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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4

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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Which of the following is not the feature of the Nagara style of temple architecture?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 1
  • The garbhagriha Placement: In Nagara style of temple architecture, the garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
  • Platform and Access: The temple is placed on a high platform that is accessed by stairs.
  • Shikharas: Shikharas in Nagara temples rise high in a curved fashion.
  • Prominent Element: The most prominent element in Nagara style is not the Gopuram.

Key Points:

  • The Nagara-style temple architecture is mainly found in Northern India.
  • These temples are often constructed on stone platforms accessed by steps.
  • They generally lack elaborate boundary walls or entrances.
  • The tallest tower is always directly above the garbhagriha.
  • Kalash or Amalaka installations are common on the Shikhara.
  • Examples of Nagara-style temples include the Sun Temple in Konark, Sun Temple in Modhera, and Ossian Temple in Gujarat.

Additional Information:

  • The Gopuram is a characteristic feature of Dravidian style of architecture.
  • Dravida temples are enclosed by compound walls.
  • In Dravida architecture, the Gopuram, or entrance doorway, is typically positioned in the middle of the front wall.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Muslim League:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 2
  • The Muslim League, 1906:
    • Founders: Khwaja Salimullah, Vikar-ul-Mulk, Syed Amir Ali, Syed Nabiullah, Khan Bahadur Ghulam & Mustafa Chowdhury.
    • On 30 December 1906, a conference in the Muhammadan Educational Conference at Dhaka was held.
    • At this conference, a motion was moved to form the All India Muslim League (AIML).
  • The name AIML was proposed by Agha Khan III who was appointed the first President.
    • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The party’s prominence was in promoting civil rights for Muslims.
  • Objectives of the formation of the league:
    • To promote the loyalty of Indian Muslims towards the British government.
    • To protect the political and other rights of the Indian Muslims and to place their needs and aspirations before the Government.
    • To overcome the feeling of hostility among Muslims towards other communities.
  • It was the first Muslim political party in India.
  • The League's constitution was formed in Karachi in 1907.
  • Factors leading to the formation of the Muslim League:
    • British conspiracy: Dividing Indian on a communal basis.
      • Continued separatist attitude in Indian politics.
        • Like: Separate electorates.
    • Educational Backwardness: Muslims were isolated from western and technical education.
    • They thought that the Congress Party only looked after the needs of the Hindus.
      • But, this was a misleading idea since Congress always aimed to include every community of the country.
      • It also had many Muslim leaders in the party.
  • The Amritsar Session of the League, held in 1908, demanded a separate electorate for the Muslims.
    • President: Syed Ali Imam.

Additional Information

    • Jinnah was in opposition to the League for many years.
    • In 1910, at the Allahabad session of the Congress, Jinnah moved a resolution condemning the system of communal electorates.
    • Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the league in 1913.
    • An English journal Comrade & an Urdu paper Hamdard was started by Maulana Mohammad Ali to propagate his anti-League views.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Which of the following statements about the ionosphere is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 3
  • Ionosphere:
    • The ionosphere is a layer located in the thermosphere, extending from 60 km to 1000 km above the Earth's surface.
    • Gas molecules in this layer absorb X-rays and ultraviolet rays from the Sun, resulting in high temperatures that break up gas molecules into ions (positive and negative charges).
    • This process leads to the presence of electrically charged particles in the ionosphere.
    • The ionosphere is ionized by solar and cosmic radiation.
    • One of the key functions of the ionosphere is to reflect radio waves back to Earth, enabling long-distance communications.
    • Auroras occur in the ionosphere due to the presence of ions.

Important Points:

  • Atmosphere:
    • The atmosphere is the envelope of air surrounding Earth, held in place by Earth's gravitational force.
    • It comprises five distinct layers, each with unique characteristics and functions.

Additional Information:
Troposphere

  • First layer of the atmosphere, extending up to 16 km above Earth's surface.
  • Cloud formation and weather conditions are influenced by the troposphere.

Stratosphere

  • Second layer above the troposphere, containing the ozone layer.
  • The stratopause is the boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere.

Mesosphere

  • Third layer above the stratosphere, extending up to 85 km above Earth's surface.
  • Temperature decreases significantly in the mesosphere.

Thermosphere

  • Fourth layer above the mesosphere, extending from 500 km to 640 km above Earth.
  • The International Space Station orbits in the thermosphere.
  • It contains electrically charged particles known as ions and is also referred to as the ionosphere.
  • Meteors entering the atmosphere vaporize in this layer.

Exosphere

  • Outermost layer above the thermosphere, extending up to 10,000 km above Earth's surface.
  • The exosphere gradually merges with interplanetary space.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Under the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961, how many weeks of maternity leave have been provided to the working women with full pay?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 4
  • The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 increased maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.
  • Prenatal leave was extended from six to eight weeks.
  • Women with two or more children are entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave.
  • Adoption leave of 12 weeks is provided for women adopting a child under three months.
  • According to the Maternity Benefit Act, female workers are entitled to a maximum of 12 weeks (84 days) of maternity leave.
  • Out of the 12 weeks, six weeks are post-natal leave.
  • In cases of miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy, workers are entitled to six weeks of paid maternity leave.
  • Employees can get an additional month of paid leave for complications related to pregnancy or delivery.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

What is the policy measure adopted by the Government of India to improve the system of agricultural marketing?

  1. Public Distribution System (PDS)
  2. Minimum Support Price (MSP)
  3. Maintenance of Buffer Stock

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 5
  • Public Distribution System (PDS):
    • The Public Distribution System (PDS) is an Indian food security system established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.
    • PDS evolved as a system of managing scarcity through the distribution of food grains at affordable prices.
    • It has helped stabilize food prices and make food available to the poor at affordable prices.
    • It maintains the buffer stock of food grains in the warehouse to ensure a constant flow of food even during periods of low agricultural food production.
    • It aids in the redistribution of grains by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. Therefore, Option 1 is correct.
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP):
    • The MSP is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers, calculated at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production incurred by the farmers.
    • MSP serves as a "minimum price" for crops that the government deems remunerative for farmers and deserving of support.
    • The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Therefore, Option 2 is correct.
  • Buffer Stock:
    • Buffer stocks are a reserve of commodities like rice and wheat maintained to ensure food security and handle unforeseen emergencies like drought, famine, or wars.
    • In India, the public sector maintains buffer stocks.
    • Purchasing food grains from farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) helps farmers avoid selling at a loss and ensures a fair return on their investment.
    • Buffer stocks of food grains are maintained to fulfill the goal of providing sufficient food for all Indians or preserving food security. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Which is NOT an example of one-sided symbiotic relationship?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Understanding Symbiotic Relationships

  • Tapeworm in the host's stomach: This is NOT an example of a one-sided symbiotic relationship (Commensalism). It represents Parasitism, where the tapeworm benefits at the expense of the host.
  • Symbiosis: It refers to a close relationship between two species where at least one species benefits. The impact on the other species can be positive, negative, or neutral.
  • Types of Symbiotic Relationships:
    • Mutualism: This type involves both species benefiting from the relationship. For instance, the goby fish and shrimp have a mutualistic relationship.
    • Commensalism: In this relationship, one species benefits while the other remains unaffected. An example is mites hitching a ride on larger flying insects.
    • Parasitism: Here, one species (the parasite) benefits while the other (the host) is harmed. Roundworms parasitizing mammals like humans, cats, and dogs exemplify this relationship.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Which of the following becomes difficult without a frictional force?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 7
  • Frictional Force: Frictional force is the force generated by two surfaces that contact and slide against each other.
  • Resistance to Motion: Friction can be described as the resistance to the motion of one object moving relative to another.
  • Role of Friction in Walking: When we walk, there is friction between our foot and the non-smooth surface. As we push the ground backward while walking, the frictional force acts in the opposite direction (forward direction), preventing our foot from slipping backward.
  • Friction on Wet Marble Floor: On a wet marble floor, the friction is significantly reduced due to the smooth surface. This lack of friction makes it challenging to move without slipping.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Carbon and its allotropes?
I. Graphite contains delocalized electrons.
II. The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is sp2.
III. The number of carbon compounds is very large because carbon is tetravalent.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Analysis of Carbon and its Allotropes

  • Graphite and Delocalized Electrons: Graphite contains delocalized electrons, allowing it to conduct electricity. This property makes statement I correct.
  • Hybridization State in Fullerene: The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is sp2, indicating statement II as correct.
  • Carbon Catenation Property: Carbon has a strong catenation property, leading to a vast number of carbon compounds. This makes statement III incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Hybridization in Carbon Dioxide: The hybridization state of carbon in carbon dioxide is sp.
  • Hybridization in Diamond: The hybridization state of carbon in diamond is sp3.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Which is the international treaty made to protect the ozone layer from CFCs?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The Montreal Protocol: Protecting the Ozone Layer

  • During the 1970s and 1980s, concerns grew globally about Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS) and their potential harm to the ozone layer.
  • In response to these concerns, the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was established in 1985 to promote international cooperation on addressing this issue.
  • The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987 as a result of this cooperation.
  • Under the original agreement, developed countries were mandated to start phasing out Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in 1993, aiming for a 20% reduction from 1986 levels by 1994 and a 50% reduction by 1998.

Additional Information

  • The Paris Agreement, also known as the Paris Climate Accords, is an international treaty focused on climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance. It was adopted in 2015.
  • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, which supplements the Convention on Biological Diversity, has been in effect since 2003, addressing issues related to biosafety.
  • The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and Benefit Sharing, an agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity from 2010, focuses on fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Abhay correctly remembers that Kavita’s birthday is before 23rd while after 15th. Yasir correctly remembers that Kavita’s birthday is after 20th while before 25th. On which of the following dates does Kavita’s birthday definitely fall ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Analysis of the Solution

  • Abhay remembers that Kavita's birthday falls before the 23rd but after the 15th. This means Kavita's birthday could be on the 16th, 17th, 18th, 19th, 20th, 21st, or 22nd.
  • Yasir remembers that Kavita's birthday is after the 20th but before the 25th. This implies Kavita's birthday could be on the 21st, 22nd, 23rd, or 24th.
  • By comparing both statements, it is evident that the possible dates for Kavita's birthday are the 21st and 22nd since they are common in both Abhay and Yasir's memories.
  • Therefore, Kavita's birthday definitely falls on either the 21st or 22nd.

The correct answer is "21st or 22nd".

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
Which ministry provides criteria for declaring a heatwave in India?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
The Ministry of Earth Sciences provides criteria for declaring a heatwave in India.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Recently R21 vaccine was in news, it is used for which disease?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
  • In News: Ghana made history by becoming the first country to approve Oxford's malaria vaccine for children.
  • Key Points about R21 vaccine:
    • The R21 vaccine is developed by Oxford.
    • It is approved for children aged 5-36 months, the most vulnerable group for malaria-related deaths.
    • Successful clinical trials in Burkina Faso showed an effectiveness of up to 80% when given in a specific dosage regimen.
    • Remarkably, this is the first time a significant vaccine has been approved in an African nation before wealthier countries.
    • Ghana's approval of the vaccine marks a significant milestone in combating malaria.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Bihar Agricultural University (BAU) has developed a new improved variety of pink garlic. Their names are _________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Improved variety of pink garlic:

  • Bihar Agricultural University (BAU) has developed a new improved variety of pink garlic called Sabair-1 and Sabair-2.
  • These new varieties exhibit high disease resistance, leading to fewer diseases affecting the plants.
  • The production capacity of these new varieties is significantly higher compared to existing varieties. The average production of garlic per hectare is currently around five to six tonnes, whereas the new varieties can yield 12 to 15 tonnes per hectare.
  • The new varieties have a shorter growth cycle, ready for harvest in 125 to 130 days.
  • They also possess enhanced medicinal properties such as being anti-bacterial and anti-fungal.
  • The development of Sabair-1 took nine years, while work on Sabair-2 began in 2018.
  • Sabair-2 has undergone testing for sulfur and phosphorus levels, showing significant improvements. Additionally, the high disease resistance of this variety ensures healthier plants.
  • Garlic is known for its medicinal uses in treating various conditions like cholesterol, diabetes, and heart-related issues. The new varieties have increased medicinal properties.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Which of the following schemes has District Industrial Centre (DIC) as its primary implementing agency in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Key Points

  • District Industries Centre (DIC) is a central sector scheme that aims to promote small village and cottage industries in a specific area.
    • It is fully funded by the central government, with no contributions required from the states for its establishment.
  • DICs have been set up in various districts across India since its launch in 1978.

Role of District Industries Centres (DICs)

  • DICs play a crucial role in developing and promoting industries within their respective states.
  • They are established by the Department of Commerce & Industry of the state.
  • DICs have facilitated industrial growth in rural areas by providing assistance for DIC programs, offering a single window clearance system, promoting industries in rural regions, and creating employment opportunities in both rural and urban areas.

Schemes under the District Industries Centres (DICs)

  • Prime Minister’s Employment Guarantee Program (PMEGP)
  • District Industries Centre (DIC) Loan Scheme
  • Seed Money Scheme
  • District Awards Scheme
  • Entrepreneurship Development Training Programme

Additional Information

  • The Prime Minister’s Employment Guarantee Program (PMEGP) is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), introduced in 2008.
  • PMEGP aims to create employment opportunities for educated unemployed individuals in both rural and urban areas.
  • The nodal agency responsible for implementing the scheme is the Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Who among the following rulers of Delhi Sultanate appointed Malik Alauddin Jani as the first representative of Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 15
  • During Iltutmish's reign, the governor of Bengal, Ali Mardan, declared independence and became a sultan in 1211.
  • Ali Mardan was later overthrown by Hasanuddin Iwaz Khalji, who took the title of Sultan Ghiyasuddin.
  • Sultan Ghiyasuddin conquered Bihar and suppressed a revolt led by a local Hindu chieftain.
  • In 1225, Iltutmish ordered his army to reoccupy Bihar and Bengal.
  • His forces successfully recovered Bihar and were preparing to attack Bengal.
  • Upon Sultan Ghiyasuddin's plea for peace, Iltutmish agreed not to attack Bengal in exchange for Ghiyasuddin accepting Delhi's suzerainty.
  • As a result, Iltutmish returned to Delhi and appointed Malik Alauddin Jani as the governor of Bihar.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Who was not the Navaratna of Chandragupta II’s court?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 16
  • Chandragupta II:

    • He was also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya and lived from 380 CE to 415 CE.
    • Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta and the grandson of Chandragupta I.
    • He had a keen interest in art and culture.
  • Navratna in Chandragupta II's Court:

    • Amarsimha: A poet and Sanskrit lexicographer who wrote the Amarkosha, a vocabulary of Sanskrit.
    • Dhanvantari: A physician.
    • Harisena: Composer of the Prayag Prashasti, inscribed on the Allahabad Pillar.
    • Kalidasa: A renowned poet.
    • Kahapanaka: An astrologer.
    • Sanku: An architect.
    • Varahamihira: Author of works like Panchasiddhantika, Brihat Samhita, and Brihat Jataka.
    • Vetalbhatta: A magician.
    • Varruchi: A Grammarian and Sanskrit scholar known for writing Prakrit Praksha.

Therefore, it can be concluded that Fahiyan was not one of the Navaratna in Chandragupta II's court.
Confusion Points: Faxian visited India during Chandragupta II's reign, but he was not considered one of the Navaratna in his court.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Significance of the 1929 Session of Indian National Congress in the Freedom Movement

  • Attainment of Self-Government: The 1929 Congress Session held in Lahore declared the objective of the Congress as the attainment of Poorna Swaraj or Complete Independence.
  • Key Points of the 1929 Congress Session:
    • Place: Lahore
    • President: Jawahar Lal Nehru
    • Resolution: Indian National Congress adopted the goal of Poorna Swaraj or Complete Independence.
    • Civil Disobedience Movement: It was decided to be launched for complete independence.
    • 26th January: Congress declared this day as the total independence or Purna Swaraj Day.
    • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.
  • 1906 Congress Session:
    • Place: Calcutta
    • President: Dadabhai Naoroji
    • Swaraj: Congress adopted Swaraj (Self-Government) as the goal of the Indian people.
    • Movements: Boycott Movement, Swadeshi, and National Education Movement were adopted.
  • Non-Cooperation Movement:
    • In March 1920, Mahatma Gandhi initiated the non-violent non-cooperation movement.
  • The Round Table Conference:
    • In response to the inadequacy of the Simon Report, the British Government decided to hold a series of Round Table Conferences in London.
    • The first Round Table Conference was convened from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Which of the following is tropical grassland?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Tropical Grassland (Savannah)

  • Tropical Grassland is also referred to as Savannah grassland and is predominantly found in tropical or Savannah climates. Therefore, option 2 is the correct choice.
  • These grasslands are well-developed in regions like Sudan, hence they are sometimes known as Sudan type climates.
  • The mean annual rainfall in tropical grasslands typically ranges from 80 to 160 cm.
  • The mean annual temperature in these regions is usually greater than 18°C.
  • Examples of Savannah grasslands include those found in Africa.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched?

  1. Article 14: Abolition of Untouchability
  2. Article 15: Right against exploitation
  3. Article 16: Right to equal opportunity in employment
  4. Article 17: Abolition of Titles
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Key Points

  • Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Hence, 1 is incorrectly matched.
  • Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. Hence, 2 is incorrectly matched.
  • Article 16: There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Hence, 3 is correctly matched.
  • Article 17: Abolition of untouchability. Hence, 4 is incorrectly matched.
  • Article 18: Abolition of all titles except military and academic titles.

Important Points

  • Fundamental rights are the rights that are essential for the survival of people with dignity.
  • The Indian Constitution accommodates fundamental rights that are Justiciable subject to reasonable restrictions.

There are six fundamental rights namely

  1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
  2. Right to freedom (Article 19-22)
  3. Right against exploitation (Article 23 and 24)
  4. Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
  5. Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30)
  6. Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Who determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) - The policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target is determined by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). The MPC is a six-member committee established by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934. It is mandated to convene at least four times a year.- Inflation Targeting - Inflation targeting is a central banking policy that involves adjusting monetary policy to reach a specified annual inflation rate. This strategy is based on the premise that maintaining price stability is essential for long-term economic growth. Inflation targeting involves setting an inflation rate as a goal and adapting monetary policy to achieve that rate. Supporters believe that this approach not only maintains price stability but also fosters economic growth and stability. Inflation targeting differs from other central banking goals like targeting exchange rates, unemployment, or national income.- Members of the MPC - The six members of the Monetary Policy Committee are: - Ashima Goyal - Shashanka Bhide - Jayanth R. Varma - Shaktikanta Das - Mridul Saggar - Michael Debabrata Patra- Important Points - What is Inflation? - Inflation signifies the increase in the prices of goods and services used daily, such as food, clothing, housing, transport, and more. It measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time. The opposite of inflation, a rare occurrence, is called deflation. Inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of a country's currency, which can impede economic growth. However, a moderate level of inflation is necessary to stimulate production in the economy.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 21
  • Concept:

    • In the kidney of birds, reptiles, and mammals, there exists a U-shaped long portion of the tubule known as the Loop of Henle, which is present in each nephron of the kidney.
    • Its primary function is to reabsorb water and sodium chloride from urine.
    • The Loop of Henle is divided into three main parts:
  1. Thin descending limb of the Loop of Henle:
    • Highly permeable to water but has low permeability to ions and urea.
  2. Thin ascending limb of the Loop of Henle:
    • Impermeable to water but permeable to ions.
  3. Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle:
    • Reabsorbs potassium, sodium, and chloride ions from urine, driven by electrical and concentration gradients.


Option 1: The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes – INCORRECT

  • The descending Loop of Henle is permeable to water but impermeable to electrolytes.
  • Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Option 2: The ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is impermeable to water – CORRECT

  • The ascending Loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows electrolyte transport.
  • Thus, this statement is correct.

Option 3: The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is impermeable to water – INCORRECT

  • The descending Loop of Henle is permeable to water but impermeable to electrolytes.
  • Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Option 4: The ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is permeable to water – INCORRECT

  • The ascending Loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows electrolyte transport.
  • Thus, this statement is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2).

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Pick out the wrong statement in the following:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Identifying the Incorrect Statement:

  • When light travels from air into a glass its frequency changes is the incorrect statement.

Key Points

  • When waves travel from one medium to another, the frequency remains constant.
  • As waves enter a denser medium, they slow down, and the wavelength decreases.
  • Although the wave's speed changes, the frequency of the wave stays the same.
  • Therefore, the statement "When light travels from air into a glass, its frequency changes" is incorrect.

Additional Information 

  • Steel being more elastic than copper is a correct statement.
  • The audible limit of sound for the human ear ranging from 20 Hertz to 20000 Hertz is also correct.
  • Cadmium rods are utilized in nuclear reactors to regulate nuclear fission, making this statement accurate as well.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Identify the set among the following options each having pH more than 7.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Identifying pH Levels

  • The pH scale:
    • The pH scale measures the acidity or alkalinity of a substance based on its hydrogen ion concentration.
    • It ranges from 0 to 14.
    • If pH < 7, the solution is acidic.
    • If pH > 7, the solution is basic.
    • If pH = 7, the solution is neutral.
  • Items in the options:
    • Blood, toothpaste, baking soda, washing soda, and clove oil are basic.
    • Vinegar, lemon, and soft drinks are acidic.
    • Distilled water is neutral with a pH of 7.
    • Among the sets, only "Baking soda, Toothpaste, Clove oil" consists of items that are all basic.

Additional Information

  • pH stands for the potential of Hydrogen.
  • The strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions and OH- ions produced, respectively.
  • The human body operates within a pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
  • When the pH of rainwater drops below 5.6, it is referred to as acid rain.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Moist Deciduous Forest is found in which of the following districts of Bihar? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Moist Deciduous Forests:
These forests are found in the Someshwar hills located in the West Champaran district of Bihar.

  • They are also found in the Kishanganj district, North-East area of Bihar, and the Himalayas Terai belt in Bihar.
  • Annual precipitation in these forests is more than 120 cm.
  • Sal is the most abundant tree in this forest.
  • Other trees like Champa, Ashok, Mango, Karanj, etc. are also found in this forest.

Additional Information

  • Dry Deciduous Forests:
    These are the most abundant forest type in Bihar and are found in both the plains and the peninsular region in South Bihar.
    Shisam, Mahua, Khair, Amia, Harr, etc. are some varieties mainly found in these forests.
  • Montane Subtropical Forests:
    These forests are found in Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and the Western Ghats.
    Mainly found trees in this forest type include cinnamon, rhododendron, olive, etc.
  • Alpine Forests:
    These forests are found above an elevation of 3000 m.
    The common trees in Alpine Forests include black juniper, drooping juniper, honeysuckle, and willow.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 25
What is the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) mandated to ensure?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 25
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is mandated to ensure child rights are protected.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

If FLOWER is coded as 7131624619 and FRUIT is coded as 719221021, then how will PLANT be coded?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Decoding the Pattern

  • The pattern followed in the given codes is as follows:
    • F → 6; 6 + 1 = 7 (Positional value + 1)
    • L → 12; 12 + 1 = 13
    • O → 15; 15 + 1 = 16
    • W → 23; 23 + 1 = 24
    • E → 5; 5 + 1 = 6
    • R → 18; 18 + 1 = 19

Decoding FLOWER and FRUIT

  • Given codes:
    • F → 6; 6 + 1 = 7
    • R → 18; 18 + 1 = 19
    • U → 21; 21 + 1 = 22
    • I → 9; 9 + 1 = 10
    • T → 20; 20 + 1 = 21

    Therefore, FLOWER is coded as 7131624619 and FRUIT is coded as 719221021.

Decoding PLANT

  • Decoding PLANT using the same pattern:
    • P → 16; 16 + 1 = 17
    • L → 12; 12 + 1 = 13
    • A → 1; 1 + 1 = 2
    • N → 14; 14 + 1 = 15
    • T → 20; 20 + 1 = 21

    Therefore, PLANT is coded as 171321521.

Therefore, the correct answer is 171321521.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

In February, South Asian Women’s Film Festival was held at which district of Bihar ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The South Asian Women’s Film Festival in Bihar

  • Location: Patna

The South Asian Women’s Film Festival took place in Patna, Bihar. Here are some key points regarding the event:

  • Secretary Bandana Preyashi mentioned that the festival was inaugurated by Minister of Art, Culture, and Youth Department, Jitendra Kumar Rai, at Magadh Women’s College. The event concluded at NIFT Patna Campus.
  • The festival, organized by the Department of Art, Culture, and Youth, lasted for seven days and showcased films from South Asia in four educational institutions in Patna. Additionally, various topics related to women empowerment were discussed during the festival.
  • A total of six films were screened at the event, featuring filmmakers from Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and India. These films shed light on various aspects of women's discourse and aimed to inspire discussions about women in South Asia.
  • The films screened at the festival included India’s 'Sita Ke Badalte Roop' and 'The City That Spoke to Me,' Sri Lanka’s 'Face Cover,' Nepal’s 'Be Four You Where My Mother,' and 'Flames of a Continuous Field of Time.'
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
What is the capital subsidy percentage for investments up to Rs 10 crore under the new Bihar Tourism Policy?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
The policy includes a capital subsidy of 30% for investments up to Rs 10 crore.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Recently nearly 6-decade-old Lokur Committee has been in news. It is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Understanding Lokur Committee and its Relevance

  • The Lokur Committee:
    • The Lokur Committee, established in 1965, was tasked with investigating the criteria for classifying Scheduled Tribes.
    • The Office of the Registrar-General of India continues to follow the criteria laid out by the Lokur Committee to define new communities as Scheduled Tribes.
    • The Lokur Committee identifies a community as a tribe based on specific criteria, including primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, and limited contact with the broader community.

Significance of Scheduled Tribes in India

  • Constitutional Provisions:
    • As per Article 342 of the Constitution, communities identified as Scheduled Tribes are referred to as such in Article 366(25) of the Constitution.
    • Scheduled Tribes encompass tribes, tribal communities, parts of tribes, or specific groups within these communities that are officially declared as Scheduled Tribes by the President through a public notification, in accordance with Article 342.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
For how many years will the new tourism units receive 100% reimbursement of electricity tariff?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
The new tourism units will receive 100% reimbursement of electricity tariff for 5 years.
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