed offensive only because the victim is abnormally sensitive. The standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
When the conduct of a defendant is particularly egregious, he or she may be charged with the elevated crime of aggravated assault or battery. This can vary by state, but it is generally meant to criminalise conduct that society finds particularly offensive. Thus, for instance, aggravated assault may apply to circumstances when a deadly weapon, such as a gun, is used, or when the victim is particularly vulnerable, such as a pregnant woman or an elderly individual. In some states, if the harm done to the victim is particularly severe and causes serious and lasting injury, the assault or battery will be charged as aggravated. If the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Assault and Battery, blog by justia]

Q. A shoots B with a gun. B is taken to the hospital. B remains critical for a couple of days but after that, he recovers. What offences have A committed?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

As per the passage, if the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
Hence, the given case if that of attempted murder and manslaughter.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Pro tanto means

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Pro tanto is a Latin phrase meaning 'to that extent' or 'for so much', and is often used to denote partial fulfillment of an actual or potential obligation—often in the form of a partial payment—toward a claim asserted in a lawsuit.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

According to which article of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights are rights such as the right to life, freedom of thought, prohibition of slavery, etc. said to be non-derogable?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Article 4 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights ("ICCPR") states that there are certain rights such as the right to life, freedom of thought, prohibition of slavery, etc. that are said to be non-derogable and constitute a special place in the hierarchy of rights.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Directions: Consider the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and choose the correct option accordingly.
Assertion (A): Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is exclusive.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in terms of issuing writs, i.e. a citizen can go directly to the Supreme Court and not by way of appeal.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Only statement (R) is correct. The Supreme Court enjoys original jurisdiction in terms of issuing writs, but it is not the exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as a High Court is also empowered to issue writs, i.e. a person can either go to the High Court or the Supreme Court with respect to the same. So, Ans [2] is correct.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

An agreement not supported by consideration is called which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 8
  • Nudum pactum, in Latin, literally means 'Bare or Naked Promise.' In common law, it refers to a promise that is not legally enforceable for want of consideration. An example of a nudum pactum would be an offer to sell something without a corresponding offer of value in exchange.
  • Coensus ad idem means meeting of minds.
  • Noscitur A Soclis means a rule of interpretation or construction.
  • Quid pro quo means something for something.
Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

National Judicial Academy is located in:

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

National Judicial Academy is a government funded training institute constituted for the training of Supreme and High Court judges and judicial officers in India. This body was founded in 1993 and is located in Bhopal, with a registered office in New Delhi. It aims at suggesting judicial reforms and providing research support services for greater efficiency, fairness, and productivity in judicial decisions.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Directions: Consider the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and choose the correct option accordingly.
Assertion (A): In an adversarial system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims.
Reason (R): In an adversarial system, cross examination is an effective way to test the credibility of the witnesses presented.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

In an adversarial system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims. The parties are assisted by their lawyers who take a pro-active role in delivering justice to the litigants. The lawyers gather evidence and even participate in cross-examination and scrutiny of evidence presented by the other disputing party. The role of the judge/decision maker is rather passive as the judge decides the claims based solely on the evidences and arguments presented by the parties and their lawyers. The main advantages of an adversarial system include:

  • The use of cross-examination can be an effective way to test the credibility of witnesses presented;
  • The parties may be more willing to accept the results when they are given effective control over the process.

Therefore, both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A and, hence, option 2 is the answer.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Which of the following is/are the function(s) of Central authority?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

The role of the Central Authority is to perform the following functions:
1. Formulate policies and procedures to make legal aid accessible and available to the public
2. Formulate both economical and effective policies to be availed
3. Effective utilization and allocation of finances
4. Consider issues of social importance with special watches (These issues might be related to environment, health, consumer protection or the marginalized section of the society.)
5. Organize camps in rural areas to raise awareness about laws
6. Encourage peaceful ways for settlement, like arbitration

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The Law Society of ____________ determines fitness of character for admission.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The Law Society of Singapore determines fitness of character for admission after applications have been filed. The Law Society is the representative body for lawyers in Singapore.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Which of the following doctrines requires that only the parties to the contract can enforce it?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Doctrine of privity of contract requires that no other person, except for the parties to the contract, can enforce the contract.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

'You must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nut cracker would do.' This statement refers to which doctrine of Administrative Law?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The classical definition of proportionality has been given by Lord Diplock in R V. Goldsmith when his Lordship rather ponderously stated "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nut cracker would do". Hence, proportionality broadly requires that government action must be no more intrusive than is necessary to meet an important public purpose.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Which case gave primacy to the Executive in making judicial appointments?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

The First Judges Case (1981) gave primacy to the Executive and stated that the CJI's recommendation to the President can be refused for cogent reasons. It gave vast powers to the Executive for the next 12 years, in making judicial appointments.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The concept of Public Interest Litigation, which has become quite popular in India, originated in

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Public Interest Litigation originated in the USA. A person filing a petition under Public Interest Litigation must prove to the satisfaction of the court that the petition is being filed for a public interest.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following US states have unified bars?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Lawyers are regulated at state, not federal, level by the state bar or the highest court. Bar associations in the US are divided into two categories: unified and non-unified:

  • In states with a unified bar, the responsibilities of regulating lawyers (admission, discipline and so on) come with activities to support their members as a professional body. Membership is mandatory in order to practice in such states. There are 32 states with unified bars, including California, Texas and Florida.
  • In states with a non-unified bar, responsibility for admitting and regulating lawyers lies with the state Supreme Court or board of bar examiners. In such states, the state bar is a voluntary professional body with activities that can include professional development, lobbying, networking and charitable programmes. States with non-unified bars include New York, Washington D.C. and Illinois.

Therefore, option 1 is the answer.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Which of the following functions are performed by the Bar Council of India?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

The Bar Council of India was established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degree in law will serve as qualification for enrolment as an advocate. In addition, it performs certain representative functions by protecting the rights, privileges and interests of advocates and through the creation of funds for providing financial assistance to organise welfare. The regulatory and representative mandate of the Bar Council for the legal profession and legal education in India is also reflected by its statutory functions.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Match the following events with their respective years of occurrence.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 19
  • International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1976 is based on the ideals of free human beings enjoying civil and political freedom and freedom from fear and want. E.g., freedom of speech, assembly, conscience and religion.
  • The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1990 is an international human rights treaty which sets out the civil, political, economic, social, health and cultural rights of children.
  • Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, 1954 provides legal safeguards to a refugee/a person who is granted asylum/shelter in another country.
  • The Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women is an international treaty adopted in 1979 by the United Nations General Assembly. Described as an international bill of rights for women, it was instituted on September 3, 1981 and has been ratified by 189 states.
Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Directions: The question contains two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine whether the statements are correct and related to each other with the help of the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Directive principles of state policy are not enforceable in a court of law.
Reason (R): Directive principles are only moral obligations.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Article 37 of the Indian Constitution states that the provisions contained in this Part (Part IV) shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. Thus, they are not merely moral obligations.
Therefore, the assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to International Court of Justice?
Statement I: International Court of Justice does not have advisory jurisdiction.
Statement II: International Court of Justice is the primary source of dispute resolution with regard to domestic and international disputes.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The International Court of Justice ('ICJ') is termed as the main judicial branch of the United Nations. The court may have jurisdiction to decide cases in which the parties agree to appear before the court, on their own behest, and agree to be bound by the decision of the ICJ. The court may also be a forum if provided for in a treaty between parties and in certain cases it is compulsory to refer to the court with regard to certain disputes. The court may also give advisory opinions under Articles 65-68 of the Statute of the ICJ to countries. These are not binding but are merely referrals to the ICJ to understand the point of law on the matter. The ICJ is thus, one of the primary sources of dispute resolution available with regard to international disputes when parties are agreeable to settle them on their own accord.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in apprehension of immediate harm. Assault thus criminalises the threat of harm itself, rather than requiring that actual harm has occurred. For this reason, it is sometimes also known as attempted battery. Since assault is an intentional act, it cannot be committed by accident. This means that a perpetrator must have intended to cause fear in another person, or that he or she acted in a way that was knowingly dangerous, even if a specific individual was not targeted. Assault does not require that the victim feared is subjected to severe bodily harm or death. Any reasonable fear is sufficient.
Assault also requires that an act be taken in furtherance of the threat of harm. This could be any variety of acts, including approaching someone with raised fists, scaring someone with a weapon, or attempting to push an individual into a crowded street. However, some sort of act is required. Simply stating a threat is not enough to create an assault unless the words are accompanied by an additional action that creates a fear of harm.
Battery is, in many ways, the completion of an assault. Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Since an assault is the threatening of harm, and a battery is the actual act of harm, the two crimes are often charged together. As with assault, battery requires that the perpetrator intended to commit the act.
The act of battery does not require that the victim is severely injured or traumatised. Any type of touching that the victim considers harmful or offensive can be sufficient. For example, if a woman pours a mug of hot water on someone else, this could be a battery. To go even further, a classic case of a battery that does not result in pain or injury is when the perpetrator spits on the victim. However, a defendant will not be held liable for contact that is deemed offensive only because the victim is abnormally sensitive. The standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
When the conduct of a defendant is particularly egregious, he or she may be charged with the elevated crime of aggravated assault or battery. This can vary by state, but it is generally meant to criminalise conduct that society finds particularly offensive. Thus, for instance, aggravated assault may apply to circumstances when a deadly weapon, such as a gun, is used, or when the victim is particularly vulnerable, such as a pregnant woman or an elderly individual. In some states, if the harm done to the victim is particularly severe and causes serious and lasting injury, the assault or battery will be charged as aggravated. If the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Assault and Battery, blog by justia]

Q. A man hits a shopper with his grocery cart while in the supermarket as the market was overcrowded. Can this be regarded as battery?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Intention is an important element of battery.
Here, intention was missing as it was a mere accident owing to the crowded place. So, it is not a case of battery.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Assault is typically defined as an intentional act that puts another individual in apprehension of immediate harm. Assault thus criminalises the threat of harm itself, rather than requiring that actual harm has occurred. For this reason, it is sometimes also known as attempted battery. Since assault is an intentional act, it cannot be committed by accident. This means that a perpetrator must have intended to cause fear in another person, or that he or she acted in a way that was knowingly dangerous, even if a specific individual was not targeted. Assault does not require that the victim feared is subjected to severe bodily harm or death. Any reasonable fear is sufficient.
Assault also requires that an act be taken in furtherance of the threat of harm. This could be any variety of acts, including approaching someone with raised fists, scaring someone with a weapon, or attempting to push an individual into a crowded street. However, some sort of act is required. Simply stating a threat is not enough to create an assault unless the words are accompanied by an additional action that creates a fear of harm.
Battery is, in many ways, the completion of an assault. Battery is defined as an intentional offensive or harmful touching of another person that is done without his or her consent. Since an assault is the threatening of harm, and a battery is the actual act of harm, the two crimes are often charged together. As with assault, battery requires that the perpetrator intended to commit the act.
The act of battery does not require that the victim is severely injured or traumatised. Any type of touching that the victim considers harmful or offensive can be sufficient. For example, if a woman pours a mug of hot water on someone else, this could be a battery. To go even further, a classic case of a battery that does not result in pain or injury is when the perpetrator spits on the victim. However, a defendant will not be held liable for contact that is deemed offensive only because the victim is abnormally sensitive. The standard of offensiveness is determined from the perspective of an ordinary individual.
When the conduct of a defendant is particularly egregious, he or she may be charged with the elevated crime of aggravated assault or battery. This can vary by state, but it is generally meant to criminalise conduct that society finds particularly offensive. Thus, for instance, aggravated assault may apply to circumstances when a deadly weapon, such as a gun, is used, or when the victim is particularly vulnerable, such as a pregnant woman or an elderly individual. In some states, if the harm done to the victim is particularly severe and causes serious and lasting injury, the assault or battery will be charged as aggravated. If the perpetrator's actions could have caused death, the defendant will face a charge of attempted murder and manslaughter.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Assault and Battery, blog by justia]

Q. A hits B with an iron rod. This leads to B's leg being fractured. What can be the charge against A?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

It must be noted that assault comes before battery. But when we read the passage, it can be understood that when battery is committed in a grave manner, such form of battery is called aggravated battery.
Here, A's hitting B with an iron rod led to B's fractured leg. Thus, A is liable for aggravated battery.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Dinesh Kumar, a practicing advocate engaged in the following activities as part of his professional duties:
a. Accepted the brief from his client
b. Asked for contingency fee from the client
c. Met the opposite party directly
d. Maintained client confidentiality
Which of the above activities amounts to a breach of professional duties by the advocate?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

An advocate's duties towards the client include being bound to accept briefs, not to withdraw from service, not to appear in matters where he/she is a witness, and not to suppress material or evidence. An advocate has to maintain client confidentiality and not to instigate litigation or to charge contingency fee (fee depending on success or favourable result of matters). There is a general duty to ensure that his/her duties do not conflict with the client's interests. An advocate is also expected not to negotiate directly with the opposing party (only through the opposing advocate) and to carry out legitimate promises made. Breach of these rules and standards of conduct lead to disciplinary action against the advocate which may result in his suspension or debarment.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Directions: Identify the false statement(s) about the Attorney General of India.
Statements:

  1. Attorney General is appointed in India for the period which the President feels suitable.
  2. Article 76 of the Constitution gives a right to the Attorney General of India to speak in both the houses of the Parliament.
  3. The person who is appointed as Attorney General of India should be a distinguished jurist.
Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Article 76 and 78 deals with the Attorney General of India. The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country. He is responsible to assist the government in all its legal matters. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney-General for India. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. The Attorney General can speak at both the houses of the Parliament despite not being a member of any of the Houses of the Parliament.
Thus, only statement 3 is false.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Taluk Legal Services Committee?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

The State Authority may constitute a committee, to be called the Taluk Legal Services Committee, for each taluk or mandal or for a group of taluk or mandals. The Committee shall consist of the senior civil judge operating within the jurisdiction of the committee as an ex-officio chairman and such number of other members as may be prescribed by the State Government, to be nominated by that government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

In which year were the provisions related to dual system of practitioners in the Bombay and Calcutta High Courts deleted?

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The Advocates Act recognizes only one class of practitioners, that is, Advocates. In 1977, the provisions relating to dual system (Advocates and Attorneys) in the Bombay and Calcutta High Courts were deleted.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Statement I: An advocate is duty bound to not act in an illegal manner towards the opposite party.
Statement II: An advocate is duty bound to represent clients in all circumstances.

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

An Advocate has a duty to act in a dignified manner, to respect the court, not to communicate with a judge in private and impair impartiality, not to act in an illegal manner towards the opposition, to refuse to represent clients who insist on adopting unfair means. In addition, being an office of the Court, an Advocate is expected to uphold and maintain the values of the profession. Furthermore, an Advocate's duties towards the client include being bound to accept briefs, not to withdraw from service, not to appear in matters where he/she is a witness, not to suppress material or evidence. An Advocate also has to maintain client confidentiality and not to instigate litigation or to charge contingency fee (fee depending on success or favourable result of matters). There is a general duty to ensure that his/her duties do not conflict with the client's interests. An Advocate is also expected not to negotiate directly with the opposing party (only through the opposing advocate) and to carry out legitimate promises made.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

ABC International Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. have a dispute over the production process which involved intricate trade secrets. The most suited alternative dispute resolution mechanism that can protect the trade secrets while resolving the dispute is:

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Arbitration is a process when a dispute is submitted, by agreement of the parties, to one or more arbitrators who will make a binding decision on the dispute. While choosing arbitration, both parties deal for a private dispute resolution procedure instead of going to court. So, this will be the most suited alternative dispute resolution mechanism that can protect the trade secrets while resolving the dispute.

Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

The authority to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights in India is vested with

Detailed Solution for Legal Studies: CUET Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

The correct answer is the Supreme Court and the ​High Courts. A writ is an order issued by the courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights. In India, only the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to issue the writs. Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 of the Indian constitution. The High Courts can issue writs under article 226 of the Indian Constitution.

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