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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8

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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

Which of the following was prime objective of Tauhid-e-Ilahi founded by Akbar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

The Significance of Tauhid-e-Ilahi

  • Akbar's Initiative: Akbar established the Ibadat Khana at Sikri Fatehpur to engage in religious discussions with scholars from various faiths.
  • Innovative Religion: Unimpressed by existing religions, Akbar devised a novel faith known as Din-e-Ilahi, which he referred to as Tauhid-e-Ilahi.
  • Distinct Characteristics: Tauhid-e-Ilahi featured no religious idols, rituals, places of worship, or a priestly hierarchy.
  • Inclusivity: It was open to all individuals and incorporated positive elements from different religions.
  • Unique Practice: Akbar would whisper a mantra into the ear of those seeking to embrace this new religion.
  • Reception: While many nobles declined to join, Birbal, one of Akbar's close associates, became a follower.

Additional Insights

  • Akbar's Navratna: The notable figures in Akbar's court, known as Navratna, included individuals like Birbal, Raja Man Singh, and Tansen.
  • Royal Proclamations: Akbar's official decrees were referred to as Mehzar, signifying his authority and commands.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with reference to the Mountbatten Plan.

  1. It sought to give dominion status to India and Pakistan.
  2. It provided for the setting up of the Boundary Commission.
  3. The plan lacked any provision for conducting a referendum to determine which sides a region would go to.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Below are some important points related to the Mountbatten Plan:
Mountbatten Plan

  • The Mountbatten Plan, also known as the 3rd June 1947 Plan, aimed to facilitate a swift transfer of power by granting Dominion Status to India and Pakistan, making statement 1 correct.
  • Congress was initially willing to accept Dominion Status as it felt the need to take full control immediately and address the volatile situation in the country.
  • The key features of the Mountbatten Plan included:
    • Separation of Muslim-dominated regions to form a Dominion.
    • In the event of separation, Bengal and Punjab would be partitioned.
    • A referendum in the North-West Frontier Province would determine its association with Pakistan. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
    • Residents of Sylhet in Assam were also to participate in a referendum to decide whether they would join the Muslim region in Bengal.
    • A Boundary Commission was established to delineate the boundaries of Hindu and Muslim provinces in Punjab and Bengal, making statement 2 correct.
    • The British Parliament was to enact legislation for an immediate power transfer.
    • Representatives of Muslim-majority areas could create a separate Constitution-making body or Constituent Assembly.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Which of the following mineral belts in India is famous for the production of iron ore and coal?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Key Points

  • The most striking feature of the Indian minerals is their uneven distribution. Some areas are very rich in minerals while some others are completely devoid of this valuable asset.
  • India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure.
  • A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties. 

Important Points
Chhotanagpur belt:

  • This belt comprising of Chota Nagpur plateau and Orissa Plateau in the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa is the richest mineral belt of India.
  • It contains large quantities of coal, iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite, copper, kyanite, chromite, beryl, apatite and many more minerals.
  • In fact, you ask for any major mineral of India and you will find it in this belt.
  • Thus it is a mineral region par excellence.
  • The Chota Nagpur plateau is known as the mineral heartland of India.
  • According to Wadia, this region possesses India’s 100 per cent Kyanite, 93 per cent iron ore, 84 per cent coal, 70 per cent chromite, 70 per cent mica, 50 per cent fire clay, 45 per cent asbestos, 45 per cent china clay, 20 per cent limestone and 10 per cent manganese.
  • However, many changes have taken place in the recent years.

Hence, the Chhotanagpur belt in India is famous for the production of iron ore and coal.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Choose the correct hierarchy of organisations of local self-government bodies

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Concept:

  • Local government refers to governance at the village and district level.
  • A Panchayat is an institution established under the Constitution of India for rural areas.

Gram Panchayat:

  • It serves as the fundamental unit of the Panchayati Raj system at the village level.
  • Gram Panchayat is responsible for local governance at the village level.

Nagar Panchayat:

  • Nagar Panchayat is designated for areas transitioning from rural to urban settings.
  • It operates at the level of small towns.

Municipal Council:

  • A Municipal Council is established for smaller urban areas.
  • It is the primary governing body of a municipality, making key decisions affecting the area.

Municipal Corporation:

  • Municipal Corporation is formed for larger urban areas.
  • It caters to the development of metropolitan cities with a population exceeding one million.
  • Members of Municipal Corporations, known as Councillors, are directly elected by the people.
  • These corporations are known by various names such as Mahanagar Palika, Nagar Palika, Nagar Nigam, City Corporation, etc.

From the above information, it is evident that the correct hierarchy of local self-government bodies is Gram Panchayat, Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation.
Mistake Points
For big cities like Mumbai, Pune - Municipal Corporation (Population exceeding 10 lakh).

  • For Small Cities - Municipal Council (Population ranging from 25,000 to 10 lakh).
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 5
How much did NEET aspirants allegedly pay for leaked exam papers in Bihar?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 5
NEET aspirants allegedly paid up to ₹30 lakh for leaked exam papers in Bihar.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Which of the following combinations is correct?
I. Amoeba – Pseudopodia
II. Paramoecium – Cilia
III. Euglena – Tentacles
IV. Hydra – Flagella

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 6
  • Amoeba and Pseudopodia: Amoeba moves using pseudopodia, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane that help in movement. The pseudopodia form due to the streaming of protoplasm.
  • Paramecium and Cilia: Paramecium moves with the help of cilia present all over its body. Cilia are tiny hair-like structures that beat rhythmically to propel the organism forward.

Key Points

  • Euglena: Euglena moves using flagella that arise from the cytostome of the hypopharynx.
  • Hydra: Hydra uses tentacles for locomotion and also for capturing prey.

Additional Information

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Which of the following is NOT true about the sound?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

The correct answer is - Speed of sound is maximum in gases

  • Speed of sound is maximum in solids.

Key Points

  • Sound Wave
    • It is a longitudinal mechanical wave.
    • The longitudinal mechanical waves with frequencies in the range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz are called audible or sound waves.
    • The longitudinal mechanical waves with frequencies less than 20 Hz are called infrasonic.
    • Examples of infrasonic waves include those produced by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, ocean waves, elephants, and whales.
    • The longitudinal mechanical waves with frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves.
    • Speed of Sound
      • In a medium, the speed of sound depends primarily on the elasticity and density of the medium.
      • When sound waves transition from one medium to another, their speed and wavelength change while the frequency remains constant.
      • In a medium, the speed of sound is not influenced by frequency.
      • The speed of sound is maximum in solids and minimum in gases.
      • The speed of sound is higher in humid air compared to dry air due to the lower density of humid air.
      • The unit of loudness is the decibel (dB).
      • Effect of pressure on the speed of sound:
        • The speed of sound is unaffected by pressure changes.
      • Effect of temperature on the speed of sound:
        • The speed of sound increases with rising temperature in the medium.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Identification of Incorrect Match
Magnesium hydroxide - Mg(OH)2

  • Magnesium hydroxide is a compound with the chemical formula Mg(OH)2.
  • It is a white solid with low solubility in water and is found in nature as the mineral brucite.
  • Commonly used in antacids like milk of magnesia and as laxatives.
  • Additional uses include:
    • Component of antiperspirants.
    • Utilized industrially to neutralize acidic wastewaters.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

Ajay travels from his house to his office. If he travelled at 8 kmph he would reach his office 5 minutes late. If he travelled at 12 kmph he would reach his office 5 minutes earlier. Find the distance between his house and his office (in kilometers).

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

Given:

  • Ajay travels from his house to his office. If he traveled at 8 kmph, he would reach his office 5 minutes late. If he traveled at 12 kmph, he would reach his office 5 minutes earlier.
  • Formula used:
  • Speed = Distance/time
  • Calculation:
  • Let's assume the distance between his house and office is D km.
  • According to the given information:
  • 8 = D / (t + 5/60) ---(1)
  • 12 = D / (t - 5/60) ---(2)
  • Where t represents the time taken in hours.
  • By solving equations (1) and (2), we get:
  • 8(t + 5/60) = 12(t - 5/60)
  • 8t + 40/60 = 12t - 60/60
  • 5/3 = 4t
  • t = 5/12
  • Putting the value of t in equation (1), we have:
  • 8 = D / (5/12 + 5/60)
  • 8 = 60D / 30
  • D = 240 / 60
  • Therefore, the distance between Ajay's house and office is 4 km.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4 km.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 10
Which organization is currently conducting NEET exams?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 10
NEET exams are currently conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
Who will inaugurate the new campus of Nalanda University at Rajgir, Bihar?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
The Prime Minister of India will inaugurate the new campus of Nalanda University at Rajgir, Bihar.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 12
What type of campus is the new Nalanda University campus designed to be?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 12
The new Nalanda University campus is designed to be a ‘Net Zero’ Green Campus.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

Which of the following is the headquarters of the Koshi administrative divisions of Bihar? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
  • The Bihar Administrative Divisions:
    • The state of Bihar is divided into 9 administrative divisions, which further consist of districts, subdivisions, circles, municipal corporations, Nagar Parishads, and Nagar Panchayats.
  • Administrative Divisions of Bihar and Their
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

Which National Highway in Bihar is a part of Golden Quadrilateral Project?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

The National Highway in Bihar as a Part of Golden Quadrilateral Project

  • NH 19:
    • NH 19 is a significant National Highway in India that connects multiple states including Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
    • It forms a crucial part of the historical Grand Trunk Road alongside old NH 91 and old NH 1 in India.
    • This highway links the national capital Delhi to Kolkata and passes through important cities such as Faridabad, Mathura, Agra, Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, Dhanbad, Asansol, Durgapur, and Bardhaman.
    • Bihar is part of the Golden Quadrilateral Project through NH 19.
    • Major cities in Bihar situated along NH 19 include Mohania, Kudra, Sasaram, Dehri on Sone, Aurangabad, and Sherghati.

Additional Information

  • NH 31:
    • National Highway 31 (NH 31) is a primary national highway in India.
    • It originates from Unnao in Uttar Pradesh, passes through Bihar, and ends at its intersection with State Highway 10 in West Bengal at Samsi in Malda district.
    • SH 10 (WB) connects Samsi to NH 12.
    • There is also a spur route from Kora to Purnea.
  • NH 35:
    • National Highway 35 (NH 35) is a National Highway in India.
    • This highway entirely runs within the state of Uttar Pradesh.
    • Its route includes Kabrai, Banda, Karwi, Mau, Allahabad, Mirzapur, and Varanasi.
  • NH 38:
    • National Highway 38 (NH 38) is a National Highway in India.
    • It operates entirely within Tamil Nadu.
    • NH-38 starts from Vellore and ends at Thoothukudi, passing through major cities including Polur, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Ulundurpettai, Perambalur, Trichy, Melur, Madurai, Aruppukottai.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

The "Golden League" was established at Deoghar, Bihar during which of the following movement?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Swadeshi Movement in Bihar:

  • The establishment of "The Golden League" at Deoghar in 1904 was a significant event aimed at boycotting British goods and advancing the Swadeshi Movement in Bihar.
  • In Bhagalpur, the agitation began in 1906, and Surendra Nath Banerjee, along with other supporters, visited the area to deliver lectures on Swadeshi. The majority of supporters were college students who organized processions, dressed in red and yellow clothes, and wore Vande Mataram badges.
  • As a result, Swadeshi shops started gaining popularity and made a profound impact on the people.
  • Tulsi Sing, a resident of Naubatpur, Patna, was greatly influenced by Swadeshi during his time in Calcutta. In 1908, he delivered a powerful speech in Patna district, urging the audience to refrain from buying British goods, criticize the British, and avoid using government courts for grievance redressal.
  • Therefore, it can be concluded that the establishment of the "Golden League" in Devghar was in support of the Boycott and Swadeshi Movement.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Which Chauhan king did the Chalukya king Jai Singh marry his daughter to?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 16
  • Arnoraj
    • Arnoraj was the son of Ajayraj.
    • He was also known as Ana Ji.
    • He married Chalukya king Jai Singh's daughter, Kanchan Devi.
    • Under his rule, Pushkar's Varaha temple was constructed.
    • He also commissioned the construction of Ana Sagar Lake.
    • Scholars Devbodh and Dharmghosh were part of his court.

Additional Information

  • Prithviraj III
    • He was the son of Someshwar.
    • Also known as Rai Pithora/Dal Pangul.
    • Married Abu Naresh Jait Singh's daughter, Achhan Kumari.
    • Ascended to the throne in 1178 AD.
    • Established the Art literature department in Ajmer.
    • Chandbardai, Jayanak, Vageeshwar, Janardan were prominent courtier scholars during his reign.
  • Someshwar
    • Son of Arnoraj.
    • Married Anangpal Tomar's daughter, Karpur Devi.
    • Commissioned a statue of Arnoraj and himself.
    • Met his demise at the hands of Chalukya ruler Bhim II for supporting Abu ruler Jait Singh.
  • Beesaldev
    • Son of Arnoraj.
    • Also known as Vigrahraj IV.
    • Revered as Kavi Bandhav for providing refuge to scholars.
    • Defeated Gajni ruler Ameer Khushroshah, securing independence for Hindu rulers from Gajni rule.
    • His era is termed as the Golden period of Sapadlaksh's Chauhan.
    • Also known as Katibandhu.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Who among the following was the head of the Indian Statutory Commission of 1928?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Clarification on the Indian Statutory Commission of 1928

  • Indian Statutory Commission: Also known as the Simon Commission, this group consisted of seven members of parliament.
  • Formation Year: The commission was established in 1928.
  • Composition: The commission comprised only British members, leading to Indians feeling excluded, eventually resulting in a boycott by the Indians, Congress party, and Muslim League.
  • Protest Slogan: A popular slogan during this period was 'Simon go back.'

Key Points

  • Additional Information: The commission was tasked with studying constitutional reform in Britain's largest colony.
  • Member Involvement: Clement Attlee was one of the members of this commission.
  • Diarchy Introduction: The concept of diarchy in India was introduced through the Government of India Act 1919, which included a provision for the appointment of a commission after a decade.

Additional Information

  • The correct head of the Indian Statutory Commission of 1928 was Sir John Allsebrook Simon.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

Zaskar range are situated at-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

The Zaskar Range Location

  • Zaskar range lies south of the Karakoram range. This makes option 3 incorrect.
  • Zaskar range lies between Ladakh and Pir Panjal. Therefore, option 2 is the correct choice.
  • Zaskar range lies west of Nanda Devi mountain. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The Himalayas consist of a series of parallel mountain ranges. Some of the important ranges are the Greater Himalayan range, which includes the Great Himalayas and the Trans-Himalayan range, the Middle Himalayas, and the Shiwalik.
  • The Himalayas can be divided into the following sub-divisions:
    1. Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas
    2. Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas
    3. Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas
    4. Arunachal Himalayas
    5. Eastern Hills and Mountains.
  • Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas
    • It comprises a series of ranges such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar, and Pir Panjal.
  • Nanda Devi (7816 m) is the second-highest peak in India after Kanchendzonga
    • It is part of the Greater Himalayas; this peak is situated in the Garhwal region, in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
    • Zaskar range lies west of Nanda Devi mountain. Hence, option 1 is correct.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

With reference to states reorganization in India, arrange the following mentioned States/Union Territories (UTs) in the chronological order of their formation:

  1. Sikkim
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Manipur
  4. Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Chronological Formation of States and Union Territories in India

  • Himachal Pradesh: Himachal Pradesh was initially created as a Union Territory through the State Reorganization Act of 1956. In 1966, the hill areas of the State of Haryana were merged with Himachal Pradesh. In 1971, Himachal Pradesh became the 18th State of the Union of India.
  • Manipur: Manipur was elevated from a Union Territory to the status of a state in 1972, becoming the 19th State of India.
  • Sikkim: Sikkim was initially granted the status of an 'associate state' of India in 1974 through the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act. However, in 1975, it was incorporated as a full-fledged state through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, becoming the 22nd State of India.
  • Mizoram: Mizoram came into existence as the 23rd State of India in 1987.
  • Fazl Ali Commission: The Fazl Ali Commission, a States Reorganization Commission, was constituted by the Central Government of India in 1953 to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries.
  • Recommendations:
    • The Commission proposed the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original constitution (Part-A, B, C, and D).
    • It recommended the creation of 16 states and 3 Union Territories, including Andaman & Nicobar, Delhi, and Manipur. It also suggested merging other Part-C/D territories with adjacent states.
  • States Reorganization Act, 1956: The Act resulted in the establishment of 14 states and 6 Union Territories in November 1956, including Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Himachal Pradesh, "Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands", Manipur, and Tripura.

Therefore, the correct chronological order of formation for the given States/Union Territories is Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim, and Mizoram.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

________ is used to monitor changes in cost of living over time.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Understanding the Monitoring of Changes in Cost of Living Over Time

  • Consumer Price Index (CPI): The correct option is Consumer Price Index (CPI). CPI is used to monitor changes in the cost of living over time. It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them.
  • Wholesale Price Index (WPI): WPI is an indicator of price changes in the wholesale market. It measures the changes in commodity prices at selected stages before goods reach the retail level.
  • Producer Price Index (PPI): PPI is an index that measures the average price change received by the producer excluding the indirect taxes.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Match the following (Column I interaction with Column II its example).

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Key Points:

  • Interaction is essential for the species to live.
  • It is mutualism, predation, competition, commensalism, and proto-cooperation.
  • In nature, the interacting species coevolve with each other.

Predation:

  • It is +,-.
  • In this interaction, one species wins, and another loose.
  • Seed-eating birds are an example.
  • Predator bird eats the seed and thus get benefitted.

Competition:

  • It is -,-.
  • In this interaction,  both species lose.
  • Balanus and chathamalus barnacles.
  • Balanus barnacles predominate over chathamalus.

Commensalism:

  • It is +,0.
  • In this interaction, one species dominates, and the other is neither benefited nor harmed.
  • Cattle and egrets are examples.
  • Egrets move along cattle in the field to feed on insects.

Mutualism:

  • It is +,+.
  • In this interaction, both species are benefited.
  • Mycorrhiza is an example.
  • In this association, both fungi and plants get the benefit one to provide water and other food.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

If the speed of a cycle become two times, then the kinetic energy becomes ________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

Concept:

  • Kinetic energy (KE): The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.

KE = 1/2 * m * v^2
Where m = mass of the body and v = velocity of the body

  • By the formula for kinetic energy: KE = 1/2 * m * v^2
  • When the velocity becomes twice, the kinetic energy will be calculated as: KE = 1/2 * m * (2v)^2 = 2mv^2
  • As the kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of the velocity, if the velocity becomes twice, the kinetic energy would be four times (square of twice gives four).
  • Since the mass of the cycle remains constant, there is no change in mass in this scenario.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Identify the INCORRECT statement on heat

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Identifying the Incorrect Statement on Heat

  • Heating causes a rise in temperature.
  • Solids undergo maximum expansion due to heat.
  • On heating, substances undergo physical changes.
  • On heating, some substances catch fire.

The correct answer is Solids undergo maximum expansion due to heat.
Key Points

  • Application of heat to certain substances causes only physical changes in which no new substance or substances are formed.
    • Application of heat to some substances causes chemical changes, or chemical reactions, in which one or more new substances are formed, with different properties from the original.
    • Gases expand much more than the liquids and the solids. The greater the attraction between the molecules, the smaller the expansion will be. Because intermolecular forces of attraction are less in gases, more in liquid and much more in solid.
    • From the above, it is clear that Option 2 is an incorrect statement.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Name the new kind of painting that was developed in Eastern India (Bengal, Bihar and Orissa) during the Pala Kingdom in 9th - 10th century A.D.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Development of Miniature Painting in Eastern India during Pala Kingdom

  • Miniature painting was a style that emerged in Eastern India (Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa) during the rule of the Pala Kingdom in the 9th - 10th century A.D.
  • Miniature painting is a genre that focuses on art (painting, engraving, sculpture) and has a long history dating back to the scribes of the medieval ages.
  • Notable collections of miniature paintings can be found in renowned institutions like the U.S. White House, the Smithsonian American Art Museum, and other museums globally.
  • The Pala Empire was a significant power during the Late Classical period in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Mural painting refers to artwork painted directly on walls, ceilings, or other permanent surfaces.
  • Thanjavur painting is a classical South Indian painting style that originated in the town of Thanjavur (Tanjore).
  • Oil painting involves using pigments with a medium of drying oil as the binder.
  • It is worth noting that this development predates the era of Mughal emperors like Akbar and Jehangir.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

A, B and C can do a work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. If total Rs, 3000 is given to them, then find their individual share.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

Given:

  • A, B, and C can complete a work in 20, 30, and 60 days respectively.
  • Total wages paid = Rs. 3000

Concept used:

  • Ratio of efficiency = Ratio of wages

Formula used:

  • Total work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

  • Efficiency of A in one day = 1/20
  • Efficiency of B in one day = 1/30
  • Efficiency of C in one day = 1/60
  • Ratio of their efficiency = (1/20) : (1/30) : (1/60)
  • Multiply the above ratio by 60, we get
  • Ratio of their efficiency = 3 : 2 : 1
  • According to the concept, we have
  • Ratio of wages = 3 : 2 : 1
  • Let the wage of A, B, and C be 3x, 2x, and x respectively
  • So, 3x + 2x + x = Rs. 3000
  • ⇒ 6x = Rs. 3000
  • ⇒ x = Rs. 500
  • So, the wage of A = 3x
  • ⇒ Rs. (3 × 500)
  • ⇒ Rs. 1500
  • And, the wage of B = 2x
  • ⇒ Rs. (2 × 500)
  • ⇒ Rs. 1000
  • And, the wage of C = x
  • ⇒ Rs. 500

∴ The salary of A, B, and C is Rs. 1500, Rs. 1000, and Rs. 500.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of evaporation?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

The Role of Mass in Evaporation

  • The rate of evaporation is not influenced by the mass of the liquid.
  • Evaporation is the transformation of a liquid into vapor at room temperature.
  • Factors affecting evaporation include the nature of the liquid, temperature, and surface area.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

How many members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor in Bihar? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 27
  • Key Points:
    • The Bihar Legislative Council has a total of 75 seats, with 63 filled by elected officials and 12 by nominees.
    • Members of the Legislative Council (MLC) serve a six-year term, with a third of the council retiring every two years.
    • Selection criteria for members of the legislative councils include:
      • Members of local organizations like municipalities, gramme sabhas, panchayat samiti, and Zila Parishads elect one-third of the representatives.
      • Members of the State's Legislative Assemblies elect one-third of the total.
      • Graduate teachers elect one-twelfth of the group.
      • Graduates of the State's universities elect one-twelfth of the members.
      • The governor nominates candidates for one-sixth of the positions from individuals with expertise in disciplines like literature, science, the arts, cooperative movements, and social service.
      • A single transferable vote method is used for electing members based on proportional representation.
  • Additional Information:
    • According to Article 171 of the Constitution, a state's legislative council may consist of no fewer than 40 members and a maximum of one-third of the members of the State Assembly.
    • The legislative council is a continuing chamber, similar to the Rajya Sabha, and is a permanent institution that cannot be dissolved.
    • A Member of the Legislative Council (MLC) has a six-year term, with a rotating third of members leaving office every two years.
    • States with a legislative council include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
Which international body declared the ruins of Nalanda University a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
The ruins of Nalanda University were declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
What was the Patna High Court's decision regarding Bihar's reservation quota hike?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
The Patna High Court nullified Bihar’s decision to raise the reservation quota from 50% to 65%.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
According to the Supreme Court's verdict in Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India, what is the maximum ceiling for reservation beneficiaries?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
The Supreme Court's verdict in Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India set a maximum ceiling of 50% for reservation beneficiaries.
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